Hazmat tech exam prep

  1. When dealing with an unknown gas incident, the hazardous material/AMD technician must be alert for ______ and ______ hazards.
    D. flammability, toxicity
  2. Glass or plastic bottles that may be encased in outer packaging used to transport solids or liquids best describes
    carbiys
  3. Radioactive packaging, known as industrial packaging, contains large amounts of
    Low-level radioactive material
  4. Pyrophoric materials ignite when they
    contact air
  5. ________ are used to determine the presence and approximate concentration of specific gases and vapors that might be present I. the atmosphere
    Colorimetric tubes
  6. Given a break in a domestic gas line creating an open-air release of a flammable substance, the area of evacuation should start with the establishment of a hot zone. This area should be based on ______ of the LEL indicated on a combustible gas indicator.
    10 percent
  7. The time it takes for half of the atoms to decay to a more stable for is called
    Half-life
  8. A term used to describe the potency of a solution is
    strength
  9. A railroad tank car has been involved in an accident and has sustained damage by a blunt object to the side, resulting in reduction in the thickness of the container's shell. This damage is typical of a
    score
  10. In a railroad tank car, all of the following statement about gauges that damage a container are true except.
    • A. A gouge is a reduction in the thickness of the container
    • B. A gouge is an indentation in the shell of the container
    • (C.) A gouge is made by a dull, blunt object coming into contact with the container
  11. The minimum concentration of a chemical in the gaseous state that when inhaled will be fatal to 50 percent of the population is
    LC50
  12. Of the following, _______ rays are the most dangerous type of radiation
    gamma
  13. A hazardous material response team's decision to control the hazardous material problem should be based on
    Level of training, available resources, and capabilities of emergency responders
  14. Which of the following events may require the incident commander to select a non-intervention mode of operation due to life safety concerns
    A prolonged direct flame impingement on a pressure vessel (intending BLEVE)
  15. A self-contained breathing apparatus and a supplied air respirator are two types of
    Atmosphere-supplied device
  16. _______ is a form of dry decon and does not involve the use of any water
    Isolation and disposal
  17. Another technique for reducing or controlling pressure and/or disposing of the contents is called
    flaring
  18. During a hazardous materials/AMD incident involving flammable-liquid fires of bulk containers, the most important requirement for extinguishment or control is
    A continuous water supply
  19. Prior to entry into a confine space, defensive actions taken should include
    diking or remote closing a valve
  20. At a la4ge incident, the ______ directs the management of operations relating to the hot zone
    Hazardous materials branch director/group supervisor
  21. Which of the following functions at a hazardous materials emergency is served by the Operations section
    Coordinating and controlling all on-scene tactical functions
  22. The most likely location for the incident command post is in the _______ zone.
    cold
  23. In a large incident, the hazardous materials team would fall under the control of the ____ section of the Incident command System
    Operations
  24. Hazardous material teams should have procedures t address all of the following vapor suit emergencies, except
    Suit contact with product
  25. Compressed flammable gases can be transfers from damaged containers by using
    Vapor compressors
  26. Two possible methods of translating when the involved material is a liquefied compressed gas include
    Liquefied gas pump nada vapor compressor
  27. Prior to installing a patch on a leaking small container, you should
    • A. don the proper SCBA
    • B. select a patch size a half a larger than the opening
    • C. check material compatibility with the leaking product
    • (D.) All Of The Above
  28. Decisions regarding the ability to patch a leaking small container of hazardous materials will depend on
    • A. the condition of the container
    • B. the position of the container
    • C. the risk to response personnel
    • (D.) All Of The Above
  29. A _____ may be used on one-ton containers of chlorine gas
    Chlorine B Kit
  30. All of the following are hazardous characteristics of a confined space, except
    Lower than normal oxygen levels
  31. The best way to control a leak fem a dome cover on a 306/406 tank is
    Applying a dome clamp
  32. Proper termination activities include debriefing and
    critiquing
  33. The _____ should focus on the key elements of command, control, tactical operations, resources, and support services
    Post-incident analysis
  34. The part of the incident termination procedure that estlishes a clear picture of the emergency response for further study is known as the
    Post-incident analysis
  35. An activity log and exposure records are kept as a result of a hazardous materials/AMD response. These records assist responders and employers to
    establish a link between a responder's activities and their exposures
  36. Records produced as a result of a debriefing best serve the purpose of documenting
    • A. the equipment and apparatus exposure review
    • B. the discussion of health information
    • C. problems requiring immediate action
    • (D) All Of Above
  37. Exposure records are important, as the time intervals between exposures and the appearance of possible chronic effects may take years. OSHA requires exposure records and medical records to be maintained for at least ______ years after the employee retires
    30
  38. In most situations, decontamination personnel should be in personal protective clothing that is
    The same level of protection or one level of protection below the people working in the hot zone
  39. The product that IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are
    Flammable liquids
  40. _______ are chemicals that cause blisters
    vescants
  41. The minimum temperature required to ignite a gas or vapor without a soark
    The ignition temperature
  42. Which of the following exposure values could be repeated during and eight-hour work day at maximum of four times daily for 15 minutes with a 60-minute rest period between exposure
    TLV-STEL
  43. A one percent concentration in air is equal to how many parts per billion (PPB)
    10,000,000 PPB
  44. The process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment best describes
    penetration
  45. when using air purifying respirators, which of the following is not an operational component that should be consider prior to use
    The supplied air line cannot exceed 300 feet
  46. _____ is a process that encapsulates a contaminant or chemically bonds a contaminant t another object
    solidification
  47. Physical methods of decontamination generally involve physically removing the contaminate from the contaminated person or object. Which of the following is not considered a physical method of decontamination
    neutralization
  48. The physical process of immediately reducing contamination of individuals in potentially life-threatening situations, without formal establishment of a contaminating reduction area, best describes
    Emergency decontamination
  49. ______ is the process of destroying all microorganisms in or on an object
    Sterilization
  50. The eight step process recommended for assessing a hazardous material incident includes
    • A. hazard and risk evaluation
    • B. implementing response objectives
  51. Monitoring for flammable atmosphere can best be accomplished by using a/an
    Combustible gas meter
  52. The tank illustrated below typically carriers.
    • (maximum allowable working pressure is 100 psig)
    • Liquefied materials
  53. When dealing with an unknown gas incident, the hazardous materials/AMD technician must be alert for ______ and ______ hazards
    Flammability,toxicity
  54. In a railroad tank car, ____ is a deformation caused by the impact of a blunt object to the tank head or shell
    dent
  55. IBC are known as
    Intermediate bulk containers
  56. Monitoring devices designed to measure the concentration of specific identified gases and vapors in the atmosphere are
    Colorimetric tubes
  57. The lowest temperature at which a liquid's vapor or solid's vapor can ignite with an ignition source and not continue to burn is called the
    Flash point
  58. Which of the following is an irritant
    mace
  59. ______ is the concentration or amount of a hazardous substance to which the body is exposed over a period of time
    dose
  60. The main purpose for monitoring and detection equipment is
    Identifying and verifying
  61. If a container is unable to adapt to applied stress, it will breach. An opening commonly associated with a BLEVE is called
    Runaway cracking
  62. A ____ is a release that is the result of broken or damaged valve. It may last from several seconds to several minutes, depending on the size of the opening, type of container, and nature of contents
    Rapid relief
  63. Chemical permeation rates are a result of
    Temperature, thickness, previous exposures, and chemical combinations
  64. It is recommended tat a/an _____ include information such as site information, analysis od site hazards, risk analysis, PPE and a work plan
    Site safety plan
  65. Order to reduce excessive pressure build-up in  hazardous materials/AMD incidents involving pressurized tanks with impinging. fire, you should
    Apply copious amounts of water
  66. During a confined space rescue operation at a hazardous materials/AMD incident, consideration must be given to
    Limited acces
  67. When gathering evidence samples at a hazardous materials/AMD incident involving a chemical agent, all equipment shall be
    Certified clean
  68. Person who provides specific expertise in product and/or containers is the
    Technical information specialist
  69. a chemically impaired person might not be able to recognize his/her own signs and symptoms \. they may be able to continue to work in this impaired condition. This is one reason that _____ is used
    • A. buddy system
    • B. medical monitoring
  70. Which of the following fun tons at a hazardous materials incident is served by the Logistics section
    Acquiring adequate numbers of personnel and equipment for the response
  71. At a large incident, the _____ directs the management of operations
    Hazardous materials branch director/group supervisor
  72. When selecting a proper patching device, choose one that is compatible with material you are attempting to control, and ensure it is a minimum of _____ times larger than the estimated opening
    1.5
  73. The ____ should focus upon the key elements of command, control, tactical operations, resources, and support services
    Post-incident analysis
  74. The part of the incident termination procedure that establishes a clear picture of the emergency response for further study is known as the
    Post-incident analysis
  75. Exposure records should be part of the
    Medical surveillance program
  76. Records produced as a result of a debriefing best serve the purpose of documenting
    • A. the equipment and apparatus exposure review
    • B. the discussion of health information
    • C. problems requiring immediate action
    • (D) All Of The Above
Author
jpjones36
ID
328005
Card Set
Hazmat tech exam prep
Description
Hazmat tech exam study guide
Updated