1. How do you calculate LSALT for IFR vs Night VFR with RNP 2?
    • For RNP 2 it's 5nm from any point along nominal track inc dep/dest. Night VFR its still 10nm either side of track. Where no obstacles exist >360ft add 1360'. Where obstacles >360ft add 1000'. Round up to nearest 100ft. Then take off 500ft.
    • GEN 3.3 Para 4.7
  2. Validity of Instrument Proficiency Check or IPC?
    • Valid from when flight test was passed until the 12th month after the month it was passed on.
    • CASR 61.880
  3. How do you calculate a LSALT for IFR flight?
    • Draw area - NAVAID use 10.3 deg splay. DR use 15 deg splay. Max width either side of track 50NM. Always add 5NM buffer. If no aid at destination scribe a circle on it at current LSALT width. Find height - Any Obs >360ft add 1000ft. Obs all <360ft add 1360ft. Round to nearest 100ft.
    • GEN 3.3 para 4.6
  4. If told by ATC to change levels how long do you have to make that change?
    • Must commence change ASAP but no later than 1 minute.
    • ENR 1.7 para 4.1.1
  5. What do you put in the flight plan for a non standard DEP or DEST?
    • In the DEP and DEST fields put 'ZZZZ'. In REMARKS put DEP/OK091005 (091 radial and 5NM) or position using 11 figures with S and E at end. DEST/2731S15231E.
    • ENR 1.10 appendix 2
  6. When is AIPAB published and how does it work with SUP. AIC and NOTAM?
    AIPAB every 4 weeks. Does not duplicate information supplied in SUP. AIC or NOTAM.
  7. On the flightplan do you include WPs from approaches you intend to fly?
    • No. Only include ATS routes and designated WPs on those routes.
    • ENR 1.10 item 15
  8. How much clearance is provided by the missed approach?
    • Minimum obs clearance 100' @ 2.5% gradient from MDA or DA. If this gradient cannot be maintained the MDA or DA should be increased.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.10 note 2
  9. What should you do if you cannot meet the missed approach climb gradient?
    • You must increase the DA/MDA or take other action to achieve the obstacle clearance.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.10.1 Note 2
  10. When descending to CTAF IFR what should you tell ATS?
    • If you cannot monitor the ATS freq you have to report changing to CTAF with Aerodrome Loc and Freq. SARWATCH should be extended with an OPS NORMAL time.
    • ENR 1.1 para 47.2 and 47.3
  11. When must you conduct a missed approach?
    • 5 Things! 1 - Aid suspect or fails. 2 - Aircraft outside tolerance for aid. 3 - Not visual at or before MAPT or DA. 4 - Visual reference is lost whilst circling. 5 - A landing cannot be done from a rwy approach...unless a circling approach can be made with wx suitable for circling.
    • ENR1.5 para 1.10.1
  12. What does a 'Positive Fix' actually mean?
    • Passage over NDB.VOR/TAC.DME or Intersection of two or more position lines at angles not less than 45deg. (If position lines from NDBs they must both be within 30NM) OR 1x TSO 146a.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  13. ADF Ref - If you are converging or head-on what should you do?
    • Converging - The aircraft on your right is 'in the right'. You must give way. Head on - Alter course to the right.
    • FIHA ENR 1.1 para 1.6.4 and 1.6.5 jQuery110108276728884957996_1490409523540?
  14. In aircraft seperation what does 'well-clear' mean?
    • 500ft and 600m.
    • ENR1.1 para 1.6.1 jQuery1101008794156302897704_1490411928012?
  15. What is CAVOK?
    • 1 - Vis 10km. 2 - No cloud below 5000ft or 25NM MSA whichever is higher and no CB or Tcu at any height. 3 - No significant Wx.
    • GEN 3.5 para 4.4.1 g
  16. Can you plan IFR to single aid destination?
    • Yes, if operating AWK (if only crew on board). We can plan to single aid destinations. If CHTR (paying pax) then need 2.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  17. What is the alternate minima if there is no navigation aids?
    • Ceiling - Final route LSALT + 500'. Visibility - 8KM.
    • ENR 1.1 para c
  18. What is VMC in Class C. D. E and G?
    • C. E and G - 10000' or higher 8km vis/1000'/1500m. <10000' 5km vis/1000'/1500m. D - 5km vis/1000' above cloud/500' below cloud/600m. Exceptions: 1 - Class G below 3000'AMSL/1000'AGL 5km vis/Clear cloud. 2 - Helicopter below 700'AGL 800m vis/Clear cloud.
    • ENR 1.2 para 2.2
  19. What are these weather descriptors - BC BL DR FZ MI SH TS PR?
    • BC(French 'Banc')=Patches. BL=Blowing. DR=Drifting. FZ=Freezing. MI(French 'Mince')=Shallow. SH=Showers. TS=Thunderstorm. PR=Partially Covered.
    • GEN 3.5 para 13
  20. What are these TAF weather abbreviations - BR DU DS DZ FC FG FU GR GS?
    • BR(French 'Brume')=Mist. DU=Dust. DS=Dust Storm. DZ=Drizzle. FC=Funnel Clounds. FG=Fog. FU(French 'Fumer')=Smoke. GR(French 'Grele')=Hail. GS=Grele Small.
    • GEN 3.5 para 13
  21. What are these extra TAF weather abbreviations - HZ IC PL PO RA SA SG SN SQ SS UP VA?
    • HZ=Haze. IC=Ice Crystals. PL=Ice Pellets. PO(French Poussire)=Dust Devils. RA=Rain. SA=Sand. SG=Snow Grains. SN=Snow. SQ=Squalls. SS=Sand Storm. UP=Unknown Precipitation. VA=Volcanic Ash.
    • GEN 3.5 para 13
  22. Can you be vectored when under Special VFR?
    • No - only in emergency situations.
    • ENR 1.6 para 3.3
  23. Will you be clear of obstacles under radar vectors?
    • Yes - Controller will assign altitudes for terrain clearance. In Day VMC they can vector and say 'Visual' - then you must do terrain clearance.
    • ENR 1.6 para 3.6
  24. If cleared for an instrument approach what does that actually mean?
    • Clearance for an approach authorises you for final approach. If visual at minima the nominated rwy becomes clearance limit. If visual reference is lost you are cleared to conduct the MAP. Must seek further instructions prior to end of MAP.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  25. What is the takeoff minima for ME helicopter?
    • 1- Must ensure suitable alt landing within 60min flight time OEI; OR
    • 2- Increase take off minima to landing minima to ensure safe return in case of eng failure.
    • Ops Man Part A Sect 6

    • Clear of cloud until Vyse. Vis - 800m or 550m if edge lighting 60m AND centreline lighting OR markings.
    • ENR 1.5 para 4.5.2
  26. What are the 3 ways to navigate under the IFR?
    • 1. Approved ANAV system 2. Radio nav aids if a 9 deg tracking error allows you to come within coverage of next radio aid (Max 2hrs between fixes) 3. Visual reference to gnd/water (Max 30min between visual fixes).
    • ENR 1.1 para 3.3.1
  27. How do you work out the max distance you can go between radio aids?
    Max distance between aids = 6.67 x Rated Coverage of NEXT enroute aid.
  28. How do you know the range of a VOR/DME or a TACAN?
    • Height based. Below 5000ft = 60NM. 5000ft to below 10000 = 90NM. 10000ft = 120NM.
    • GEN 1.5 para 2.3
  29. What is the range of a LOC?
    • At 2000ft AGL and +- 10 deg = 25NM. Below 5000ft = 30NM. Above 5000ft = 50NM.
    • GEN 1.5 para 2.2 c
  30. What is PEC and when does it apply?
    • PEC = Pressure Error Correction. All DA must be adjusted for PEC per FM or just add 50ft.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.19.3
  31. In a clearance do you have to read back the full approach name?
    • The full chart title must be used for: Clearances; Co-ordination; and Read backs. NB: For circling apps you may omit the suffix ( eg NDB A) if there is no possiblity of confusion.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  32. What is the order of accuracy for NAV systems?
    • Most accurate to least accurate. LLZ - GNSS - VOR/TACAN - NDB/Locator.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  33. How do you calculate PA + DA?
    PA = Correct for pressure. 1Hpa is 30ft. DA = PA corrected for ISA temp deviation. +1 deg C = +120'.
  34. When can you descend below LSALT/MSA?
    • Unless you are doing - Visual approach or DME/GPS arrival procedure or RADAR identified and assigned an alt - you can't descend below LSALT/MSA until overhead IAF or facility.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.4
  35. If you are using an area QNH do you need to adjust the minima?
    • You must add 50' to the operating minima when using area QNH at an AD that receives a regular TAF. Otherwise the 50' adjustment has already been made.
    • ENR 1.5 para 5.3 & GEN 3.5 para 16
  36. What are the three entries to a holding pattern? What is the flexibility between these types?
    • Sector 1 - Parallel entry. Sector 2 - Offset entry (30 deg from outbound track). Sector 3 - Direct entry. The zone of flexibility is 5 deg.
    • ENR 1.5 para 3.3
  37. What is the maximum time you can fly outbound on a sector 2 entry?
    • 1 min 30 secs.
    • ENR 1.5 para 3.3.3
  38. If a localiser approach usually has a HIAL and it is U/S what do you do?
    • The visibility minima for a localiser app must be increased by 900m.
    • ENR 1.5 para 4.7.2
  39. What do you need in order to use the visibility specified on an ILS chart?
    • You need FOUR things - 1. HIAL 2. High Intensity Edge Lighting 3. Flight director or Coupled Auto-Pilot 4. Serviceable Pri ATT + HDG warning systems.
    • No HIAL = 1.5 KM (ie. See 1000ft markers.)
    • HIAL but missing any others = 1.2 KM (ie. See start of runway.)
    • ENR 1.5 para 4.7.3
  40. When must you be established on track during a departure?
    • Unless doing SID or instructed by ATC - you must be established on track within 5nm of departure aerodrome.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.7.3
  41. In a CTAF if an aircraft takes off before you when can you take off?
    • Other aircraft has 1. Crossed upwind threshold 2. Commenced turn 3. If RWY is >1800m he is airborne and 1800m ahead 4. Landing AC has vacated and taxiied away 5. Another AC has stopped short or crossed.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  42. What do you say to centre when you are told to contact them?
    "Climbing or Descending or Maintaining. ""ML CEN RSCU 51 maintaining 6000"""
  43. When can you descend below MDA?
    • 5 things. 1 - In circling area. 2 - Visibility along intended flightpath as specified. 3 - Visual contact with landing runway environment. AND either 4 - Intercept posn on DW / base / final leg at alt NB MDA and complete cont descent to landing threshold using NML RoD and maintain obs clearance until aligned with RWY. 5 - By day maintain min obs clearance until aligned with RWY.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.6
  44. When can you do an IFR visual approach by night?
    • - "Within 30nm, NB LSALT/MSA or DME/GPS step or the MDA - AND are
    • - Clear of Cloud +
    • - In sight of ground or water +
    • - 5km (800m by day) vis -
    • - AND within 1. Circling area OR
    • - 2. within 5nm of AD aligned with RWY centreline and NB ""on slope"" TVASIS / PAPI (7nm ILS RWY) OR
    • - 3. within 10nm est NB ILS glidepath and less than full scale LLZ deflection."
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.15
  45. What is the tolerance to enter a reversal procedure?
    • You must be +- 30 deg of outbound track. Note: Base turns where the reciprocal of the inbound track is outside this 30 deg sector the sector is expanded to include it.
    • ENR 1.5 para 2.7.3
  46. When does the clock start on a holding pattern? How long is the outbound leg?
    • Wings level or abeam the fix - whichever comes later. Max time 1 min or time or distance specified on plate.
    • ENR 1.5 para 3.2.1
  47. When can you request a frequency change?
    • Descent from CTA or Form or SAR or police mission.
    • ENR 1.1 para + 3
  48. Give an example of calls to approach when identified and when not radar identified?
    • Not ID: RSCU 52. 20DME on the 205 Radial. Maintaining 8000'. In cloud / visual. Received ATIS (App type reqd). Request Clearance. ID: RSCU 52. Maintaining 8000'. In cloud / visual. Received ATIS.(App type Reqd). Request Clearance.
    • GPA GEN 3.4 para 5.6 and 5.10
  49. How does the spacing and colour of runway lights work?
    • Runway edge lights are White Spacing = 60m for Instrument runways or max 90m for non-instrument or non-precision runways. Precision app CAT1 / 2 last 600m = Yellow. Centreline lights: White ( first 900m) then Red + White and finally Red (last 300m).
    • AD1 para 4.4 and 4.6
  50. When can you commence descent during the outbound leg on a reversal procedure?
    • You have crossed the fix or facility and Established on outbound leg or on a heading to intercept. Further descent inbound cannot being commenced until established.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.21.2
  51. What does established mean?
    • Half full scale deflection for the ILS/VOR/GNSS. Within 5 degrees of NDB bearing. Within 2nm of the DME arc.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.21.2 note.
  52. How much clearance is provided by MSAs?
    • MSAs provide 1000' obstacle clearance from all obstructions within 5nm of the aircraft.
    • ENR 1.5 para 2.2.1
  53. What are the three types of reversal procedure? Are there any additional restrictions for CAT A + B?
    • 1 - 45/180; Max time from start of 45 deg turn for CAT A + B is 1 min. 2 - 80/260. 3 - Base turn.
    • ENR 1.5 para 2.7.2
  54. How much clearance is provided by a RTCC? Where is it referenced from?
    • 1000' and 3nm from all known obstacles. RTCC distances and bearings are measured from the radar head unless otherwise stated.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.4.1 Note 1
  55. What is 'Special VFR'?
    • By day when VMC does not exist. For the purpose of entering or leaving CTR. May operate Clear of Cloud; 800m vis; at a speed to see and avoid.
    • ENR 1.2 para 1.2
  56. How long before operating in CTA should you submit details?
    • At least 30 mins before EOBT (Est Off Block Time) is recommended.
    • ENR 1.10 para 2.16
  57. Can you descend below DA/MDA when weather is continuously less than that needed?
    • Only in an emergency.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.6
  58. When ATC issue you a restriction or requirement can that be amended?
    • "If a subsequent restriction/requirement is imposed it will cancel all previous restrictions/requirements unless: 1. all are restated or 2. the subsequent instruction is prefixed ""further requirement"".
    • ENR 1.1 para 3.14"
  59. What is Vat and how do you calculate it?
    • Vat is Velocity at the threshold either - Vso (Stalling speed) x 1.3 or Vs1g (Stalling speed) x 1.23. Both are in landing config and at max cert landing weight.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.2.1
  60. What do runway code numbers represent? What is a STODA?
    • Code Numbers represent the obstacle survey area size for the RWY. STODA is a shorter take-off distance for a set gradient of 1.6% - 1.9% - 2.2% - 2.5% and 3.3%.
    • ERSA INTRO para 1.3.3
  61. When can you request a visual departure?
    • Wx allows VMC climb to MSA/LSALT or VMC cruise at less than LSALT/MSA. During departure a pilot must 1. Track + HDG IAW ATC; 2. >500' above LL CTA; and 3. Vis Obs Clearance.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  62. How much aircraft tracking deviation in CTA for all the different NAV systems?
    • VOR/TACAN: Half scale deflection. NDB/Locator: +- 5 deg. DME: +-2nm. RNAV: +- 2nm. Visual Nav: +-1nm. You must notify ATC if you go outside these tolerances and make corrective action.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  63. OLD REF - How much must you avoid controlled airspace by?
    OLD - NDB: 6.9 deg. VOR/TACAN: 5.2 deg. DR: 12 deg (9 deg if initially tracking by navaid). RNAV: 14nm. Visual: 0-2000'AGL = 1nm. 2001'-5000'AGL = 2nm. 5001'-10000'AGL = 4nm. ENR 1.1 para 19.12
  64. Why are SIDs named weird names like BOGEY THREE?
    • Named by the first enroute WP or a WP within the SID and the amendment status.
    • ENR 1.5 para 8.2.1
  65. What are the approved sources of actual QNH? How long is it valid for?
    • ATC. ATIS. AWIS. and CASA approved met observer. Valid for 15 mins.
    • ENR 1.5 para 5.3.2
  66. When do you need an alternate due lighting?
    • Portable Lgt - Need responsible person.
    • No Stby Pwr - Need responsible person to put out portable lights.
    • PAL + Stby Pwr - Need responsible person to manually switch on stby pwr.
    • PAL at Alt Aerodrome - No responsible person req if dual VHF or single VHF + HF + 30min holding.
    • Responsible person attendance - 30min before ETA until taxi complete. 10min before ETD until T/O + 30min.
    • NB/ Our CASA permit allows us to descend below LSALT so if visual we don't need alternate for lighting.
    • ENR 1.1 para 8.8.4
  67. At a CTA will ATC issue a clearance to fly into an adjoining CTR?
    When T/O in a CTA ATC will issue a clearance to operate in adjoining controlled airspace. ENR 1.1 para 2.2.16
  68. If OCTA close to CTA when should you obtain clearance?
    • Before entering the runway for take-off or after take-off provided the aircraft does not enter controlled area until cleared.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.2.17
  69. Does a control instruction amend a clearance? When will a clearance be re-issued?
    • A control instruction issued after a clearance amends the appropriate item in the clearance. A complete clearance will be re-issued when there is any change in the clearance limit or route specified.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.2.13
  70. Who can go into Class E airspace?
    • IFR need clearance. VFR does not require a clearance. But - VFR should avoid IFR routes and holding points & monitor Class E freq to avoid conflict.
    • ENR 1.1 para 3.1 and 3.2
  71. When operating below MDA what is the mimimum obstacle clearance?
    Pilots should maintain maximum practical obstacle clearance. Mins are - Cat A & B: 300'. Cat C & D: 400'. Cat E: 500'. ENR 1.5 para 1.7.6 note 2
  72. How big is the circling area?
    Arcs centred on the thresholds of useable RWYs and joined by tangents. A: 1.68nm B: 2.66nm C: 4.20nm D: 5.28nm E: 6.94nm. ENR 1.5 para 1.7.6 note 3
  73. Give an example of a departure report to approach?
    • """ADL departures - RSCU 51 - turning left 200 - Passing 1200 - Climbing 8000"".
    • Dir of turn & hdg - alt passing - assigned level.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.7
  74. What are the handling speeds for a Cat A aircraft?
    Vat < 91. Initial & Intermediate = 90 - 150. Final = 70 - 100. Visual Circling = Max 100. Missed App = Max 110. Reversal (This is a 45/180 or 80/250 or a Base Turn Proceedure) = Max 110. ENR 1.5 para 1.16.1
  75. ADF Ref - What the hell is 'Well Clear'?
    • 500' vertical and 600m (2000') horizontal separation.
    • FIHA ENR 1.1 para 1.6
  76. jQuery110109890422108583152_1492918390880? When are you 'Overtaking'?
    • When approaching another aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than 70deg (can't see overtaken aircraft's nav lights).
    • ENR 1.1 para 1.6.2
  77. ADF Ref - How do you overtake?
    Slow aircraft has right of way. Fast aircraft to pass to the right. Don't dive to overtake. ENR1.1 para 1.6.3
  78. What must you tell Center after a frequency change?
    • Tell them last assigned level. If you are not maintaining it anymore tell them what you are climbing or descending to.
    • ENR 1.1 para 7.5.5
  79. Can you modify a approach minima with a shaded backgroud?
    • Yes - if you have accurate QNH you can reduce a shaded minima by 100ft.
    • ENR 1.5 para 5.3.2
  80. What is 'Low Flying'? When can you do it?
    • Less than 500ft AHO. You can legally low fly outside TFA due to - Stress of WX. ATC Instructions. In CCT area. On helicopter approach or departure to city/town. OR IAW If available CASA permit for SAR/RECCE etc....
    • FIHA ENR 1.1 para 1.2.1 ???
  81. What is a standard SID climb gradient? Why is it this number?
    • Standard SID is 3.3%. This is normal 2.5% obstacle gradient + 0.8% additional clearance because 2.5% equates to zero ft at the end of the runway bitumen.
    • ENR 1.5 para 8.5.2
  82. Do you add buffers to weather changes on a TAF and TTF?
    • Yes - add a 30min buffer to weather changes on a TAF to make the WX change more restrictive. 30min buffer not req on a TTF.
    • ENR 1.1 para &
  83. What is the minimum forecast you need? How long does it need to be valid?
    • Minimum is an Flight Forecast or ARFOR valid for flight duration only. If the destination has an approach you need an aerodrome (TAF/TTF) forecast too - valid for 30min before and 60min after ETA.
    • ENR 1.10 para 1.2.1 and 1.2.5
  84. Can you depart without a forecast?
    • You can if the weather will allow safe return within 60mins. You must obtain a forecast within 30mins after departure to continue.
    • ENR 1.10 para 1.2.2
  85. When can you use a TTF as your only forecast?
    • If the flight will be completed within the validity of the destination TTF you can just use this forecast.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  86. What is the alternate minima if the destination doesn't have an approach?
    • No approach is final LSALT +500ft and 8km vis.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  87. What should you note about the spot-heights on IAL charts?
    • Spot-heights must be treated with caution. They do not indicate the highest terrain or all obstacles in the circling area. You should study a topo map.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.5
  88. How long before a flight should you re-check the weather?
    • You should re-check the weather no earlier than 60 mins before departure. However you can depart and get weather within 30 min of departure time.
    • ENR 1.10 para 1.2.8
  89. What are the mandatory read-backs?
    • ATC route clearances
    • En route holding instruction
    • Route and holding pt instructions in taxi clearance
    • Hold short /enter/ line up/ wait/ takeoff from/ cross/ taxi/ backtrack on any rwy or HLS
    • Approach clearance
    • Assigned rwy/HLS
    • Altimeter settings /nab aid freq settings
    • SSR code
    • Level/ dirn of turn/ hdg/ speed
    • GEN 3.4 para 4.4.1
  90. How do distance-to-run markers work on a runway?
    • Single digit indicates thousands of feet to run till end of runway.
    • AD1 para 3.8.2
  91. If told to 'Maintain RWY Heading' should you compensate for wind?
    • No - pilots assigned a HDG must not compensate for wind.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  92. If heading instructions are given on departure what must you read-back?
    • You must read-back HDG and direction of turn also. In a RADAR SID if the assigned HDG is close to RWY heading they will not tell you direction of turn.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  93. What are the emergency transponder codes?
    • MAYDAY - 7700. COMMS - 7600. HIJACK - 7500.
    • ENR 1.6 para 6.4
  94. When can u commence an IFR visual approach by Day?
    • You must be within 30NM
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.15
  95. Can you ever circle in a No-Circling area?
    • You can when DAY VMC.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.2
  96. When circling you must maintain Visual-Contact. What does that mean?
    • You can see 'RWY Threshold OR approach lights OR other markings identifiable with the runway.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.6 c
  97. Your route clearance has a small part OCTA. Do you need clearance to re-enter CTA?
    • A clearance only clears the flight on the assigned route to the point that it leaves CTA. You must get another clearance if you intend to re-enter CTA.
    • ENR 1.1 para 3.7
  98. How do you do 'VFR climb and descent' when IFR?
    • You must request it. VMC + See and Avoid + No Wake Turb seperation + Visual Obs clearance. Tracking. Nav and Reporting as per IFR.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.8.2
  99. IFR and operating 'VFR On-Top' of cloud will you get traffic separation service?What levels?
    • No - You will get traffic information only. Operate at VFR levels.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.9.1
  100. How accurate must a position estimate be when IFR?
    • Must be within 2 mins or advise ATC.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  101. How low can you go over cities/towns and people?
    • NB 1000ft within 600m radius of the aircraft.
    • FIHA ENR 1.1 para 1.1.1
  102. What should you be careful of using T-VASIS at night?
    • At night the visible splay is increased from 7.5deg to 30deg either side. This is so you can see it on base. CAUTION - obstacle clearance is not gauranteed till aligned with RWY.
    • AD1 para 5.1.1 Note 1
  103. What side are the red lights on when ON-SLOPE on a PAPI?
    • On slope is 3deg on PAPI. Red lights will always be closest to the RWY when on slope.
    • AD1 para 5.1.2
  104. Are IFR tracks on charts Great Cirles or Rhumblines?
    • IFR chart tracks are Great Circles. This means on long routes the mag track will change as you go along. A Rhumbline has the same magnetic track the whole way.
    • GEN 3.2 para 2.3.1
  105. What is the difference between a METAR and a SPECI?
    • METAR is a routine observation (hourly or half-hourly). SPECI is a special observation where WX is below criteria or has had a significant change.
    • GEN 3.5 para 12.1.1
  106. When MUST you make your departure report to center at a CTAF?
    • When established on the departure track and clear of CCT traffic. If done before established you must advise that you are manoeuvring for track.
    • ENR 1.1 para and 7.4.4
  107. When ATC direct a 'Standard' climb or descent what does that mean?
    • Not less than 500ft/min & last 1000ft shall be at 500ft/min.
    • ENR 1.7 para 4.1.9
  108. When can a pilot be an 'approved met observer'?
    • Aircraft captain when observing vis for take-off or landing.
    • GEN 3.5 para 4.5.2
  109. What are the dry and saturated lapse rates? Why are they different?
    Dry 3deg/1000ft. Saturated 1.5deg/1000ft. In the saturated case when water condenses latent heat is released. This warms the air and reduces the cooling rate.
  110. What is the difference between a SIGMET and an AIRMET?
    • SIGMET is weather which may affect aircraft safety. AIRMET is issued when specified weather has not been included on the ARFOR.
    • GEN 3.5 para 5.1.1 and 5.3.1
  111. When will a forecast be deemed PROV?
    • When the forecast is issued by a MET office outside its area of authority.
    • GEN 3.5 para 3.5.1
  112. What area does a TAF actually cover?
    • Valid for 5NM from the ARP.
    • GEN 3.5 para 3.4.1
  113. What are the Privileges of instrument rating?
    • The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft:
    • (a) under the IFR; or
    • (b) at night under the VFR.
    • CASR 61.855
  114. What is the turb penetration speed?
    Aircraft specific but usually between Vy and Vne IMC
  115. What icing conditions can you fly into in Bell 412?
  116. When will icing occur?
    OAT +5deg and visible moisture
  117. What time do new charts and approach plates become current?
    • 1600Z on the day before the amendment (0200K on the day of the amendment).
    • GEN 3.1 para 4.3
  118. To use 'Special Alternate Minima' what do you need?
    • You need dual VOR/ILS/GS recievers. Also need duplicated MB or MB+DME. Also ATC and MET forecasting online. Assumed 2x ADFs if req'd for plate. GPS with TSO 146a can be 1 of the ADF/VOR receivers req'd in the 2.
    • Special minima indicated by two asterix (**)
    • ENR 1.5 para 6.2.1
  119. What effect does having bleed air on do for ENG power?
    Increase Eng temp and therefore decrease power available
  120. After departing an aerodrome how long can you stay on that QNH?
    • A local aerodrome QNH is valid if within 100NM of aircraft. Otherwise set area QNH.
    • ENR 1.7 para 2.1.2
  121. What is a cloud ceiling?
    • The AGL height of the cloud base when it covers more than 4 OCTA. So when its >SCT cloud.
    • GEN 2.2 para 1 - Definitions
  122. What are the general limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument rating?
    • Only fly IAP if the aircraft is equipped.
    • Can operate single Pilot IFR only if passed IR test or IPC in a single-pilot aircraft.
    • Can conduct circ app under IFR only if: passed IR flight test or IPC within 12 months that inc a circ app; or train/check system that inc circ app.
    • Only fly IAP if completed training and competent IAW CASA or examiner.
    • CASR 61.860
  123. What are the Recent Experience Requirements of instrument ratings regarding hours/approaches?
    • A) Completed IPC covering IFR ops within the last 3 months
    • B) Participating in a training and checking system OR
    • To fly IFR, conducted 3 IAP within 90 days.
    • To fly IFR in a particular category, cond 1 IAP within 90 days in same category.
    • 1 x IAP 2D within 90 days.
    • 1 x IAP 3D within 90 days.
    • 1 x azimuth IAP (NDB, DGA) within 90 days. 
    • 1 x CDI operation (VOR, RNAV, ILS, LLZ, DGA) within 90 days.
    • CASR 61.870
  124. When can someone be authorised to pilot an aircraft under IFR single-pilot?
    • Only if the holder has cond a flight or sim flight under IFR as single-pilot operation within the previous 6 months
    • NB/ The flight or sim flight must be at least 1 hr and inc at least 1 x IAP
    • CASR 61.875
  125. What GENERAL Equipment is req'd for flight under IFR?
    • Aeroplane operating RPT, CHTR or AWK as an air ambo can only operate IFR if it has:
    • (a) the roll and pitch axis;
    • (b) an automatic heading capability;
    • (c) an altitude hold capability.
    • An aeroplane without an autopilot may op IFR if:
    • (a) equipped with dual controls; and
    • (b) carries a second pilot who is auth under Part 61 to conduct the flight.
    • If the autopilot fitted for CHTR or AWK ops as an air ambulance loses a capability referred to in paragraph above, the aeroplane may, if the pilot is satisfied that it is safe to do so, be operated single pilot IFR 3 days from when the auto pilot broke
    • Aircraft Equipment CAO 20.18 Paragraph 4
  126. IFR Flight and Duty times?
    • Under our FRMS we are exempt from CAO limits.
    • Only limits we have are 4 hrs NVD and a 14 hr duty day.
  127. What are the IFR Fixed and Variable Reserve fuel requirements?
    • Fixed: 30 min at cruise = 375 lbs
    • Var: 10% of flight fuel. That doesn't include taxi/start/stop
  128. What speed and fuel flow is holding conducted at?
    70-80 kts and 600 lbs/hr
  129. How much fuel allowed for an approach and missed approach?
    120 lbs
  130. St what fuel quantity do you switch the FUEL INTCON to OPEN?
    600 lbs remaining
  131. When does the LOW FUEL caution light illuminate?
    • 50 lbs in either side OR
    • 380 lbs total
  132. Do we add PEC in the B412?
    • Yes
    • AIP 1.5 para 1.18
  133. What's the average fuel burn calculations?
    • 750 /hr
    • 100 /8 min
    • 12.5 /min
    • = 7 lbs / nm (@ 120kts + 10% reserves)
Card Set
IFR quizz