Neuroscience

All of the following are considered part of the central nervous system, EXCEPT:
A. Spinal cord
B. Dorsal root ganglia
C. Basal ganglia
D. Cerebral cortex
E. Pons

The cerebrospinal fluid is:
A. Forced in the grey matter of the brain and flows into the venous drainage
B. Formed by glia in the grain and flows into the lateral ventricles
C. Formed in the spinal cord and flows up into the brain ventricular system
D. Formed in the ventricles and flows out of the 4th ventricle under the meninges
E. Formed in the meninges and flows into the lateral ventricles

Which of the following are key components of the limbic system (emotions, memory and learning)?
A. Amygdala and hippocampus
B. Hypothalamus and thalamus
C. Pons and cerebellum
D. Corpus callosum and basal ganglia
E. Basal ganglia and thalamus

Which of the following is a correct pairing?
A. Hippocampus: movement
B. Amygdala: sensory cortex
C. Basal ganglia: balance
D. Thymus: memory processing
E. Frontal cortex: executive function

The brainstem refers to:
A. Diencephalon
B. Pons, medulla and thalamus
C. Pons, medulla and midbrain
D. Pons, medulla and cerebellum
E. Pons, medulla and hypothalamus

The caudate-putamen in the basal ganglia receives input from which of the following tracts?
A. Somatosensory (dossal columns)
B. Corticospinal
C. Corticostriatal
D. Corpus callosum
E. Spinothalamic

Which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. There are 2 synapses from primary motor cortex to muscle
B. There are 3 synapses from peripheral sensory nerves to somatosensory cortex
C. There are 11 cranial nerves
D. The cerebral cortex has 4 lobes
E. There are 4 divisions of the brain: telencephalon, diencephalon, midbrain and hindbrain

The reticular formation functions in:
A. Arousal necessary for consciousness
B. Coordinating movement
C. Balance
D. Sensing pain and temperature
E. Motor memory

All of the following are functions performed by astrocytes EXCEPT?
A. Uptake of neurotransmitters
B. Regulate glutamate
C. Clear debris
D. Regulate the blood brain barrier
E. Promote neural survival via neurotropic factor

Neuronal damage from an ischemic stroke, caused by a blood clot interrupting blood flow to a brain area, results from:
A. Loss of extracellular glutamate
B. Loss of potassium ions outside of the neurons
C. Loss of oxygen and glucose
D. Excess potassium inside of the neurons
E. Loss of sodium ions outside of the neurons

Which of the following are ‘activated’ upon detection of cellular damage or induction in the brain to “clean up” via phagocytosis
A. Oligodendrocytes
B. Schwann cells
C. Pyramidal neurons
D. Microglia
E. Ependymal cells

Characteristic features of a nerve net include:
A. Bilateral distribution across the body of the animal
B. No centralization
C. A highly concentrated array of neurons in the head
D. Myelination
E. Segmentation

Sponges (Porifera) have:
A. Ganglia
B. Longitudinal nerve cords
C. A reticular formation
D. Bidirectional synapses
E. Protosynaptic proteins but no nervous system

The influence of location on development is called positional information and the signaling molecules that control positional information are called morphogens. Factors that play key roles in this signaling system include:
A. Distance of a target cell from a morphogen source
B. The complement of receptors to the target
C. The number of receptors occupied
D. The level of gene activation/suppression
E. All of the above

In vertebrate nervous system development, differentiation of the neural tube gives rise to:
A. 3 primary vesicles separating into forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain
B. 3 primary vesicles separating into cerebellum, lateral ventricles and hindbrain
C. 2 primary vesicles separating into forebrain and hindbrain
D. 4 primary vesicles separating into cerebellum, lateral ventricles, cerebellum and hindbrain
E. 5 primary vesicles separating into forebrain, lateral ventricles, midbrain, cerebellum and hindbrain

Major strategies to instruct genetically-identical cells to differentiate into different cell types include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Phagocytosis of extracellular matrix
B. Extracellular signal binding to receptors triggering gene expression in recipient cell
C. Direct cell-to-cell contact
D. Differential mRNA localization during cell division
E. Differential signaling through the diffusion of a secreted signaling molecule

Axon guidance:
A. Occurs exclusively early in development
B. Involves lateral glial cells
C. Is achieved largely through the spatially distinct patterns of molecular cues that are present in the developing nervous system and/or surrounding tissue
D. Requires action potential driving F-actin treadmilling
E. Requires interaction with dendrites

Growth cones:
A. Are highly dynamic structures
B. Can change shape and/or length on a timescale of seconds to minutes
C. Achieve a change in shape via reorganization of their cytoskeletal elements
D. Have receptors that respond to chemotaxic molecules
E. All of the above

Netrins:
A. Are involved in the control of neurotransmitter release
B. Are produced by dendrites
C. Signal through DCC and Unc5 receptors
D. Are embedded in the extracellular matrix
E. Serve primarily as contact-mediated attractive guidance cues

Slits:
A. Signal through ROBO receptors and are involved in axon branching
B. Are extracellular proteases (enzymes that breakdown the extracellular matrix)
C. Involve only dendrites
D. Serve primarily as contact-mediated attractive guidance cues
E. Signal through DCC and Unc5 receptors

Ephrins:
A. Often play important guidance roles for glial cells
B. Signal through DCC and Unc5 receptors
C. Signal through Eph receptors and help establish topographic maps
D. Serve primarily as contact-mediated attractive guidance cues
E. Activate Ca2+ channels

Attractant and repulsive cues modulate which of the following to regulate growth cone movement?
A. F-actin treadmilling via membrane integrins
B. mRNA distribution to the growth cone
C. Protein translation in the growth cone
D. Nuclear transcription factor
E. Tau protein binding to microtubules

Synaptogenesis involves all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Guidance cues
B. Mg2+ influx
C. Extracellular matrix molecules
D. Cell-adhesion molecules
E. Activity-dependence

Elimination of synapses occurs by:
A. Inhibition of apoptotic genes
B. Suppression of potential target cells via lateral inhibition
C. Local competition among axons for neurotrophic factors secreted from target cells
D. Changes in extracellular Ca2+
E. Insufficient neurotransmitter uptake

Which statement is NOT true concerning synapse formation and rearrangement?
A. Neurons that fire together, wire together (Hebb’s rule)
B. Ca2+ influx facilitates adherence of the growth cone to its target and stimulates neurotransmitter release
C. Synapse formation and rearrangement are activity-dependent
D. Selectively blocking postsynaptic receptors may result in loss of a synaptic connection
E. Polyinnervation is maintained in muscle

Which of the following contained within rod-type photoreceptors directly responds to photons
A. Cyclic GMP
B. Opsin
C. Retinal
D. Transducin
E. Phospholipid discs

After light hits a photoreceptor, what happens to trigger hyperpolarization?
A. Cyclic AMP inhibits Ca2+ channels
B. Na+, K+-ATPase is blocked
C. Inward K+ current is blocked
D. Na+ channels close
E. CT channels are phosphorylated

Horizontal cells:
A. Release acetylcholine
B. Cause lateral inhibition via GABA
C. Detect horizontal lines via glutamate
D. Synapse on retinal ganglion cells
E. Generate large action potentials

On-center responses in the retina (in On-center, off-center ganglion receptive fields) involve which of the following target neurotransmitter receptors on bipolar cells?
A. Type 3 serotonin receptors (5-HT3Rs)
B. A-type GABA receptors (GABAARs)
C. Inotropic-type glutamate receptors (iGluRs)
D. Metabotropic-type glutamate receptors (mGluRs)
E. Nicotinic-type acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs)

An ocular dominance column in the visual cortex refers to:
A. A vertical region receiving input (signals) from the lower half of each retina
B. A vertical region that sends axons back to the lateral geniculate nucleus
C. A cylindrical region receiving converging input (signals) from the same side of both retina
D. A semi-circular region that dominates the rest of the visual cortex
E. A vertical region receiving input (signals) from one eye

Simple cells in the visual cortex respond best to:
A. Black circles
B. Diffuse, flickering light
C. Bars of light of a particular orientation and position
D. Bars of light of a particular orientation but not a precise position
E. Simple spots of light

Complex cells in the visual cortex respond best to:
A. Black circles
B. Bars of light of a particular orientation but not a precise position
C. Bars of light of a particular orientation and position
D. Simple spots of light
E. Diffuse, flickering light

Which of the following describes conveyance of painful stimuli back to the spinal cord?
A. Only D-type fibers are involved in conveying pain, whether brief or sustained
B. E-type fibers are activated first, followed by D-type fibers
C. Only A alpha-type fibers are involved in conveying pain, whether brief or sustained
D. A Delta-type fibers are activated first and fastest, followed by C-type fibers conveying sustained pain
E. Gamma-type and A alpha-type fibers are simultaneously activated but only gamma-type fibers convey sustained pain

Sensory specificity resides in the
A. Sensory axon
B. Ganglion cell
C. Sensory receptor
D. Generator potential
E. Sensory axon impulses

Which of the following is a chemoreceptor
A. Pacinian-corpuscle
B. Meissner’s corpuscle
C. Auditory hair cell
D. Gustatory neuroepithelial cell
E. Hair follicle receptor

Which of the following general taste modalities is NOT transduced by receptors in taste buds?
A. Spicy
B. Bitter
C. Sweet
D. Salty
E. Umami

One of the following is NOT involved in the signal transduction for any taste modality:
A. Calcium channels
B. G-protein-coupled receptors
C. Sodium-selective channels
D. Potassium-channel blockade
E. Chloride channels

Primary olfactory neurons extend which of the following into the mucosal layer of the nasal cavity?
A. Corpuscles
B. Axons
C. Discs
D. Free nerve endings
E. Dendritic cilia

All olfactory receptor signaling is transduced via:
A. ADP
B. Golf
C. Cyclic GMP
D. Proton channels
E. K+ channel blockade

Which of the following is NOT true of reflexes?
A. May involve inhibitory interneurons
B. Total time between sensory input and motor output is very short
C. Are involuntary
D. Directly involve signaling and from the brain
E. Involve muscle spindles

All of the following structures are involved in sensory feedback in muscle tension/movement EXCEPT:
A. La-type and lb-type peripheral axons
B. Muscle spindles
C. Pacinian corpuscles
D. Golgi tendon organs
E. Intrafusal muscle fibers

Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures through which primary auditory information flows?
A. Tympanic membrane, cochlea, superior olive, inferior colliculus, medial geniculate nucleus, auditory cortex
B. Cochlea, tympanic membrane, inferior colliculus, superior olive, medial geniculate nucleus, auditory cortex
C. Tympanic membrane, cochlea, superior olive, medial geniculate nucleus, inferior colliculus, auditory cortex
D. Tympanic membrane, inferior colliculus, cochlea, medial geniculate nucleus, superior olive, auditory cortex
E. Auditory cortex, superior olive, inferior colliculus, cochlea, medial geniculate nucleus, tympanic membrane

Which structure contains binatural neurons that aid in determining the location of a sound source?
A. Superior Olive
B. Organ of Corti
C. Cochlear nucleus
D. Cochlea
E. Basilar membrane

Tonotopic mapping occurs in all of the following structures EXCEPT?
A. Auditory cortex
B. Cochlear nucleus
C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
D. Inferior colliculus
E. Basilar membrane

Which of the following is NOT found in the inner ear?
A. Perilymph
B. Hair cells
C. Tectorial membrane
D. Endolymph
E. Tympanic membrane

Bending of stereocilia tips in response to mechanical movement results in an influx of which ion into auditory hair cells?
A. Na+
B. Cl-
C. Mg2+
D. K+
E. None of the above

When contraction is induced in extensor muscles, motoneurons linked to opposing (“antagonist”) flexor muscles are strongly inhibited by inhibitory interneurons activated by input from muscle spindles, preventing flexor contraction. This describes:
A. Reverse myotaxis
B. A reflex arc
C. Motor pattern generation
D. The flexor reflex
E. Reciprocal inhibition

A receptive field is defined by:
A. A specific cortical area
B. The primary sensory pathway
C. The density of sensory receptors
D. An area in the environment (visual or auditory) or on the body (somatosensory) in which salient stimuli can evoke a sensory potential
E. Specific target receptor proteins

All of the following are true regarding taste and olfaction EXCEPT:
A. Oldest senses
B. Primary senses early in development
C. Use G-protein-coupled receptors exclusively
D. Broadly tuned
E. Primary use population coding

Which of the following cells have axons that form the olfactory tract?
A. Ganglionic
B. Mitral
C. Basilar
D. Cuneate
E. Bipolar

Which of the following sends axons from neurons in the central nervous system to the periphery (into the peripheral nervous system, PNS)?
A. Cranial nerves
B. Cortocispinal tract
C. Dorsal horns of the spinal cord
D. Cerebellum
E. Ventral root ganglion cells

All of the following are true about the cerebrospinal fluid EXCEPT:
A. It serves as buoyancy for the brain, reducing the impact of movement shock
B. It flows out of the 3rd ventricle into the subarachnoid space over the brain and spinal cord
C. It is formed in the lateral ventricles
D. It returns to the venous drainage out of the meninges over the brain
E. It is produced from ventricle choroid plexi by endothelia cells

Which of the following are key components of the basal ganglia
A. Nucleus accumbens
B. Corticostriatal tract
C. Thalamus
D. Caudate and globus pallidus
E. Amygdala

Which of the following is an incorrect pairing?
A. Thalamus: language
B. Hippocampus: memory
C. Amygdala: emotion
D. Basal ganglia: initiation of movement
E. Cerebellum: balance

The thalamus is a part of:
A. Diencephalon
B. Telencephalon
C. Basal ganglia
D. The hindbrain
E. Brainstem

The caudate-putamen in the basal ganglia sends input from which of the following tracts?
A. Corpus callosum
B. Corticostriatal tract
C. Thalamus
D. Substantia nigra
E. Globus pallidus

Which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. There are 3 synapses from peripheral sensory nerves to somatosensory cortex
B. There are 3 synapses from primary motor cortex to muscle
C. There are 4 divisions of the brain: telencephalon, diencephalon, midbrain and hindbrain
D. There are 12 cranial nerves
E. The cerebral cortex has 4 lobes

The somatosensory cortex:
A. Is posterior to the central sulcus
B. Connects to the thalamus via the corpus callosum
C. Is ventral to the lateral sulcus
D. Connects to the motor cortex via the corpus callosum
E. Receives accessory sensory input from the cerebellum

All of the following are functions performed by microglia EXCEPT?
A. Form glial scars
B. Promote inflammation
C. Present antigens
D. Fight infection
E. Clear debris

Demyelination results in all of the following EXCEPT
A. Bioenergetics failure in the axon
B. Microglia and astrocyte mobilization to the injured axons
C. Decreased proteolysis in the axons
D. Redistribution of ion channels from the node of Ranvier
E. Mitochondrial damage in the axon

Which of the following happens during an ischemic strokejQuery1101017534944968758448_1494309028546
A. Loss of Na by neurons
B. Increased mitochondria-based metabolism in neurons
C. Release of glutamate
D. Increase in local glucose
E. Rapid uptake of K by neurons

Characteristic features of a nerve net include:
A. A head ganglion
B. Myelination
C. Appearance with Radiata (Cnidaria and Ctenophora)
D. Segmentation
E. Bilateral distribution across the body

Which of the following has a segmented nervous system
A. Porifera (sponges)
B. Cnidaria (jellyfish)
C. Amoeba
D. Nematoda (roundworms)
E. Annelida (earthworms)

The influence of location on development is called positional information and the signaling molecules that control positional information are called morphogens. Factors that play key roles in this signaling system include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The complement of receptors to the target
B. Contact-mediated chemotaxis
C. The number of receptors occupied
D. Distance of a target cell from a morphogen source
E. The level of gene activation/suppression

In vertebrate nervous system development, differentiation of the neural tube gives rise to:
A. 5 primary vesicles separating into prefrontal, lateral ventricles, midbrain, cerebellum and hindbrain
B. 3 primary vesicles separating into forebrain, lateral ventricles and hindbrain
C. 4 primary vesicles separating into cerebellum, lateral ventricles, cerebellum and hindbrain
D. 2 primary vesicles separating into forebrain and hindbrain
E. 3 primary vesicles separating into forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain

Major strategies to instruct genetically-identical cells to differentiate into different cell types include:
A. Contact-mediated chemotaxis
B. Differential mRNA localization via direct binding to actin filaments
C. Extracellular signal binding to receptors triggering plasma membrane lipid synthesis in recipient cell
D. Degradation of the extracellular matrix
E. Regulation by diffusion of a specific signaling molecule to regulate proteins already present in the cell via a intracellular cascade

Axon guidance involves all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Contact-mediated cues, which can be based in cell membranes or the extracellular matrix
B. Chemotaxis along cue gradients leading to chemoattraction
C. Action potentials invading the growth cone in order to drive F-actin treadmilling
D. Chemotaxis resulting in chemorepulsion from the source cue gradient
E. Diffusible cues leading to the formation of chemical gradients

Growth cone movement results from:
A. Microtubule extension into the filopodia
B. Actin treadmilling resulting in F-actin that coupes to integrin receptors
C. Endocytosis of laminin bound to integrins in the lamellopodia
D. Actinomyosin generating forward force
E. None of the above

Netrins:
A. Are involved in the control of neurotransmitter release
B. Are embedded in the extracellular matrix
C. Signal through Unc5 and DCC receptors
D. Are produced by dendrites
E. Signal through Eph receptors

Slits:
A. Signal through DCC and Unc5 receptors
B. Signal through ROBO receptors and are involved in axon branching
C. Involve only dendrites
D. Serve primarily as contact-mediated attractive guidance cues
E. Are extracellular proteases (enzymes that breakdown the extracellular matrix)

Somatoohorins:
A. Signal through Unc5 receptors to repel axons
B. Often play important guidance roles for glial cells
C. Signal through Eph receptors and help establish topographic maps
D. Serve as both diffusible and contact-mediated guidance cues
E. Activate Ca channels to induce axon branching

Attractant and repulsive cues modulate which of the following to regulate growth cone movement?
A. Microtubule extension in filopidoa
B. Actinomyosin in the lemellopodia
C. Tau protein binding to microtubules
D. F-actin treadmilling and membrane addition
E. mRNA distribution to the growth cone

Synaptogenesis involves all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Ca2+ influx
B. Activity-dependence
C. Extracellular matrix molecules
D. Guidance cues
E. Cell-adhesion molecules

Which statement is NOT true concerning synapse formation and rearrangement?
A. Ca2+ influx facilitates adherence of the growth cone to its target
B. Neurons that fire together, wire together (Hebb’s rule)
C. Synapse formation and rearrangement are not dependent on presynaptic nerve activity
D. Polyinnervation of muscle myotubules is lost later in development
E. Selectively blocking postsynaptic receptors may result in loss of a synaptic connection

Elimination of synapses occurs by:
A. Insufficient neurotransmitter uptake
B. Inhibition of apoptotic genes via retrograde signaling
C. Changes in extracellular Ca2+ gradients from glial cells
D. Suppression of potential target cells via lateral inhibition
E. Local competition among axons for neurotrophic factors secreted from target cells