Micro Final

  1. What is the major difference between disinfectants and antibiotics?

    E. Antibiotics are more specific for killing bacteria than disinfectants
  2. _____________ theory, proposed by ________, states that mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from bacteria.

    B. Endosymbiotic, Margulis
  3. As accepted in modern biology, _____ domains of life are __________

    D. Three; Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
  4. Find one statement that is NOT correct regarding Koch’s postulates.

    B. The pathogen must be shown to contain toxins.
  5. ________ limits what we can see with a microscope and if apparent size of an object is increased without increasing details, it is called ____________

    e. Magnification; empty resolution
    A. Resolution, empty magnification
  6. What is the total magnification of a light microscope when using a 25X ocular and 40X objective lens?

    F. 1000X
  7. Which of the following would NOT be suited to observe live cells?

    A. Scanning Electron Microscopy
  8. A fluorophore used in fluorescence microscopy that absorbs light at 300 nm would most likely fluoresce at:

    E. 400 nm
  9. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

    C. Bacilli are rod shaped bacteria
  10. All of the following are used to lyse cells EXCEPT

    D. ultracentrifugation
  11. All of the following statements regarding phospholipids of the cell membrane are true EXCEPT:

    E. They make the membrane fluid.
  12. Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding Gram positive bacteria?

    A. Outer membrane of all Gram + bacteria has LPS
  13. Directed movements toward or away from a chemical or physical signal are known as:

    B. chemotaxis
  14. Marine viruses play a significant role in ecology because ____________

    D. All above statements are correct
  15. Which of the following proteins represents a coupled transport system where two molecules travel in the opposite direction?

    A. antiport
  16. All of the following statements about DNA are true EXCEPT:

    D. DNA is organized in nucleus in prokaryotes
  17. Growth of MOST microorganisms occurs by:

    C. binary fission
  18. The bacteria Vibrio owensii has a generation time of 8 minutes. Starting with two cells in log phase, how many minutes does it take to produce 256 cells? Assume all cells remain viable.

    E. 56
  19. Prions are _______ agents that infect _______.

    F. protein; animals
  20. What is NOT a macronutrient?

    F. zinc
  21. __________ REQUIRE very low temperatures and high pressure for growth.

    D. Barophilic psychrophiles
  22. All of the following statements regarding eukaryotes are false EXCEPT:

    A. Organelles provide increased membrane surface per total cell volume
  23. __________ medium is one of higher osmolarity than the cell.

    D. hypertonic
  24. ______________ helps solutes move across a membrane from high to low concentration

    A. Facilitated diffusion
  25. A bacterium that thrives in your stomach is probably a(n):

    D. acidophile
  26. Which best describes facultative anaerobes?

    B. They will use oxygen if it is present, but can grow even if oxygen is not present.
  27. A virus that infects bacteria is called a:

    d. bacteriovirus
    e. bactericide
    A. bacteriophage
  28. Choose correct statement(s) about biofilms.

    C. Biofilms are composed of one or more different species of microorganisms
  29. Some viral species may derive their __________ from host membrane.

    D.  envelope

    • virus-14625303A8225E05A65
    • virus
  30. Human pathogens are mostly:

    A. mesophiles
  31. In lysogenic cycle a virus _________

    D. Both statements a. and c. are correct
  32. In contrast to animal viruses, plant viruses infect cells by mechanisms that do NOT involve specific:

    A. receptors
  33. The Baltimore system classifies viruses based predominantly on

    C. their means of mRNA synthesis
  34. What do ALL viruses contain?

    C. capsid and genome
  35. Which statement is NOT correct

    C. LPS is located in the inner membrane of Gram - bacteria
  36. Which of the following molecules can be easily transported by passive diffusion through membrane without any aid of transporters?

    D. CO2
  37. The __________ is the region between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane in Gram-negative cells.

    E. periplasm
  38. Lithotrophs are organisms that feed on _______, and were discovered by _______.

    D. inorganic material; Sergei Winogradski
  39. What does analysis of 16S rRNA sequences show?

    C. Archaea are as distant from bacteria as from eukaryotes.
  40. All microorganisms have genomic DNA, except:

    e. none of them are correct
    C. some viruses
  41. Which of the following is NOT true about the two strands of DNA in a double helix?

    A. They must have equal amounts of thymine and cytosine.
  42. Supercoiling in bacteria is typically introduced by an enzyme called:

    e. ligase
    D. topoisomerase
  43. All following statements about DNA and RNA are true, except:

    D. RNA has the same bases as DNA
  44. Find correct statement(s) about genomes.

    B. Archaea have circular genomes like bacteria
  45. Gene transfer from parent to child is called:

    A. vertical transmission
  46. Plasmids can replicate by:

    D. either b or c
  47. __________________ replication of DNA means that each daughter cell receives one parental and one newly
    synthesized strand

    A. Semiconservative
  48. Identify a protein that is NOT involved in DNA replication process

    D.  Permease
  49. The leading strand is synthesized __________ , while the lagging strand is synthesized __________.

    C. continuously; discontinuously
  50. A primer is a short ____________ sequence complimentary to the template that allows DNA polymerase to start polymerization by attaching the first nucleotide to the primer’s _________ end during DNA replication.

    D. RNA; 3’
  51. Nucleotides in DNA are covalently joined by__________

    C. phosphodiester bonds
  52. Ames test is used to screen compounds for:

    A. mutagenicity
  53. __________ RNA polymerase plus sigma factor together are called __________.

    A. Core; holoenzyme
  54. All statements about sigma factor are correct, EXCEPT:

    D. Sigma factors are bound to RNA polymerase during all steps of transcription
  55. What does it mean to say that the genetic code is redundant?

    A. More than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
  56. Find incorrect statement about transcription and translation.

    A. Translation is reading a DNA template to make an RNA copy
  57. __________ is a process that involves cell-to-cell contact to move the plasmid from a donor cell to a recipient cell.

    D. Conjugation
  58. __________ cut a foreign DNA at specific sites for protection from invading viruses.

    C. Restriction endonucleases
  59. Which form of RNA has the task of unsticking stuck ribosomes?

    E. tmRNA
  60. What gene transfer process would be sensitive to extracellular nucleases?

    e. transduction
    B. transformation
  61. Bases of two opposite DNA strands are forming _______ to “recognize” each other.

    D. hydrogen bonds
  62. After extensive DNA damage, special DNA polymerases are expressed that sacrifice replication __________ to rescue the damaged genome.

    E. accuracy
  63. Transcriptional attenuation is a common regulatory strategy used to control many operons that code for what?

    E. amino acid biosynthesis
  64. A quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called a(n):

    A. autoinducer
  65. A protein of interest can be specifically detected on western blots; this technique requires:

    D. all of the above
  66. There is only ONE correct statement bellow regarding translation. Find it!

    E. RNA, not protein, is responsible for peptidyltransferase activity
  67. What kind of gene expression controls are revealed by gene fusions?

    C. both transcriptional and translational
  68. What kind of gene expression controls are revealed by gene fusions?
    a. transcriptional
    b. translational 
    c. both transcriptional and translational
    d. posttranslational
    e. none of the above
  69. What kind of gene expression controls are revealed by operon fusions?

    A. transcriptional
  70. The electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA) is utilized to monitor molecular interactions between:

    C. DNA and protein
  71. RNA fragments can be separated on a gel and then detected using a DNA probe by a technique known as:

    B. northern blot
  72. The process of importing free DNA into cells is known as:

    E. transformation
  73. There is a nonsense mutation in lacZ gene (part of the lacZYA operon). Choose correct statement describing whether or not protein products of these three genes (LacZ, LacY, and LacA) will be made/translated.

    B. LacZ will be shorter and LacY and LacA will be made
  74. Homologs that are present in different species, but have the same functions are called:

    E. orthologs
  75. All following statements about protein degradation and secretion are true, EXCEPT:

    B. Type I secretion system moves proteins from the cytoplasm to the periplasm
  76. Large regions of sequence homology are required when recombining DNA molecules by __________ recombination.

    E. general
  77. A loss-of-function mutation could NOT be caused by:

    C. silent mutation
  78. Spontaneous mutations can be caused by:

    E. tautomers having altered base pairings
  79. Which of the following is NOT true of a pyrimidine dimer?

    C. The pyrimidines are base-paired one to another.
  80. Which of the following forms of DNA repair is error-prone?

    d. nucleotide
    e. photoreactivation excision
    B. NHEJ
  81. In some, but not all, instances, ________ molecules bind RNA transcripts and help degradation

    A. asRNA
  82. All of the following typically occur in the presence of high glucose and high lactose concentrations EXCEPT:

    C. Transcription initiation of the lac operon is enhanced
  83. Complete pyruvate oxidation via TCA cycle produces:

    D. all of the above
  84. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Krebs cycle?

    E. All of the above are true.
  85. Find TRUE sentence(s) about reduction potential (E) below.

    B. a and c are true
  86. What molecule has the highest reduction potential from the list below?

    A. O2
  87. All statements below are INCORRECT except:

    A. Electron transfer is done by metal ions or conjugated double bonds in cofactors
  88. Find incorrect statement below. The proton motive force _________

    D. is generated when protons are pumped by ETS into the cell
  89. Which of the following best describes methanotrophy?

    E. CH4 is oxidized to CO2
  90. Which of the following best describes methanogenesis?

    C. CO2 is reduced to CH4
  91. Which of the following is NOT a redox pair?

    C. H2O/H3O+
  92. The laws of thermodynamics indicate that systems tend to become less ordered and that __________, a measure of disorder or randomness of the universe, always ___________.

    C. entropy, increases
  93. Enzymes speed up reactions by

    D. lowering the activation energy
  94. Find incorrect statement regarding ATP below.

    E. ATP is the main energy donor for protein synthesis.
  95. NAD+ is _______ form and NADH is ______ form of this energy carriers, which means that NAD+ can _______ electrons and NADH can __________ electrons.

    A. oxidized, reduced, accept, donate
  96. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the electron donors in prokaryotic metabolism?

    E. All of the above are true.
  97. Which metabolic pathway produces both NADPH and NADH?

    A. ED pathway
  98. Fermentation can be defined as ______breakdown of organic food _______the use of an electron transport

    A. partial, without
  99. Terminal electron acceptors in anaerobic respiration include all of the following EXCEPT

    B. H2S
  100. Cyanobacteria are believed to generate the majority of oxygen gas in Earth’s atmosphere. What allows them to produce oxygen?

    B. photosynthesis in which H2O is the electron source
  101. Which is the most stable form of nitrogen and requires a lot of energy to be reduced?

    E. N2
  102. The reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+ by iron reducers during anaerobic respiration is an example of:

    B. dissimilatory metal reduction
  103. Which of the following is/are common component(s) of photolytic electron transport systems?

    E. all of the above
  104. Microbial biosynthetic processes require:

    D. all of the above
  105. The Calvin cycle_________

    B. is the reductive pentose phosphate cycle
  106. The level of nitrogen fixation is highest under which of the following conditions?

    B. Low levels of O2 and low levels of NH4+
  107. The level of nitrogen fixation is lowest under which of the following conditions?

    A. High levels of O2 and high levels of NH4+
  108. In many bacteria, the electron carrier __________ is used for biosynthesis, whereas __________ feeds the electron transport system.

  109. Find correct statement(s)!

    C. All are correct
  110. Alkaline fermentations raise pH through the catabolism of:

    A. Proteins
  111. Leavening of commercial bread dough is brought about by CO2 from:
    a. homolactic fermentation
    b. aerobic metabolism of yeast
    c. alkaline fermentation
    d. acidic fermentation
    e. ethanolic fermentation
    e. ethanolic fermentation
  112. Which of the following conditions limits abiotic oxidation of fats in food (i.e., rancidity)?

    E. low oxygen levels
  113. Which of the following conditions limits abiotic oxidation of fats in food (i.e., rancidity)?

    E. low oxygen levels
  114. Food fermentation________

    D. All of the above statements are correct
  115. Find incorrect statement.

    E. All of the above statements are correct
  116. Electron transport systems are embedded in what membrane system, among others?

    D. all of the above
  117. The term __________ group indicates that the members of a clade share a common ancestor.

    C. monophyletic
  118. What is denitrification?

    A. conversion of nitrate or nitrite to N2 by anaerobic respirersImage Upload 1
  119. What is nitrification?

    • B. oxidation of NH4+ to nitrate or nitrite by lithotrophs
    • Image Upload 2
  120. The sum total of all DNA sequenced from an environmental sample such as soil sample is called:

    E. metagenome
  121. The relationship among endosymbiotic microbes in the termite gut that results in complex metabolic fluxes
    with a negative ΔG, and that would NOT happen for individual members, is called:

    E. syntrophy
  122. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and human relationship would best be described as:

    D. parasitism
  123. A molecular clock is best defined as:

    C. the information contained in DNA or protein sequences that shows changes over time
  124. The ancestral organism that gave rise to the modern-day chloroplast was:

    D. a cyanobacterium
  125. Lakes that have low concentrations of organic nutrients are termed:

    B. oligotrophic
  126. All of the following are thought to have been present in early cell metabolism before expansion of cyanobacteria EXCEPT

    A. Aerobic respiration
  127. The laws of thermodynamics indicate that systems tend to become less ordered and that __________, a measure of disorder or randomness of the universe, always increases.

    A. Entropy
  128. In most environments, the nutrient concentrations outside the cell are lower than inside the cell. How can a microbial cell obtain nutrients if the concentration gradient is NOT favorable?

    A. Through active, energy-dependent transport
  129. Production of traditionally fermented foods typically relies on ______ flora, whereas commercial fermentation generally relies on ________.

    E. Indigenous; starter cultures
  130. Which of the following does NOT aid in the retardation of microbial growth?

    D. Warming the food to body temperature
  131. The sum of all of Earth’s life is called:

    D. Biosphere
  132. Based on small subunit rRNA phylogeny studies, the current view is that there are ____ domains of life

    B. 3
  133. Horizontal gene transfer can occur by all EXCEPT for which of the following?

    D. Parent to offspring
  134. Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacterium and H1N1 viruses could both be placed in the same category in some medical classification systems based on the fact that they both:

    A. Cause lung infection
  135. The release of CO2 by human industry has/is ________ the rate of CO2 fixation globally

    C. Outpaced
  136. In marine sediments, CO2 is reduced to CH4 by:
    Bacteria containing a. proteorhodopsin
    b. Oxygenic Cyanobacteria
    c. Methanotrophic archaea
    d. Methogenic archaea
    e. None of the above
    d. Methogenic archaea
  137. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

    B. Fungi are prokaryotes
  138. Microbial life appeared on Earth as early as:

    A. 3.8 billion years ago
  139. Eukaryotic organelle structures that are thought to have arisen from endosynthetic relationships include:

    E. Mitochondria and chloroplasts
  140. Where do lymphocytes mature? 

    D. both b and c
  141. Where do lymphocytes encounter antigens? 

    B. secondary organs
  142. Which cells produce antibodies?

    B. B cells
  143. Which cells modulate immune response?

    C. T cells
  144. Which of the following is NOT a innate host defenses?

    B.  antibody proliferation
Card Set
Micro Final