Anesthesia 2

  1. T/F: Pediatric patients and geriatric patients are more susceptible to CV depression caused by anesthetic drugs than young adults
    True
  2. T/F: Pediatric and geriatric patients are both prone to hypothermia
    true
  3. some boxers have reportedly suffered hypotension and bradycardia after receiving ________ as a premedication
    Acepromazine
  4. pediatric (especially toy breed) dogs and pediatric cats may suffer from ________ peri-anesthetically.
    Hypoglycemia
  5. T/F: Pediatric patients should only be fasted for 1-2hours, and then should have their blood glucose concentration checked
    true
  6. Name two reasons it is important to have venous access during general anesthesia
    Fluid therapy, emergency drugs
  7. what is preoxygenation and why do we do it?
    Several minutes of 100% O2 before anesthetics increase time to hypoxia if airway is compromised
  8. Discuss the challenges of incubating a brachycephalic dog or cat, and how you should prepare for intubation in these patients.
    • Brachycephalic: upper airway syndrome (stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, everted saccules, redundant pharyngeal tissue, hypoplastic trachea.  Hard to visualize rima glottidis due to elongated soft palate, everted saccules and redundant pharyngeal tissue.
    • cats: prone to laryngospasm, spray with lidocaine.  May not incubate in castration
  9. what is the first thing you should do after inserting the ET tube?
    Hook up to 100% O2
  10. The ______ or _______ is rapidly palpated after intubation to ensure your patient has not arrested
    Apex beat or pulse
  11. Why do we ascult both sides of chest soon after induction and intubation
    ensure ET tube is not past carina, only inflating one lung
  12. Describe how to tell if a dog or cat is too "light", too "deep" or at an appropriate depth of anesthesia according to eye position, palpebral, jaw tone
    • light: central eye position, present palpebral, jaw tone
    • deep: central eye position, no palpebral, no jaw tone
    • adequate: rotated eye position, no palpebral, some jaw tone
  13. What five monitoring devices should be used on any dog or cat undergoing general anesthesia?
    • pulse oximeter
    • capnograph
    • BC oscillometer or doppler
    • ECG
    • Thermometer
  14. When should a non-brachycephalic dog or cat be extubated?  A brachycephalic dog or cat?
    • Once coughing or swelling strongly at least twice in a short period. 
    • Brachycephalic: only when chewing, gagging and/or strongly coughing.
  15. What should you look for or do right after extubation?
    respriatory rate and pattern.  Pulse ox on room air, take vital signs and assess pain
  16. IF patient is having a rough recovery, what is the first thing to assess and treat for if needed?
    Pain vs emergence delirium.  Pain is ALERT and directed towards painful site.  Delirium is staring into space, not directed towards site.  If not sure, check for pain first.
  17. Neuromuscular blocking agents
    • Hydrosoluble so peripheral only, no BBB
    • NO SEDATION OR ANALGESIA
    • muscle relaxants only - skeletal muscle, not smooth or cardiac.  PARALYSIS, cannot breathe or move in response to pain.
    • Depolarizing (succinylcholine) or non-depolarizing (most, intermediate or long-acting)
  18. NMJ physiology
    • Nerve synthesizes ACh, impulse causes release into synaptic cleft, binds to nicotinic receptor on post, causes conformational change, leading to end-plate potential and muscle contraction. 
    • ACh hydrolized by AChE, reduces ACh, receptor ion channels close.
  19. Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
    • MOST
    • bind to receptor to prevent interaction with ACh (competitive antagonists), so can be reversed by increasing ACh.  
    • NOT hydrolyzed by AChE, so reversal depends on redistribution, metabolism, excretion (or reversal like edrophonium and neostigmine, inhibit AChE to increase ACh)
    • intermediate: atracurium, vecuronium, rocuronium
    • long: pancuronoium
  20. neuromuscular block antagonists/reversal
    • Edrophonium or neostigmine.  AChE inhibitors, allow ACh to build up in synaptic cleft to compete with NMBA.  
    • Increases in ACh can cause CV complications so give with atropine or glycopyrrolate.
    • Ceiling effect, DEEP block cannot be antagonized 
    • ALSO sugammadex - SELECTIVE relaxant binding agent - binds SPECIFICALLY to rocuronium/vecuronium/pancuronium
  21. depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
    • succinylcholine resembles ACh
    • binds to receptor and generates an action potential - AGONIST
    • contraction/fasciculation then paralysis, doesn't let go. Hydrolyzed in plasma by pseudocholinesterase NOT AChE, no antagonist
    • Works in 30 seconds, faster than everything else.
  22. monitoring
    • NECESSARY
    • peripheral nerve stimulator
    • Train of Four - twitch gets gradually less intense over time (fades).
    • When drug wears off, all four twitches equal
  23. residual paralysis
    • Presence of undetected weakness after anesthesia
    • increases risk of aspiration, upper airway obstruction and hypoxia
    • mild can't be easily detected.  Anesthetics and hypothermia also increase risks of residual paralysis
  24. benzylisoquinolones (nondepolarizing NMBAs)
    • Atracurium, cisatracurium
    • can release histamine (tachycardia, hypotension, bronchospasm)
    • extra-hepatic metabolism
  25. steroidal nondepolarizing NMBAs
    • Vecuronium, rocuronium
    • tend to be vagolytic
    • hepatic metabolism
    • renal excretion
  26. Hoffman elimination
    • a spontaneous nonenzymatic chemical breakdown occurs at physiological pH and temperature
    • how atracurium is broken down
  27. how is atracurium broken down
    • Hoffman elimination: a spontaneous nonenzymatic chemical breakdown occurs at physiological pH and temperature
    • ester hydrolysis: by nonspecific esterases
    • pharmacokinetics are independent of liver and renal function
  28. Most anesthetic drugs _____________ CV function
    Most disease of CV system are ____________ by anesthesia
    • depress CV
    • exacerbated
  29. basal metabolic oxygen requirement
    10 ml/kg/min
  30. mixed venous oxygen and how it decreases (2)
    normal mixed venous oxygen content
    normal arterial oxygen content
    • measure of global balance between supply and demand of oxygen
    • goes down when EITHER O2 demand increases or O2 supply decreases
    • mixed venous oxygen content: ~15 ml/dl
    • arterial oxygen content: ~20 ml/dl
    • so the body uses 5mL of O2 from every 100mL of cardiac output
  31. oxygen delivery formula
    • oxygen delivery = cardiac output x oxygen content of arterial blood
    • DO2 = Q x CO2
    • Cardiac Output = Q = stroke volume x heart rate
  32. oxygen content formula
    oxygen on hemoglobin + oxygen in simple solution
  33. oxygen on hemoglobin
    • sigmoid curve designed to pick up large volume of oxygen in lung and unload it in tissues with a small drop in PaO2
    • very little PO2 in plasma (linear relationship, not sigmoid).  Breathing 100% O2 increases by a TON, to become ~30% of body's needs, so this helps anemic patients a LOT
  34. blood pressure analogous with what formula?  CO formula
    • Ohm's Law for DC current
    • current = voltage/resistance
    • cardiac output = pressure drop / vascular resistance (so CO proportional to systmeic arterial pressure unless there are vasoconstrictors)
  35. Feline Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    • High myocardial O2 demand
    • often restricted outflow tract (high resistance to flow around aortic valve
    • poor pump function
    • increasing HR doesn't allow time for ventricular filling
  36. Pericardial tamponade
    • big globular heart on radiographs
    • pericardium full of exudate/transudate (no compliance)
    • ventricles can't fill
    • atria can't "kick"
    • stroke volume low
    • aspirate the pericardial sac!
  37. Equine respiratory rate
    tidal volume
    dead space in terms of tidal volume
    • ~14/min
    • 10-15 mL/kg
    • Vd/Vt ~ 60%, more than HALF is dead space!
    • enough pressure on inspiration to collapse airways or cause pulmonary edema, so lungs collapse under anesthesia due to position and lack of tone, and reopening is hard
    • V/Q mismatch more common in horses than others
  38. equine HR, ABP, necessary MAP (and why), most common arrhythmias
    • HR 30-45
    • ABP 130/90 (100)
    • MAP <70 causes rhabdomyolysis
    • I-II AV blocks are common, AF most common arrhythmia
    • anesthetics cause hypotension due to vasodilation and poor contractility
  39. Equine anesthesia prep
    • 14g catheter in L jug
    • rinse mouth - they pack like chipmunks
    • >12h fasting to increase functional residual capacity and decreases tympanism (otherwise they FERMENT under anesthesia and bloat, can't breathe
    • careful if using K-Pen as abx, K too fast causes bradycardia and hypotension
  40. sedatives for horses (4)
    • alpha-2: xylazine (least specific), detomidine, romifidine, dexmedetomidine (most specific).  CV effects less severe than dogs/cats, so most common sedatives for equine.  Stay standing.
    • phenothiazines: acepromazine, ataxia but stay up, alpha-1 blockade may cause hypotension, non-reversible, priaprism
    • Benzodiazepines: diazepam, midazolam, not great sedatives and can cause excitation, good in neonates or with ketamine. 
    • opioids: combined to augment sedation, but constipation.  Morphine good analgesic but colic/excitation.  Torb is shorter and more mild, but fewer effects
    • USE XYLAZINE
  41. induction and maintenance for equines
    • IV always through catheter!  Can mask but only really for foals or research
    • Dissociatives: ketamine, usu with benzos.  "slow", CV stability, moderate resp depressino, analgesia, but causes muscle rigidity
    • Inhalational: Iso most common, more hypotension than dog/cat.  Usu add something to decrease MAC (ketamine, lidocaine, detomidine)
    • often SEVERE hypoventilation and lots of atelectasis so we use IPPV
  42. "triple drip" in equines
    • guaifenesin (sometimes midaz), ketamine and xylazine
    • enough for short, not-complex procedures, used in field conditions
  43. Inverted L block
    • ruminant DA, C-section etc
    • block down T13/L1, across top to L4 
    • Takes a while to work and peritoneum may not get enough at first?
    • Lidocaine usually, SQ tunnel then three layers
  44. Paravertebral blocks (2)
    • rumenotomy, DA, C-section
    • Proximal paravertebral nerve block: just lateral to vertebral dorsal spinous processes of T13, L1, L2
    • Distal paravertebral block: Dorsal and ventral to lateral vertebral processes
  45. Intravenous regional blocks/"bier" blocks (4)
    • for amputation of a digit, don't use a ring block
    • tourniquet then inject into radial vein, palmar metacarpal vein and/or dorsal metacarpal vein, lateral saphenous for hind.
  46. block for dehorning cattle
    midway between canthus of eye and horn, gets auriculopalpebral and cornual branch of the zygomaticotemporal.  May also put some in medial canthus of eye (infraorbital)
  47. block for dehorning goats
    • DILUTE LIDOCAINE, more sensitive (doesn't last as long), get twitchy and neurological
    • inject midway between lateral canthus and ear (zygomaticotemporal) PLUS infratrochlear
  48. caudal epidural block
    • peri- and intra-vaginal procedures
    • between 1st and 2nd coccigeal vertebrae with Tuohy needle
  49. epidural for cattle, goats, sheep
    • lumbosacral space
    • In goats, spinal cord can extend longer so be careful
  50. blocking teats in cattle (also testicles)
    • ring block
    • testicles: line block under skin and rest into testes
  51. sedation of ruminants (2)
    • xylazine: most common in cattle - more sensitive than horses.  Sheep more than cattle, goats more than sheep.  SHEEP - pulmonary edema and hypoxemia, increased diffusion limitation
    • benzodiazepines: midaz/diaz with induction agents, can be used with butorphanol for sedation.  OFTEN with torb in sheep
  52. Ruminant GA and regurg/bloat
    • serious complications, so fast adult cattle 18-24h, water 6-8h.
    • fast small ruminants 6-12h, off water 2-3 hours
    • neonates miss one feed, they're essentially monogastric
    • don't use parasympatholytics, make saliva viscous
  53. ruminant induction and ET tube
    • cast with casting rope first
    • IV induction with ketamine (usu + diazepam), propofol ($$$), guaiafenesin
    • intubate cow with gag and arm, physically palpate larynx.  Small ruminants ET like dogs but LONG laryngoscope blade. 
    • Wash out mouth before extubation because they DID regurg
  54. camelids, ET tubes and catheters
    • spasm when you remove the tube, you have to just re-anesthetize and re-tube
    • Stop breathing sometimes.  
    • Hard to get catheter in jug because of thick skin, no good veins in limbs.
  55. difficulties with swine anesthesia
    no handles, can't get at veins for injection, screaming!  Weird trachea hard to work with, blind diverticulum in larynx, oval cricoid very narrow, malignant hyperthermia
  56. swine sedation
    • oral diazepam in palatable vehicle
    • can use acepromazine or azaperone
  57. swine anesthesia drugs
    • injectable anesthetics IM
    • Telazole: low volume and high therapeutic index, but very long recovery
    • Alpha2 + ketamine + opiate: most reliable
    • use these as chemical restraint then put a catheter in the ear vein, top with ketamine or propofol
  58. malignant hyperthermia
    • Rare, genetic, mostly bred out
    • first sign is front legs extending and claws separating.  
    • Temperature increases, resp rate increases, struggle, lactic acidosis, arrhythmias and death
    • discuss with owner FIRST
  59. Main concerns of anesthesia
    Maintain homeostasis,airwayandanalgesia
  60. The key to practicing anesthesiaisto
    understandphysiology and pathophysiology
  61. pregnancy as co-morbidity
    • increased abdominal return: decreases venous return, reduces FRC (pressure on aorta and VC, weight doesn't let chest expand), increases risk of hypoxia
    • dilutional anemia
    • risk of hemorrhage (hyperperfused uterus)
    • progesterone decreases MAC (easier to OD)
    • lowers vascular resistance (prone to hypotension - progesterone increases to make it easier to perfuse uterus)
  62. Cranial abscess/tumor/mass concerns
    • Mannitol to draw fluid from cranium, decrease ICP
    • ICP increased by: vomiting, coughing, increased CVP, hypercarbia, hypoxemia, inhalational anesthetics, ketamine, severe hypertension
    • swings in BP cause swings in ICP
    • maintain MAP over 80mmHg (phenylephrine) to ensure blood can GET into cranium against pressure
  63. Cushing's reflex
    • secondary to ICP, arterial BP increases then reflex bradycardia.  Sudden hypertension and bradycardia in surgery means ICP IS INCREASING
    • Pressure that goes into brain depends on MAP and ICP, so keep MAP high
  64. why diabetes matters for anesthesia
    • Hyperglycemia: increases density of blood (thicker), diuretic causing PUPD, both can cause dehydration
    • iatrogenic hypoglycemia: too much insulin without eating.  NO symptoms show under anesthesia
    • SLOW gastric emptying time: increases risk of regurgitation and aspiration
    • cardiac autonomic neuropathy: may not respond/compensate as well
    • potential renal disease: long-term diabetes due to hyperglycemia = tubular necrosis
    • DKA: no insulin = no glucose = fat for energy = ketones = acidosis
    • FASTING: early sx, fast overnight.  Late, feed a wet meal with motilin in the morning.  Measure and decide on insulin.  
    • Repeated BG and acid-base monitoring throughout sx.
  65. anesthetic concerns with sepsis
    • painful!  
    • Peritoneal fluid = compression = hypoxia
    • vomiting = aspiration, acid/base
    • vasodilation!  So decreased renal perfusion and dehydration/hypovolemia
    • sedation/pain control without emesis (opioids, supplement with O2), quick induction to prevent aspiration, low MAC or TIVA to minimize vasodilation
    • optimize pre-surgery
  66. TIVA
    method of inducing and maintaining general anesthesia exclusively by intravenously administered drugs
  67. pros/cons of TIVA
    • pros: superior recovery profile, portable delivery system, less OR pollution
    • cons: expensive, best drugs/delivery systems not always available, no reliable technique for monitoring plasma concentration
  68. TIVA that produces all components of anesthesia in therapeutic dose
    there isn't one
  69. target controlled infusion
    new method of TIVA administration, aims for a target blood concentration - does the math for you, starts with higher dose and titrates down.  Doesn't MEASURE, just based on math.
  70. drugs for TIVA
    • propofol (NO repeated 3 days in cats or heinz body anemia, maybe motor activity in dogs?)
    • fentanyl
    • dexmedetomidine
    • detomidine-guaiphenein-ketamine
  71. T/F: Propofol (unless it’s Propoflo 28TM) must be discarded six hours after the bottle is opened because it supports bacterial growth.
    true
  72. What is propofol’s mechanism of action?
    Decreases rate of dissociation of GABA from GABA-A receptors
  73. Name two reasons why propofol has a short duration of action
    Rapid redistribution to other tissues like fat and rapid metabolism (liver, lungs)
  74. What are the CNS effects of propofol
    Decreases cerebral metabolic rate for O2, cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure
  75. What are the CV effects of propofol
    Decreased myocardial contractility and vasodilation = hypotension, blunts baroreceptor reflex
  76. T/F: Propofol stimulates ventilation
    true
  77. what effect does propofol have on intraocular pressure
    decrease
  78. Propofol can cause which hematological condition if given repeatedly over days?
    Oxidative injury to RBC = Heinz body anemia
  79. The dissociative anesthetics are antagonists at the _________ receptor but appear to have other effects too
    NMDA
  80. T/F: The dissociative anesthetics produce intense analgesia, and ketamine is used as a CRI for pain
    True - ketamine
  81. What is special about ketamine in the cat
    Excreted unchanged by kidneys mostly
  82. What are the CNS effects of the dissociative anesthetics
    Seizures, increased cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure, emergence delirium/hallucinations
  83. What are the CV effects of dissociative anesthetics
    Indirect CV stimulation, direct myocardial depression
  84. What are the respiratory effects of the dissociative anesthetics
    Don't depress ventilation as much as protocol, bronchodilator, pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes maintained
  85. what is the MOA of etomidate
    Enhances affinity of GABA for GABA-A (no analgesic)
  86. Enhances affinity of GABA for GABA-A (no analgesic)
    Hydrolysis by hepatic microsomes like enzymes and plasma set erases, excreted in urine and bile
  87. Main clinical use of etomidate
    • IV induction of general anesthesia
    • especially good for CV patients (also renal, hepatic, hypovolemic)
  88. T/F: Etomidate can cause hemolysis because it is dissolved in propylene glycol
    True
  89. What is the major endocrine side effect of etomidate
    Adrenocortical suppression
  90. Which induction agent is classified as a neurosteroid?
    Alfaxalone
  91. What is the MOA of alfaxalone?
    Enhances GABA-mediated neurodepression (like propofol, etomidate, etc)
  92. How is alfaxalone metabolized and excreted?
    Hepatic glucuronidation, then kidney
  93. T/F: Cats metabolize alfaxalone faster than dogs
    False, slower
  94. T/F: alfaxalone causes dose-dependent cardiorespiratory depression
    true
  95. What is the MOA of barbiturates
    Decrease dissociation of GABA and open Cl- channel.  No analgesic
  96. T/F: barbiturates increase intracranial pressure
    False, decrease
  97. Name the CV and resp effects of barbiturates
    • CV: vasodilation, myocardial depression, arrhythmias
    • Resp: dose-dependent depression
  98. What happens if a barbiturate is accidentally administered outside the vein
    Tissue sloughing
  99. Advantages and disadvantages of inhalant inductions
    • Minimally metabolized so decrease liver burden, don't have to inject
    • no rapid control of airway, stressful, excitement phase if not premed, can vomit/regurgitate and we don't have airway control
  100. in which patients are opioid inductions most commonly performed
    Moribund (extreme CV stability)
  101. Is fasting always necessary in small mammals that don't vomit?
    no, possibly a short fast for a GI surgery, etc.  Fasting could be detrimental in some species (rabbits, guinea pigs)
  102. T/F: Fasting can actually be detrimental to the GI tract in some species
    true - rabbits, guinea pigs
  103. T/F: Fasting can lead to dehydration and hypoglycemia in many small mammals
    true
  104. T/F: Fasting has no negative consequences in pregnant animals
    FALSE, dehydration and hypoglycemia
  105. T/F: some species hide food in their cheek pouches, making fasting challenging and possibly leading to aspiration
    true
  106. T/F: in species that practice coprophagy, removing their food may not completely empty their stomach
    true
  107. Name 2-3 methods of restraint for ferrets, rabbits, rodents
    • ferrets: scruffing, wrapping in towel, muzzle
    • rabbits: scruffing, wrapping in towel, restrain pelvic limbs to prevent vertebral column fracture
    • rodents: scruffing, cupping in hands, tapered plastic film tubes with breathing hole, purpose-build restrainers
  108. T/F: the vena cava can be used to collect blood in ferrets
    true, cranial vena cava
  109. name two sites on the head where blood can be collected in mice and rats
    superficial temporal vein and retroorbital venous plexus
  110. Rabbits have circulating __________ in plasma that cause atropine to have unpredictable effects on heart rate
    atropinases
  111. Most small mammals require _________ systems for delivery of oxygen and inhalant because dead space is too high in the circle/rebreathing systems
    nonrebreathing
  112. Name the features of the rabbit upper airway that make intubation challenging (4)
    • epiglottis dorsal to soft palate
    • mouth doesn't open widely
    • larynx caudal and ventral to angle of mandible
    • butterfly-shaped epiglottis
  113. Name the various methods of rabbit intubation (5)
    • blind while listening for airflow and looking for condensation
    • blind with capnograph
    • visual with or without guide tube
    • retrograde
    • nasotracheal
  114. The _________ of guinea pigs and chinchillas connects the oropharynx to the pharynx and is highly vascular, making it prone to trauma and hemorrhage during intubation
    palatal ostium (fusion of soft palate to base of tongue)
  115. Name two ways to intubate mice and rats
    • otoscope and guide tube
    • fiberoptic endoscope
  116. The _________ is a supraglottic airway device made for rabbits
    V-gel (laryngeal cup)
  117. A sustained-release preparation of which opioid is commonly used in small mammals?
    buprenorphine
  118. __________ staining in rats could be a sign of pain
    porphyrin
  119. ID as many signs of pain in animals as possible
    • reduced activity
    • altered posture or gait
    • arched back, short stride
    • decreased urination and defecation
    • hide in corners
    • reduced grooming
    • porphyrin staining
    • change in temperment
    • vocalizations
    • reduced eating/drinking and weight loss/dehydration
    • increase in HR, change in RR, shock
  120. Name 2-3 challenges of anesthetizing zoo, wild, exotic patients
    • may have no history, PE, diagnostics
    • few protocols for many species
    • stressful induction
    • environmental hazards
    • difficult to provide supportive care and monitoring
    • limited knowledge of physiology and pharmacology
  121. Name 2-3 risks to human safety associated with zoo/wildlife/exotics
    • physical trauma
    • zoonotic disease
    • danger from other animals in area/herd
    • immobilization drugs
    • capture technique (helicopters)
    • environmental hazards
  122. What are some ways veterinarians can prevent human injury or treat it if it occurs?
    • communicate
    • understand the target species
    • be familiar with your environment
    • know location of emergency medical services
    • wear PPE
    • handle drugs carefully and with a buddy
    • have antagonists available
    • only experienced people should handle delivery equipment
  123. Name some factors to consider when selecting the free-ranging wild animal immobilization environment
    • time of year and day
    • weather/climate
    • terrain
    • equipment
    • capture technique (physical, chemical, both)
    • target vs non-target animals
  124. Name some of the qualities of an ideal immobilization drug/drug combination
    • rapid onset
    • high margin of safety
    • handler safety
    • small volume
    • produces hypnosis
    • reversibility
    • versatility
    • stability
  125. a body temperature greater than _________ degrees celcius is generally considered dangerous in immobilized wildlife
    41 (=105.8F)
  126. What are some ways to prevent and treat hyperthermia in immobilized wildlife?
    • avoid capture in hot ambient temps, avoid stress or prolonged pursuit, minimize physical restraint, protect from sun
    • aggressive cooling, pharmacological antagonism, oxygen supplementation
  127. How is rumen tympany/"bloat" treated in immobilized wild ruminants
    • position in sternal recumbancy with neck extended or elevate cranial end of body
    • pass orogastric tube
    • trocarize (sterile!)
    • pharmacological antagonism
  128. Capture myopathy is similar to _________ in humans
    exertional rhabdomyolysis
  129. Capture myopathy is most common in what type of wild patient?
    ungulates
  130. Capture myopathy is thought to be due to massive discharge of the _______
    sympathetic nervous system
  131. T/F: there are four recognized forms of capture myopathy
    true
Author
XQWCat
ID
330329
Card Set
Anesthesia 2
Description
Anesthesia exam 2
Updated