1. Home
  2. Flashcards
  3. Preview

2017 CQT Questions

  1. 1.) While enroute to SLC, if descending or holding in moderate icing conditions, is an engine run-up required?
    If so, how is this done?
    • Yes.
    • With thrust settings below 80% N1, accomplish a run-up on one engine at a time to a minimum of 80% N1 at 15-minute intervals to clear ice from fan blades and spinner.

    AOM Chapter 15
  2. 2.) Is holding in icing conditions allowed?
    Yes

    AOM Chapters 3, 15
  3. 3.) Is holding in icing conditions with the flaps extended allowed while in a Classic?
    An NG?
    • Classic - Yes
    • NG - No

    AOM Chapters 3, 15
  4. 4.) If icing conditions are present on the approach with the flaps extended, what position should the flight crew retract the flaps to after landing?
    Flaps15

    AOM Chapter 12
  5. 5.) How should reverse thrust be applied when landing with RCC 3-MED or less reported and both Min(2) and Med(3) stopping margins are negative [bracketed] ?
    Maximum Reverse Thrust use is required. Do not reduce reverse thrust until a safe stop is ensured.

    AOM Chapter 12
  6. 6.) When landing on slippery runways (3-MED or less) when should manual braking override the autobrakes?
    • Delay the transition to manual wheel braking until a safe stop is ensured.
    • Manually overriding the autobrake system causes the anti-skid system to readjust for optimum brake pressure.
    • During this readjustment, braking effectiveness is reduced causing an increase in the landing roll.

    AOM Chapter 12
  7. 7.) After landing, is towing the aircraft permitted on a taxiway reported as NIL?
    No.

    AOM Chapter 3
  8. 8.) After landing how do you coordinate for deicing with the flaps extended?
    By following the station deicing plan referencing the SIP, and coordinating with station operations.

    Station Information Pages
  9. 9.) What is the landing contamination limit for wet snow?
    2 Inches.

    AOM Chapter 3
  10. 10.) Is takeoff or landing authorized on a runway with a braking action report of NIL (RCC 0)?
    No.

    AOM Chapter 3
  11. 11.) What is the minimum authorized RCC value for landing?
    RCC 1 (poor).


    Reference: NG/CL Runway Surface Condition Reference Card
  12. 12.) When must a Pilot field condition report be sent?
    • Anytime braking action advisories are in effect.
    • Anytime braking action is less than 5-GOOD.
    • At a Dispatcher’s request.
    • When actual conditions differ from those listed on the Dispatch Release.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 16
  13. 13.) Just after reaching cruising altitude enroute from BWI to TPA, a chime sounds announcing an Automatic Unlock request for the cockpit door. You have had no communication from the Flight Attendants.

    What is happening?
    Someone has entered the auto unlock code.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 1, QRH Chapter 1
  14. 14.) Is there an Immediate Action Item or QRC procedure?
    Yes. QRC procedure: AUTOMATIC UNLOCK.


    Reference: QRH Chapter 1
  15. 15.) How long is the external access keypad deactivated following a DENY selection of the FLT DK DOOR?
    15 min.

    See Ops Binder 2.3.7.
  16. 16.) What is the emergency access code?
    5-2-3,   ENT

    Ops Binder 2.3.6.
  17. 17.) How would you determine if common strategy applies in this scenario?
    • A Level 4 threat exists if:
    • Attempted or actual breach of flt. deck.

    Ops Binder 2.3.7. & 4.1
  18. 18.) If attempts to contact Flight Attendants are unsuccessful, or you assess that the cockpit is under attack - what now?
    Implement Lockdown procedures

    Ops Binder Chapter 4.5.3
  19. 19.) With the emergency code entered, what will happen if the Pilot takes no action?
    The door unlocks after expiration of the time delay.


    FRM Chapter 1
  20. 20.) How would you accomplish an evacuation through the cockpit window in the event it is necessary?
    • Open the cockpit window.
    • Access the escape rope, ensure that it securely connected, and toss it out the window.
    • Then exit the window feet first and slide down while using caution for probes on the side of the aircraft.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 1
  21. 21.) You are climbing through FL230 in a -700 enroute from MCO to BWI when the #1 Engine Oil Filter Bypass Light blinks and illuminates steady.

    If the Oil Filter Bypass light illuminates, will the Master Caution also illuminate?
    No


    FRM Chapter 7
  22. 22.) What does the illumination of the Oil Filter Bypass light indicate?
    Blinking or Steady: An impending bypass of scavenge oil filter.


    FRM Chapter 7
  23. 23.) What could cause a bypass of the filter?
    Oil contamination.


    FRM Chapter 7
  24. 24.) Can the oil bypass the contaminated scavenge filter?
    Yes, it will bypass the filter automatically and trigger the Oil Filter Bypass light.



    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  25. 25.) If the engine seizes, which checklist should Crewmembers reference?
    QRC: ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation.


    QRH Chapter 7, Checklist Instructions
  26. 26.) How does the QRH define nearest suitable airfield?
    Nearest airport in point of time with suitable facilities and weather.



    Reference: QRH Chapter 7, Checklist Instructions
  27. 27.) What is the minimum oil quantity for a flight departing a maintenance base/station?
    NG - 70 percent Classic - 3 gallons


    AOM Chapter 3, AOM Section 14.1, Operations Binder Chapter 5
  28. 28.) When must the Captain arrange for oil service when terminating at a non-Maintenance base?
    NG - Less than 65 percent Classic – Less than 2.5 gallons


    AOM Chapter 3, AOM Section 14.1, Operations Binder Chapter 5
  29. 29.) When is a post-flight walk-around not required on a terminator?
    • When terminating at a maintenance base (DAL, HOU, MDW, PHX), or
    • Maintenance station (ATL, BWI, DEN, FLL, LAS, LAX, MCO, MKE, OAK, TPA), or
    • SWA Maintenance personnel meet the aircraft and accept responsibility.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 3, AOM Section 14.1, Operations Binder Chapter 5
  30. 30.) If the engine Oil Filter Bypass light illuminates, but extinguishes when thrust is reduced, can the engine be operated at reduced thrust?
    • Yes, but landing at the nearest suitable airport should be considered.
    • The Captain must evaluate the procedures that prescribe an engine shutdown to ascertain if an actual shutdown or operating at reduced thrust is the safest course of action.
    • Consideration must be given to possible effects if the engine is left running at minimum required thrust.
    • If the QRH prescribes operating an engine at reduced thrust, the Captain (in conjunction with Dispatch) ascertains if landing at an airport other than the intended destination is warranted.


    QRH Chapter 7, Checklist Instructions, FOM Chapter 5
  31. 31.) What configuration would you choose for landing if the engine were operating at reduced thrust?
    • The Captain should choose a flap setting that minimizes the risk for the given situation.
    • With both engines operating, a normal approach may be flown.
    • Proactive Crewmembers will brief the necessary steps to take if the engine does fail while on approach and be prepared to execute them.
    • Consider a flaps 15 landing to reduce workload if the engine fails during the approach phase.
    • As always, Crewmembers must consider all risk factors to determine the least-risk course of action.


    Reference: QRH Chapter 7, Checklist Instructions, FOM Chapter 5
  32. 32.) You are climbing out from MDW to PHX in a -700 passing through 8000’ MSL when the number two engine N1 rolls back and the EGT starts increasing. The aircraft vibrates and the engine is making abnormal noises.

    Which QRC/QRH checklist applies to this situation?
    QRC—Engine Limit or Surge or Stall


    QRH Chapter 7
  33. 33.) What is happening with the engine?
    Most likely, a compressor stall.


    QRH Chapter 7
  34. 34.) If it is a compressor stall, what will likely happen if the thrust is reduced?
    • The airflow through the engine may stabilize and the compressor stall could go away by retarding the thrust lever (per the QRC).
    • The QRH will allow the thrust lever to be advanced and used normally.



    Reference: QRH Chapter 7
  35. 35.) If the compressor stall clears, are you authorized to continue normally?
    • Yes, but landing at the nearest suitable airport should be considered.
    • The Captain must evaluate the procedures that prescribe an engine shutdown to ascertain if an actual shutdown or operating at reduced thrust is the safest course of action.
    • Consideration must be given to possible effects if the engine is left running at minimum required thrust.
    • If the QRH prescribes operating an engine at reduced thrust, the Captain (in conjunction with Dispatch) ascertains if landing at an airport other than the intended destination is warranted.



    Reference: FOM Chapter 5, QRH Chapter 7, RRM & ABCD Processes
  36. 36.) Question removed, (Duplicate of #26)
  37. 37.) What resources are available if the engine fails during an approach?
    • The steps listed in AOM 5.7.10 Engine Failure During Landing apply.
    •  - Continue flaps 30 or 40
    •  - Continue flaps 15
    •  - Execute a go-around

    The ENGINE FAILURE SHUTDOWN checklist could apply if time permits.



    Reference: QRH Chapter 7, AOM Chapter 5
  38. 38.) What configuration would you choose for landing if the engine were operating at reduced thrust?
    • The Captain should choose a flap setting that minimizes the risk for the given situation.
    • With both engines operating, a normal approach may be flown.
    • Proactive Crewmembers will brief the necessary steps to take if the engine does fail while on approach and be prepared to execute them.
    • Consider a flaps 15 landing to reduce workload if the engine fails during the approach phase.
    • As always, Crewmembers must consider all risk factors to determine the least-risk course of action.


    FOM Chapter 5, RRM & ABCD Processes
  39. 39.) Could MDW be considered nearest suitable in this scenario?
    • Landing performance for a heavy weight airplane on a short runway must be considered.
    • Other nearby airports (ORD, IND, MKE) may be more suitable.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 5, RRM & ABCD Processes
  40. 40.) If the engine returns to normal operation, what action is required after landing?
    The engine malfunction should be written up and Maintenance action taken.



    Reference: FOM Chapter 19
  41. 41.) You are in a -700, pushing back from C2 in LAS. Thundershowers appear to be building in the area. As you call for taxi, the ATIS changes to include gusty winds, virga, and LLWS.


    If performance numbers change after pushback, what must you accomplish?
    The Crewmembers must adjust the performance numbers in the CDU, reset flap position, brief applicable changes, and run the Departure Plan Checklist.


    AOM Chapter 8
  42. 42.) Can the FO make operational changes to the CDU while the aircraft is taxiing?
    Yes provided the visibility is equal to or greater than 4000 RVR or ¾ miles, the Captain is alerted, and can balance the workload in accordance with AOM 8.1 Managing Intensive Tasks During taxi.


    AOM Chapter 8
  43. 43.) If the changes to takeoff performance precipitate a change in the flap setting, can the FO adjust while the aircraft is moving?
    Yes.


    AOM Chapter 8
  44. 44.) Are you authorized to complete the Departure Plan checklist while taxiing?
    No. The aircraft must be stopped to run the Departure Plan Checklist.



    Reference: AOM Chapter 8
  45. 45.) What is the difference between a PWS Caution and a PWS Warning?
    • The PWS Caution sounds the aural alert “Monitor Radar Display.”
    • The PWS Warning sounds the aural alert, “WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD,” on takeoff or, “GO AROUND, WINDHSEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD,” on approach.


    AOM Chapter 15
  46. 46.) What is the procedure for a PWS Caution?
    • On takeoff –continue the takeoff and use the precautionary takeoff profile.
    • Be prepared to execute the windshear recovery procedure.

    • On approach – initiate a normal go-around.
    • Be prepared to execute the windshear recovery procedure.


    AOM Chapter 15
  47. 47.) What is the procedure for a PWS Warning?
    • On takeoff – Either delay the takeoff roll or, if commenced, safely abort the takeoff.
    • If the takeoff roll is continued, takeoff using the precautionary takeoff profile.
    • Be prepared to execute the windshear recovery procedure.

    • On approach - initiate a normal go-around.
    • Be prepared to execute the windshear recovery procedure.


    AOM Chapter 15
  48. 48.) Why is an increased rotation speed used during the precautionary takeoff profile?
    It provides increased stall margin and meets takeoff performance requirements.


    AOM Chapter 15
  49. 49.) Where can you find the precautionary takeoff profile?
    AOM 15.5.4
  50. 50.) During takeoff roll below 80 kts, how should you respond to a “WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD” alert?
    Reject the takeoff.


    QRH Maneuvers, FRM & AOM Chapter 15
  51. 51.) During the takeoff roll between 80kts and 400 ft RA, new predictive windshear caution alerts (“Monitor Radar Display”) are inhibited. How should you respond to a “WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD” warning?
    • Reject the takeoff if it can be done safely, or continue the takeoff using the precautionary takeoff profile.
    • Be prepared to execute a windshear recovery.


    QRH Maneuvers, FRM & AOM Chapter 15
  52. 52.) While the windshear warnings are inhibited, you detect a stagnating airspeed after V1 but before the increased (windshear) VR. You know the probable cause is windshear. What should you do?
    • Do not attempt to accelerate to the increased VR 
    • Disengage the autothrottles, press TO/GA switch, aggressively apply emergency thrust, and rotate without hesitation.
    • DO NOT delay rotation with less than 2,000 ft of usable runway remaining.


    QRH Maneuvers, FRM & AOM Chapter 15
  53. 53.) If windshear is actually encountered after rotation, what warning does the aircraft give, and how should you respond?
    • The red WINDSHEAR warning light;
    • two-tone siren followed by the
    • aural alert, “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”.

    Perform the windshear recovery procedure outlined in the QRH.



    QRH Maneuvers, FRM & AOM Chapter 15
  54. 54.) While taxiing into gate 14 in DAL, you notice that the weather radar is still on. Is it acceptable to leave it on in the gate area?
    • Do not operate the weather radar during:
    •    - fueling,
    •    - near fuel spills, or
    •    - near people.



    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  55. 55.) Which ND display modes will display weather?
    Map, Center Map, Expanded VOR, and Expanded APP modes.


    FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  56. 56.) Does the weather radar directly detect hail or lightning?
    No, it analyzes data received to identify areas that have a high probability of containing these types of hazards.


    FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  57. 57.) Can you turn the RDR 4000 weather radar off in flight?
    • No.
    • The weather radar is always scanning in flight so that the most current weather information is instantly available in the 3D memory.



    Reference: FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  58. 58.) You are flying towards a large storm cell depicted on the radar with hail and lightning icons. You can see it has an overhanging anvil above your altitude. How far should you deviate from it?
    Avoid any cells with hail and lightning icons by at least 20 NM, and never deviate under a storm cell.


    Reference: FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  59. 59.) Is it preferable to pass upwind or downwind of the storm?
    Upwind.


    Reference: FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  60. 60.) How wide of a space between cells should you allow when flying between them?
    At least 40 NM.

    Reference: FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  61. 61.) When using the RDR-4000, what indication do you have that radar signal energy is being attenuated enough to degrade the ability of the radar to display significant weather?
    Red hatching on the radar display.


    Reference: FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  62. 62.) You are in the clouds and using the radar for weather avoidance. ATC and other aircraft indicate cell tops are higher than FL280, but lower than FL350. What color radar returns should you avoid, and by how far?
    Avoid all green, yellow, red, and magenta areas of cells higher than 28,000 ft by at least 20 NM.


    Reference: FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  63. 63.) Elsewhere, ATC and other aircraft indicate cell tops now exceed FL350. What color radar returns should you avoid, and by how far?
    Cells exceeding 35,000 ft should be considered extremely hazardous and separation from all green, yellow, red and magenta areas greater than 20 NM should be used.


    Reference: FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  64. 64.) What’s the closest you should fly towards storm cells before you have deviation path planned?
    Establish an avoidance plan before getting within 40 NM of the cells to allow time to negotiate a deviation with ATC


    Reference: FRM GI Chapters 5 & 6
  65. 65.) What is the difference between Dispatch Limit ATOG and Operational Limit ATOG?

    You are flying a -800 and are at the gate in LAS going to MDW. The Dispatch landing weight limit uses runway condition of DISP-WET and an ATOG of 164.3. The Release shows the Operational Weight Limit uses 3-MED and an ATOG of 157.9. Dispatch asks if you are okay with using the Dispatch ATOG to accommodate some misconnect passengers.
    Scattered showers are included in the destination forecast. Destination field condition is currently reported dry.
    • The Dispatch Limit calculation uses either a DRY or a WET runway and satisfies the requirements of the CFR.
    • The Operational Limit calculation uses engineering derived stopping performance based upon the forecast runway condition and RCC.


    AOM Chapter 6, MyComply365 Training Topics collection: Training Topic September 2016
  66. 66.) How can you tell if the Dispatch Release is planned using a higher limit ATOG?
    If the ATOG used for dispatch is not the most limiting value, asterisks will display on either side of the ATOG value and the performance value that equals the ATOG on the flight release.

    Also, a remark surrounded by asterisks (*) will be displayed on the release indicating that selection.


    AOM Chapter 6, MyComply365 Training Topics collection: Training Topic September 2016
  67. 67.) Is an alternate required if the ATOG used for dispatch is not the most limiting value?
    Yes.



    AOM Chapter 6, MyComply365 Training Topics collection: Training Topic September 2016
  68. 68.) Does the Captain have to accept the use of an ATOG that exceeds the most limiting ATOG value?
    • No.
    • The Captain and Dispatcher are jointly responsible for developing a safe and acceptable plan.
    • If the Captain does not agree, he or she can seek alternative options within the framework of operational priorities, policies, and procedures.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 17
  69. 69.) What resources are available to determine the runway condition at the destination?
    • 1.) Field Condition Reports,
    • 2.) PIREPs,
    • 3.) WSI, and
    • 4.) Dispatch.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 17
  70. 70.) What will the Crewmembers do if the aircraft landing performance is out of limits upon arrival?
    • Assess the risks and either hold until performance is within limits or divert the alternate.
    • In all cases ABCD.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 16, ABCD Processes
  71. 71.) What do you do if you receive a LOGON REJECTED message with an INVALID ENTRY displayed in the scratchpad while trying to log on to FANS CPDLC?
    Discontinue the use of CPDLC and obtain a clearance via voice.



    Reference: CPDLC Reference Guide (linked to SIP at CPDLC capable airports)
  72. 72.) How can Crewmembers determine if a tail strike has occurred?

    You are taking off in a -800 with gusty winds from RWY 31C in MDW going to TPA. As you rotate the aircraft, the nose rises quickly due to a gust and you feel a bump. Once airborne and cleaned up, the Flight Attendants in the back of the aircraft call you and tell you they felt the tail contact the runway during takeoff.
     
    • Feedback from the Flight Attendants, Tower Controllers, HUD, and feel of the aircraft on takeoff.
    • The ACMS pitch report (as installed) accessed by: Main Menu>ACMS>R6: Pitch


    Reference: AOM Chapter 5, FRM Chapter 10
  73. 73.) What factors will most likely increase the risk of a tail strike?
    • 1.) Excessive rotation rate,
    • 2.) rotation at the improper speed,
    • 3.) improper use of the flight director,
    • 4.) trimming during rotation,
    • 5.) mistrimmed stabilizer, and
    • 6.) mishandling of crosswinds.



    Reference: AOM Chapter 5
  74. 74.) Is there a QRH checklist for tail strike?
    Yes.


    Reference: QRH Chapter 15
  75. 75.) Should the aircraft be pressurized after a suspected tail strike?
    No. 


    Reference: QRH Chapter 15
  76. 76.) If a diversion to an alternate is necessary in this scenario, what altitude will the aircraft cruise at while enroute to the alternate?
    The aircraft must stay below 10,000 feet since it cannot be pressurized.



    Reference: QRH Chapter 15
  77. 77.) What are “wear dimples” and what purpose do they serve for the tailskid shoe after a tail strike?
    • Wear dimples are notched into the sides of the tailskid shoe.
    • The shoe is what contacts the runway in the event of an over rotation.
    • The dimples serve as a reference for shoe replacement.


    Reference: FRM Section 15.2
  78. 78.) How can you determine if the cartridge is still usable in the tailskid?
    • The tail skid is serviceable when the cartridge warning decal shows both green and red.
    • The green disappears gradually as the cartridge is crushed.
    • When the warning decal is all red, the cartridge must be replaced.


    Reference: FRM Section 15.2
  79. 79.) The QRH directs you to land at the nearest suitable airport. How can Crewmembers determine which airport is suitable?
    • 1.) Landing performance,
    • 2.) Dispatch input,
    • 3.) weather, and
    • 4.) field conditions.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 2
  80. 80.) What resources are available to assess the risk of an overweight landing at a short field compared with cruising unpressurized to an alternate?
    • 1.) Dispatch,
    • 2.) maintenance,
    • 3.) ATC, and
    • 4.) cabin crew.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 2
  81. 81.) Are you authorized to make an overweight landing?
    Unless the Captain exercises command (emergency) authority, it is not permissible to land at a weight that exceeds the maximum structural limit.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 12
  82. 82.) What is the recommended flap setting for an overweight landing?
    Flaps 30.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 12
  83. 83.) If the situation requires a diversion to another airport, is an amendment to the release required?
    • Yes.
    • If it is necessary to divert to an airport not listed on the release an amendment is required, unless the emergency does not allow enough time for coordination with Dispatch.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 17
  84. 84.) Is a logbook entry or maintenance action required after a tail strike?
    Yes.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 19
  85. 85.) If you experience a rapid depressurization in a -800 or a -700 with a full face mask, how will you establish Crew communication?
    • Donning the mask will enable the mask microphone when the oxygen mask panel door is open.
    • You may use headsets or speakers to receive communications.


    Reference: FRM Chapters 1 & 5
  86. 86.) Does placing the mask in emergency mode affect communications?
    Communications in EMER mode may be difficult due forced oxygen. Deselect EMER if conditions permit.


    Reference: FRM Chapters 1 & 5
  87. 87.) After reaching 10,000 feet you take your mask off. How can you quickly transition back to the headset?
    To enable the boom mike, the oxygen mask panel doors must be closed and the TEST/RESET switch released.


    Reference: FRM Chapters 1 & 5
  88. 88.) What does the WING BODY OVERHEAT light indicate? 


    You are cruising from LAS to MDW at FL410 in a -700 when the left WING BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates.
    A bleed duct leak has created an overheat condition.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  89. 89.) What is the difference between a left WING BODY OVERHEAT and a right WING BODY OVERHEAT indication?
    • Both sensors monitor the air conditioning bay, leading edge, and engine strut,
    • but the left side also monitors the keel beam and the bleed duct from the APU.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  90. 90.) Is the NG WING BODY OVERHEAT Checklist the same for both the -700 and the -800?
    No.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2, QRH Chapter 2
  91. 91.) Why are they different checklists?
    • Because the -800 has three zones, the air system includes Trim Air to modulate temperature to three zones with the use of two sources of bleed air.
    • This introduces slightly more complexity in handling air system malfunctions.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2, QRH Chapter 2
  92. 92.) What does the Trim Air switch do?
    It introduces trim air (excess bleed air “trimmed” from the bleed air source before entering the PACKs) back into the air system downstream from the mix manifold to control the temperature entering the cabin and cockpit.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  93. 93.) How might the additive condition of a wing body overheat affect the outcome of the flight with forecast icing conditions?
    Because the QRH directs to avoid icing conditions if the bleed leak is determined to be from any area other than the APU, the Crewmembers will have to properly assess the risks and choose an alternative course of action to avoid icing conditions.


    Reference: QRH Chapter 2
  94. 94.) Are there any cockpit indications of a fuel leak during an engine start? 


    You are starting the #2 Engine on an originator in SEA. After rollback, the Ground Crew reports that fuel is leaking from the engine fuel drain.
    No. Only ground personnel can communicate the problem.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 7
  95. 95.) What communication are you expecting from ground personnel?
    • The expectation is for the ground crew to communicate the location of the leak, the amount of the leak, and the duration of the leak.
    • They may also communicate any station specific guidance.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 7
  96. 96.) How much time is allowed for the engine to stop leaking?
    The engine can run for up to five minutes.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 7
  97. 97.) Is a logbook entry required if the engine stops leaking in the allotted five minutes?
    • Yes.
    • An Info Only entry is required that lists the engine affected and duration of the leak.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 7
  98. 98.) What if the leak doesn’t stop within five minutes or gets worse?
    Shut down the engine using normal procedures and make a defect entry in the logbook.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 7
  99. 99.) What is the acceptable amount of fuel leakage before a shutdown is required?
    • Captains should ask ground personnel to inform them any time the puddle associated with the leak will exceed approximately 50 square feet.
    • The ground footprint of the engine cowl is approximately 100 square feet.


    AOM Chapter 7
  100. 100.) What are the Immediate Action Items for Aborted Engine Start?
    Engine Start Lever (affected engine) . . . .CUTOFF


    Reference: QRH Chapter 7
  101. 101.) What is the EGT start limitation?
    725 degrees maximum.


    Reference: AOM Chapters 3, 5
  102. 102.) What communication is required if the aircraft returns to the gate?
    The Captain must confirm any gate return event via ACARS and coordinate with the Operations Agent to report the OUT and IN times from ACARS.


    Reference: FOM Section 16
  103. 103.) What does the light CAPT PITOT indicate? 


    You are in a -700 on a HOU-BZE-HOU turn. The weather on the HOU-BZE leg was partly cloudy between five thousand and fifteen thousand feet with an overcast layer from FL260 to FL300. You encountered icing in the high clouds on the inbound leg. After engine start, you notice that the CAPT PITOT light is illuminated with the switch in the ON position.

    Your resources are MEL 30-5-04, IFOM 7.5, Ops Binder 5.1.2, FOM 19.1.2, OPC, Dispatch, Ops Agent, Weather Packet, WSI, ATC, PIREPs.
    The related probe is not heated.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 3
  104. 104.) Where is the probe located?
    Captain’s side upper probe.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 10
  105. 105.) Are static ports heated?
    No


    Reference: FRM Chapter 10
  106. 106.) How does the AUTO feature for the Probe Heat work?
    Aircraft equipped with the AUTO feature receive power to both A and B probe heat systems when either engine is running.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 10
  107. 107.) Is there MEL relief for this system?
    Yes.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 19, SWA MEL 30-05-04
  108. 108.) Can the Captain apply the MEL without Maintenance personnel present?
    Yes, the Captain can defer the item using the procedures in FOM 19.1.2.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 19, SWA MEL 30-05-04
  109. 109.) How will a deferred probe heat affect the aircraft’s capabilities?
    The aircraft is restricted to DAY VMC and cannot operate in visible moisture, or in known or forecast icing conditions.


    Reference: SWA MEL 30-05-04
  110. 110.) How will a deferred probe heat affect the Crew’s preflight planning?
    • Consider changing dispatched cruise altitude,
    • having contract maintenance fix the aircraft,
    • changing route to avoid weather,
    • etc.



    Reference: SWA MEL 30-05-04
  111. 111.) What happens if you elect to go back at FL250, the ride is bumpy, and the layer has mostly cleared?
    The Crewmembers may elect to climb to a higher altitude if the flight continues to follow the MEL and other SWA policy guidance.


    Reference: SWA MEL 30-05-04
  112. 112.) What limitation applies to an aircraft without an operable window heat?
    Window heat inoperative maximum speed is 250 kt below 10,000 ft.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  113. 113.) How can Crewmembers contact the NOC from an international station?
    • Refer to the Ops Binder for the phone number.
    • Operations should have a working cell phone for the call.
    • For simple exchanges ACARS will also work.
    • If the aircraft is equipped, use SATCOM.


    Reference: OPS Binder Chapter 5, IFOM
  114. 114.) What does the message “CABIN USE” mean when displayed in the SAT-1 or SAT-2 status field?
    The SAT channel is in use by the cabin handset (800 only).


    Reference: FRM Chapter 5
  115. 115.) What does the HISTORY page of the SAT-PHONE CDU page display?
    The HISTORY page shows the last 5 calls placed by the MCDU, allowing for easy access to frequently dialed numbers.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 5
  116. 116.) What does the SATCOM CALL light indicate?
    • Illuminated (white) – accompanied by a chime: 
    • - indicates call has been received by SATCOM,
    • - an outbound call is initiated on the MCDU,  or
    • - Cabin Phone Handset is in use (SAT-2 only).

    The light will stay illuminated until the call is terminated.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 5
  117. 117.) What does the stuck microphone alarm on the -800 do?
    • When the VHF radio detects a microphone is in the transmit (keyed) position for longer than 30 seconds, a tone interrupts the side tone, followed by the transmitter deactivating.
    • The transmitter is reactivated by releasing and then re-keying the microphone or boom microphone Push-To-Talk switch.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 5
  118. 118.) What does it mean when you receive a clearance to “Backtrack” from a foreign controller?
    The term “Backtrack” means to taxi in the opposite direction from the runway departure flow.


    Reference: IFOM Chapter 7
  119. 119.) What does it mean when you receive a clearance to “Report vacated” from a foreign controller?
    The term “Report vacated” directs the Flight Crew to report when the aircraft is clear of the runway.


    Reference: IFOM Chapter 7
  120. 120.) What is the difference between "Mayday, Mayday, Mayday" and "Pan, Pan, Pan?"
    • MAYDAY—A distress signal that when repeated three times indicates imminent or grave danger for which immediate assistance is required.
    • PAN-PAN—An urgency signal that when repeated three times indicates a safety or urgent condition for which immediate assistance is not required.


    Reference: IFOM Chapter 7
  121. 121.) Can both the ALTN light and the ON light be illuminated on the EEC overhead button? 


    You are in -800 aircraft cruising at FL330 when the Master Caution and EEC ALTN light illuminates.
    • Yes.
    • This is an indication that an EEC has automatically switched to soft alternate mode.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  122. 122.) What does “soft alternate mode” mean?
    The EEC will continue with the last valid flight conditions (inputs) to define the engine parameters.




    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  123. 123.) What QRH Checklist should be called for?
    EEC ALTERNATE MODE.




    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  124. 124.) Why do we retard the Thrust Levers to the mid position BEFORE we change the EEC switches to ALTN?
    To prevent exceeding thrust limits when switching EEC modes.



    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  125. 125.) Does the EEC provide overspeed protection in both the normal and ALTN modes?
    Yes.



    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  126. 126.) Does the EEC provide EGT redline exceedance protection in both the normal and alternate modes?
    • No.
    • EGT protection is not provided in either mode.
    • The EGT limit must be observed by the Crew.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  127. 127.) Are you authorized to continue flying with one engine in an alternate mode and the other engine with the EEC in normal?
    • No.
    • The QRH directs that both EECs be operated in the same mode.


    Reference: QRH Chapter 7
  128. 128.) Is dispatch allowable with either EEC not in the normal ON mode?
    Yes, with MEL deferral.


    Reference: MEL 73-11
  129. 129.) The MEL prohibits de-rated and/or reduced thrust takeoffs. How should you calculate performance data?
    We must select EEC Alternate Mode on the OPC/PWB.


    Reference: MEL 73-11
  130. 130.) Which QRH checklists apply to the Reverser system? 


    You are about to descend into SMF in a -700 when the #2 amber REV indications shows on the MFD accompanied by a MASTER CAUTION and REVERSER light on the overhead panel. ATIS is reporting ILS 16R Category III operations are in progress.
    REVERSER and REVERSER UNLOCKED (IN FLIGHT).


    Reference: QRH Chapter 7
  131. 131.) What does the amber REV indication on the MFD indicate?
    The associated thrust reverser has moved from the stowed position.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  132. 132.) What does the REVERSER light on the overhead panel indicate?
    • 1.) The reverser is not in the commanded position,
    • 2.) a fault has been detected, or
    • 3.) the auto-restow feature has activated.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  133. 133.) What are the limitations for thrust reverser use?
    • Thrust reversers are for ground use only and
    • cannot be actuated unless:
    •   - the radio altimeter reads less than 10 feet or
    •   - when the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode.




    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  134. 134.) What powers the thrust reversers?
    • Hydraulic pressure:
    •   - A System for Engine #1 and
    •   - B System for Engine #2.

    The Standby Hydraulic System is a backup for both.



    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  135. 135.) What is the function of the thrust reverser isolation valve?
    It isolates the entire system from hydraulic pressure.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  136. 136.) What is the function of the thrust reverser control valve?
    It commands the respective reverser to deploy or stow based on the position of the Thrust Reverser handles.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  137. 137.) Multiple failures are required for thrust reverser deployment in flight. What protections keep the thrust reverser from deploying in flight?
    • 1.) Electromechanical and
    • 2.) hydraulic locks, and an
    • 3.) auto-restow feature.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  138. 138.) What does the REV MFD indication inflight accompanied by vibration or buffeting indicate?
    This would be an indication of the thrust reverser actually opening in flight and would require the shutdown of the engine per the QRH.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7, QRH Chapter 7
  139. 139.) What does a REVERSER light that remains illuminated more than approximately 12 seconds after being stowed after landing indicate?
    It indicates a malfunction in the thrust reverser and requires maintenance.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7, QRH Chapter 7
  140. 140.) Are both thrust reversers required for all approaches utilizing HGS below CAT I minimums (including Reduced Landing Minima CAT I approaches where the HGS is used and Special Authorization CAT I approaches).
    Yes.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 11
  141. 141.) What are the Immediate Action Items for APU Fire?


    You are doing the preflight walk around when you hear the Ground Crew yelling that the APU is on fire. Or, you are in the cockpit starting the APU when the ground power drops off suddenly and then comes back on. After a few seconds, the Ground Crew bangs on the nose of the aircraft and signals that the APU is on fire.
    • APU fire switch …
    •  - Confirm…
    •  - Pull,
    •  - rotate to the stop, and hold for 1 second
    •  
    • APU switch . . . OFF


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  142. 142.) Does the APU have any automatic shutoff features?
    • Yes.
    • The APU should automatically shut down in the event of:
    •  1.) - fire,
    •  2.) - low oil pressure,
    •  3.) - fault, or
    •  4.) - overspeed.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  143. 143.) What does the blue MAINT light on the APU panel indicate?
    APU maintenance problem exists.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  144. 144.) Can the APU be operated with the blue MAINT light illuminated?
    Yes.



    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  145. 145.) In the event of a fire, where can you shut down the APU if you are doing the walk around?
    There is a handle and fire bottle actuator in the #2 wheel well.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  146. 146.) What hand signals indicate a fire in the APU?
    One hand or wand, points at the top of the aircraft, while the other hand or wand, behind the body, makes a fanning motion.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 18
  147. 147.) Should you evacuate the passengers?
    • Yes.
    • With an active fire, evacuate the passengers with the help of the Flight Attendants and the Operations Agent.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 5, 21
  148. 148.) What are the APU start limitations?
    • NG -
    • Wait 90 seconds between APU start attempts.


    • CL –
    • Wait 90 seconds between the first and second start attempt.
    • Wait 5 minutes before a third attempt.
    • If the APU fails to start after the third attempt, call Dispatch/Maintenance.
    • Do not attempt a fourth start.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 8, AOM Section 15.2
  149. 149.) How do you configure the Air Conditioning / Pressurization Panel for single engine outbound taxi with the #2 engine operating?
    • Right Pack: AUTO or HIGH
    • Isolation Valve: Closed
    • Left Pack: AUTO or HIGH
    • Left Engine Bleed: OFF
    • APU Bleed: ON
    • Right Engine Bleed: ON

    Reverse steps to return to normal air conditioning.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 8, AOM Section 15.2
  150. 150.) During single engine taxi, what single switch on the Air Conditioning / Pressurization Panel will you reconfigure prior to starting the #1 engine?
    Left Pack: OFF


    Reference: AOM Chapter 8, AOM Section 15.2
  151. 151.) How long should you operate the APU with no bleed air load prior to shut down?
    After turning the APU bleed off, Classics require a 2 minute cooling period prior to APU shutdown.

    The NG’s have a 1 minute timer to delay shutdown so the APU can be turned to off as soon as the APU bleed has been turned off.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  152. 152.) If you are in an NG, how long should you wait after the APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguishes before turning the battery switch to OFF?
    2 minutes


    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  153. 153.) What does the AUTO FAIL light indicate? 



    You are cruising from BNA to HOU at FL370 in a -700 when the Master Caution lights and the AUTO FAIL light illuminate.
    The controller has either detected an internal fault, or a monitoring system has determined that automatic control is not working.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  154. 154.) How many controllers does the digital pressurization system have?
    • The system consists of two identical controllers, with one controller alternately sequenced as the primary operational controller for each new flight.
    • The other automatic controller is immediately available as a backup.
    • Pressurization is controllable manually as well.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  155. 155.) If the backup controller automatically takes over, what other lights will illuminate?
    The green ALTN light on the pressurization will illuminate.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  156. 156.) If the ALTN light does not illuminate what has happened?
    Both automatic controllers have failed and the cabin altitude is uncontrollable in the automatic mode.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  157. 157.) What does the OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT light indicate?
    Aircraft descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the FLT ALT indicator.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  158. 158.) What are the Immediate Action Items for Cabin Altitude Warning or Rapid Depressurization?
    • Don oxygen masks and
    • Set regulators to - 100%
    • Establish crew communications


    Reference: QRH Chapter 2
  159. 159.) What is the Checked Limitation associated with Air System Limitations?
    • With Engine Bleed Air switches ON,
    • Do not operate the air conditioning packs in HIGH for:
    • - takeoff,
    • - approach, or
    • - landing.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  160. 160.) Does SWA policy allow for revenue flights if the aircraft must remain unpressurized?
    No.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  161. 161.) What will cause the passenger masks to drop in the cabin?
    • The passenger oxygen system activates automatically if cabin altitude climbs to 14,000 feet or
    • if the PASS OXYGEN switch is switched to ON.


    Reference: FRM Chapter 1
Author
BBB68
ID
332117
Card Set
2017 CQT Questions
Description
2017 SWA CQT Questions
Updated

  1. Home
  2. Flashcards
  3. Preview