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How does IMDS enhance and increase the readiness and sustainability of the missile weapon system?
By improving the availability, accuracy, and flow of essential maintenance, operational, and supply information
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How is IMDS an “event-oriented” system?
Data is usually entered to update the database as a result of an activity that occurred in the maintenance environment.
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Which IMDS subsystem provides the user a method for reporting inventory gains and losses?
ATERS
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What system does the status and inventory IMDS subsystem report to and how often does it report?
It reports to REMIS on an hourly basis.
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Using which interface, can IMDS users make numerous supply system inquiries?
IMDS/ SBSS interface
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What office will serve as the first evaluator for any proposed changes or additional capabilities to IMDS?
Maintenance data contracting office.
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What IMDS subsystem enables MMOC controllers to display, enter, and modify discrepancies as the maintenance teams discover new or changed discrepancies?
The JDD/debrief/maintenance supply subsystem.
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What section inputs actual job times and completion remarks of all scheduled work that MMOC updates in IMDS?
Briefing/debriefing
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What does materiel control maintain to make parts research easier?
FUIL.
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10. What is the purpose of a supply document number?
Allows Materiel Control personnel to track the status of an order and update it in IMDS.
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What does PIC allow you to do?
The ability to identify and account for NWRM by serial number and know the condition and location at almost real time.
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What two criteria must an item first meet in order to be considered for NWRM classification?
Must be a component of a certified nuclear weapon system and must be owned and controlled by the Air Force.
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Why is the NWRM listing reviewed biennially?
To ensure only those items that need to be on the list are on the list and obsolete items are removed.
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Once a new NWRM listing has been generated, who approves or disapproves it?
HQ USAF.
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Once items are approved to be added to the NWRM listing what happens to them?
A physical inventory and inspection of those items must be conducted
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Why is an NWRM physical inventory conducted when key accountable personnel change?
To ensure all NWRM items are accounted for before the new accountable officer assumes responsibility
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How is an NWRM inventory conducted on components installed on an ICBM?
A records check is performed
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Why is a root cause analysis conducted when an NWRM discrepancy is identified?
To prevent recurrence or reveal a gap in a process that needs to be fixed.
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Which MAJCOM is responsible for providing maintenance assistance?
AFMC.
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A one-time authority to use a part that deviates from the TO is an example of what type of assistance?
Technical.
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What are the two types of assistance requests? What TO covers them?
ETAR and 107 request; 00-25-107.
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Which flight manages depot-level assistance requests?
Maintenance operations flight.
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Which type of request would be appropriate if the problem has an immediate impact on the mission?
Emergency telephone
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What is the purpose of the test order published by the 576th Flight Test Squadron?
Directs the test and outlines specific objectives.
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Why is a complete review conducted on all SELM-related technical orders 13 weeks prior to testing?
Ensures that if changes need to be made, they can work through the system and be implemented.
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What happens if a site fails an alert readiness test?
All malfunctions must be corrected and the test reaccomplished.
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Why are missile safing pins installed during the posturing phase?
To prevent arming the missile ordnance, activating the first stage battery, and ignition of the first stage.
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Why does the SELM control monitor route certain ordnance signals to resistive loads?
To ensure the site is properly configured and has all the required equipment removed or installed.
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What is the purpose of the last look inspection?
To ensure the site is properly configured and has all the required equipment removed or installed.
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How are SELM tests divided and how are they conducted?
They are divided into an airborne and ground test phase. 50 percent are tested on the first day by the ALCS; the rest are tested on the second day by the parent LCC.
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How many LFs and MAFs are tested annually at the wings?
7 LFs and 2 MAFs.
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Who is responsible for the JSIIDS?
Contractor
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What actions are taken for the LEP, LCP, and SDU?
They are zeroized or removed and returned to base.
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How many LFs will EMT have to install isolators at during LCC HSEP testing?
10.
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What action completely isolates a test site?
Severing the HICs.
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What is the purpose of the isolators that are installed in the I-box?
To prevent input line lost signals from reporting (GMR 24).
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What does the final configuration of the HIC at the LF enable?
The test LF to remain isolated, yet the missile away continuity loop and pressure alarm loop will be maintained, and the joint services interior intrusion detection system JSIIDS can be connected.
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What types of weapons are assessed during a WSEP test?
Conventional cruise and gravity-based weapons.
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What are the three COIs of a NucWSEP?
COI 1 ? Accuracy; COI 2 ? Reliability; COI 3 ? Weapon inadequacies/deficiencies.
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Who is responsible for uploading the necessary telemetry systems on the munitions?
The evaluation unit instrumentation shop.
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How is message decimation to the entire squadron achieved?
By having each receiving facility retransmitting the message.
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How long does a round robin last?
40 seconds.
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What status display category would an IZ violation fall under?
Security.
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Why would a LCC take over another LCC’s timeslot?
The LCC failed to transmit OSIs for a period of 240 seconds resulting in an LCC down condition.
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What does the Minuteman cable communications system use for squadron monitoring and launch control functions?
A digital diphase signal of 1,300 bits per second.
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A sync consists of what?
A single cycle of 433⅓ Hz symmetrical square wave.
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When is ALCC entry permitted?
The ALCC hold-off timer has expired, in a 240-second period, the LF has not received a valid OSI, and the LF has a SDU alarm and has not received a valid clear text OSI for 330 seconds. ALCC access may be induced manually by having all LCCs delete all time slots for a period exceeding 240 seconds or by initiating a short ALCC hold-off command and the following ALCC hold-off timer to expire.
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During an operational test of the UHF radio receiver, what is the only LF response, if ALCC access is not permitted?
An operational status indication that radio data were present at the transfer link.
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What does a PLC-A do?
Used to configure the missile squadron to a common execution plan.
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What does the system use to generate the six random alphabetic characters used in the ENC command?
The 32-bit cooperative enable counter, the SDU secondary keying variable, and the unlock code.
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What command is used to terminate the enabled mode or the launch commanded mode?
Inhibit command.
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In what message form is an overwrite commands issued to a LF?
Encrypted.
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When is an IMU performance data halt command transmitted?
It is transmitted in the first half of the time slot.
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How are interrogations generated?
They are generated by the system automatically or selected to be run manually.
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After a MOSI is initiated, when does the PG at the LF transfer the message to the DCU?
Upon recognition of the response identifier bit.
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When does the DCU send a RSI?
In response to an out-of-crypto synchronization.
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What test checks certain LF electronic ground equipment not automatically checked during normal operation?
Sensitive command network test.
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Once a missile test command is received, how long will the DCU inhibit future missile tests to prevent overheating of the nozzle control unit?
30 minutes.
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How many sums of the DCU memory are computed during a computer memory verification check?
Five.
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What mode must all RDC transmissions must be in?
Encrypted.
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How many LCCs are normally required to initiate an RDCT?
The transmission of RDCT normally requires two LCCs.
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What will cause an LF to begin calculating a checksum of the transferred data?
Sending a RDT command.
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Where does the LDB panel in the LER get its power from?
The LDA panel in the support building.
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What type of power is generated by the DEU during a commercial power failure?
120/208 VAC, 3Ø, 60 Hz power.
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Where does AC input power for the motor generator and battery charger/alarm set group come from?
LDB panel.
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What is the purpose of the battery charger portion of the battery charger/alarm set group?
Provide charging current to the storage battery set in the lower LER.
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Why do OGE components in the LER use a 400-Hz power instead of the normal 60-Hz power?
It is a cleaner power source and does not require as much filtering.
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How does the motor-generator ensure an interrupted source of power for critical loads in the LER?
When AC primary power fails, the AC motor stops and the brush-lifting solenoid deenergizes. With the brushes on the commutator of the DC motor, the DC motor now drives the generator.
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What is the difference between the safety control switch in the armed position and the safe position?
When in the armed position, it is connected to the ordnance devices of the missile. In the safe position, it is connected the ordnances to test loads.
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What topside power functions does the LCEB DEU at wings 3 and 5 support?
None, the LCEB DEU at wings 3 and 5 only provides power to the LCEB and LCC.
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How does the motor-generator start pushbutton switch keep the MPP from disconnecting commercial power during motor-generator startup?
Interrupts the commercial power disconnect circuit.
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What are the critical loads powered in the LCC power system?
The REACT console and all of the communication equipment required to launch the missile.
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What is the main difference between the motor-generator at the LF and MAF?
The MAF motor-generator also contains a 60-Hz generator.
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What is a MAF designated at wings 3 and 5 if it has 12 storage batteries?
Alternate command post or squadron command post.
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What is the purpose of the 48-amp and 12-amp power supply in the power supply group?
Converts the 400-Hz motor-generator output to 28 VDC.
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What is the purpose of the PCDU?
Receives and distributes all incoming power into the REACT console.
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What components does the MGS work with to initiate, guide, and conclude missile flight and payload deployment?
The OGP/OFP, flight controls, and RS/RV hardware.
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When the missile is on alert, what reports does the MGS send to the LCC?
Status and faults.
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What component in the MGS acts as a single electrical ground point for the missile?
PDU.
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Which battery in the MGS provides the majority of the power after launch?
Flight battery.
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What MGS component sends electrical signals and power to the GSP?
MGSC.
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What MGS component provides a reference for missile guidance and navigation?
GSP.
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What action must a technician perform to energize the J4, J5 and J6 three-prong receptacles?
Press the POWER ON and OFF switch on the power control panel.
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What indications will occur if the MGSTS senses an excessive power condition?
Indicator will illuminate and an aural alarm will sound.
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What are the two purposes of the programmable DC power supply?
Provides simulated resistive loads during self-test and provides the required DC power for the MGS during certification.
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In which partition is the majority of the MGSTS programs stored in the HDD?
Secure data media.
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Which of the CTA modules provides the voltage to control activation of the MGS and SRAM test load relays?
Direct memory access/umbilical/simulator self-test module.
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Which MGSTS test-point panel component does the operator use to test the overcurrent limits of the power module?
Switches.
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When will the MGSTS self-test program allow progress to the next self-test module?
When the module being tested passes.
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How is the output of the PSU verified during the MGSTS MGS power supply test?
Manually measuring its output voltage and current at the test-point panel.
-
What checks are performed during the MGSTS MGS power safing test?
PSU overvoltage and overcurrent limit checks.
-
What indication is displayed if the absolute value exceeds the overvoltage tolerance?
A failure message is displayed in the MGSTS session log window.
-
During initial power-on checks, how is the power removed in an out-of-tolerance condition?
Internal circuits will automatically shut it down and pressing the EMERGENCY OFF switch on the power control panel.
-
During the ROM verification test, how is the data contained in the MCG ROM checked?
Comparing the MCG ROM to the MGC Master ROM data contained in the SDM.
-
The MGS battery test places the SRAM battery in what mode?
Shipping and storage mode.
-
What is the last test accomplished during the certification procedures before a MGS is ready for installation in the field?
Post-certification self-test.
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How will the MGSTS respond if the technician selects the MGS certification option prior to running a self-test?
Prompts the technician to accomplish a self-test.
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If the post-certification self-test passed and a new MGS is to be certified, will another self-test be required if power was not removed from the MGSTS?
No.
-
The GMATS was designed for what purpose?
To provide testing and troubleshooting of components used in support of the Minuteman weapon system.
-
What component allows for the transfer of operating power and stimuli between the UUT and the test station?
ITA.
-
What is the function of the system controller?
It contains the preprogrammed instructions for running the tests to determine if a UUT is functional or defective.
-
Where in the test station is the printer located?
On the computer cart.
-
When can the bar-code reader be used to read information from the UUT?
When the bar-code label is attached to the UUT. Not all UUTs have bar codes provided.
-
How long will the UPS provide power to the system controller during the power outage?
Five minutes.
-
What prevents the Atlas V liquid oxygen propellant tank from being filled to 100 percent capacity?
Liquid oxygen’s expansion and contraction properties.
-
What provides a means to handle and transport the Atlas V CCB?
The aft transition structure.
-
After the Atlas V’s CCB RD-180 engine starts up, what does it use to continue to operate?
RP-1 fuel from the main propellant tank, provided by the engine’s fuel pump.
-
Why must the Atlas V centaur upper stage’s propellant tanks be pressurized, even when empty?
To maintain structural integrity, since their skin is thin compared to their weight.
-
What is the purpose of the charge segments and booster assemblies of the Atlas V centaur upper stage’s interstage adapter?
Keep the CCB from striking the centaur upper stage during separation.
-
What is the purpose of the boat tail in the Atlas V 400-series payload fairing?
Adapts the diameter of the PLF to the diameter of the centaur.
-
What is the purpose of the CFLR in the Atlas V 500-series PLF?
Keeps the top of the centaur and payload centered in the PLF and increases the PLF’s structural strength.
-
In addition to a core CBC, what does the Delta IV Heavy use to provide liftoff?
Two additional CBCs.
-
What is the purpose of the booster rocket separation motor on the Delta IV CBC?
Propel the CBCs away from the launch vehicle during separation.
-
How is roll control provided during a Delta IV’s main engine burn when only one CBC is used?
By vectoring the turbine exhaust gases.
-
What does the ACS provide for the Delta IV second stage?
Roll control during main engine burn and pitch, yaw, and roll control during coast periods.
-
What are the two configurations of Delta IV payload fairings?
A bisector or tri-sector fairing.
-
What is an advantage of using solar power as an electrical source?
It requires no additional energy source, such as chemicals or nuclear reaction, for power production.
-
What are two disadvantages of using solar power?
Their low power generation capacity and the solar panel orientation with respect to the sun.
-
When does a secondary battery release its power?
When the satellite moves into the shadow of the earth, moon, or other planets.
-
What missions would be better suited for nuclear powered spacecraft?
Long missions with increased power requirements or those long distances from the sun.
-
What is the challenge of a spacecraft’s thermal control subsystem?
Providing the proper heat transfer between all spacecraft elements so that the temperature-sensitive components remain within their specific temperature limits during all mission environmental conditions.
-
What are heat sinks used for in a spacecraft’s thermal control system?
Conduct heat away from or to components whose temperature is to be controlled.
-
What kind of constraints is there when using phase changing materials as a passive thermal control?
They must be contained with leak proof compartments and they cannot prevent further temperature increase when all of the material has melted.
-
What two things could cause an electric heater to operate on a spacecraft?
When temperatures fall below a predetermined level or with radio command from the satellite ground support/control facility.
-
Why is liquid propellant used on a majority of satellites?
Because it allows satellite controllers to precisely control the satellite’s thrust and can fire them multiple times.
-
What is attitude?
The orientation of a spacecraft’s X, Y, and Z coordinate axes with respect to a known point.
-
What kind of things causes irregular motion of a satellite, making station keeping difficult?
Atmospheric drag, gravity, and solar winds.
-
What data would be considered primary payload data?
Meteorological, oceanographic, astronomical, and Earth resources.
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