volume 1 cdcs

  1. What IMDS subsystem allows users to document, inquire, and produce records of maintenance actions?
    job data documentation/ debrief/ maintenance supply
  2. In the "operational events" IMDS subsystem, what phase is the period of time from stat to stop of an operational event?
    2 (mission accomplishment)
  3. What section is the advisory agency for all IMDS functional areas in maintenance?
    Maintenance Data section
  4. What work center uses the IMDS to track in-progress work orders and record the work that has been completed?
    MMOC
  5. What task does the material control section preform in IMDS that ensures accountability of all ordered parts and aids in resource management?
    Issue/ Recovery
  6. Which IMDS screen allows work center supervisors to create and schedule work orders?
    Scheduled Maintenance
  7. Which number is used to track NWRM under positive inventory control?
    Serial number
  8. How is an item signed out on an AF Form 1297 accounted for during a semi-annual NWRM inventory?
    It must be physically Verified
  9. What NWRM discrepancy would require elevation to the Air Force Chief of Staff?
    Physical loss of an NWRM item
  10. Maintenance assistance is provided by Air Force Material Command in organizational and intermediate level maintenance, _____, and _____?
    Technical Assistance, and unprogrammed depot level maintenance.
  11. technical assistance may be provided to the units by air force material command engineers for __________
    a one time TO waiver to use a specific part that might have a defect beyond TO limits
  12. what specific depot level assistance request is used for situations where standard procedures may need to be deviated from?
    Technical Depot level
  13. what test checks most functions that would prevent a launch prior to SELM test posturing?
    alert readiness test
  14. what task would be preformed during SELM posturing?
    Removing the RS if ordnances will be fired
  15. once all SELM posturing tasks are complete, QA must again verify proper configuration prior to _______?
    starting up the MGS
  16. During SELM test, command signals will come from a ________?
    LCC or ALCS
  17. what will the joint service interior intrusion detection system (JSIIDS) monitor at a HSEP test LCC?
    Power loss and intrusion
  18. which critical LCC component will be controlled by a two person qualified qualified contractor team during HSEP testing?
    coder- decoder assembly (CDA)
  19. the purpose of the isolators installed during LCC HSEP testing is to ______?
    prevent a G24 from being masked
  20. during LF HSEP testing which other sites will need to have their command lines isolated?
    the adjacent LFs and parent LCC only
  21. the primary objective of the weapon system evaluation program is to______?
    evaluate the effectiveness of operational air to ground weapon systems
  22. which program evaluates nuclear tasked cruise missile weapon systems
    combat sledgehammer
  23. Critical operational issue 2 (COI2) of the nuclear weapon system evaluation program encompasses ______?
    reliability
  24. when discussing command and control, what type of received status would classify as a fault?
    GMR
  25. when discussing command and control, what is a characteristic associated with automatic flight take over?
    the WSP takes over after 32 seconds
  26. a cable message preamble will contain how many bits?
    56
  27. to ensure the same type of response messages are not continually transmitted, what LF component determines the priority of responses?
    DCU
  28. which command selects new execution plan data for individual missiles?
    predatory launch command - B (PLC B)
  29. what two modes are terminated using an inhibit launch command?
    enabled and launch commanded
  30. what will happen if the ALCC hold off timer is allowed to run out?
    the LF will report RAMO in the operation status response (OSR)
  31. what component at the LF recognizes an OSI and transfers it to the DCU?
    programer group
  32. which response will report during the next OSI when the programmer group sets a ground maintenance interrogation received bit as TRUE in its fault memory?
    GMR will report
  33. what test checks certain LF electronic ground equipment that is not automatically checked during normal operation?
    Sensitive command network test (SCNT)
  34. a missile test command checks certain MGS and LF ground equipment functions which______?
    do not get checked during other modes of operation
  35. what type of command is issued to refine targeting accuracy?
    calibration
  36. how many computer memory verification check numbers provide a check of the execution plan data?
    5
  37. what status are the two LCCs in when the preform a remote data change target (RDCT)
    active and monitor
  38. what condition will cause the WSP to initiate a remote data halt (RDH) command ?
    out of sync condition occurs
  39. the LSB LDA stands bus panel energizes what panel in the LER?
    LDB panel
  40. what item in the LF protects the electrical equipment from lightning surges?
    Power line protection assembly
  41. how is the LF MG kept from operating on the DC motor when primary power is available?
    primary power energizes the brush lifting solenoid
  42. what component contains relays that provide power switching capability to the missile downstage electronics, ordnance, and safe and arm motors?
    D box
  43. what is the main difference between the DEU at wing 1 and the one at the wings 3 and 5 MAFs
    wing one DEU provides power to the entire MAF
  44. during MG startup, depressing the MG start pushbutton switch on the wing 3 ASU prevents the _______?
    MPP from disconnecting commercial power
  45. when primary power fails at a MAF the DC motor of the MG operates the _______?
    400hz and 60hz generators
  46. the emergency storage batts in the LCC supply power to _______
    survival lights
  47. what component in the LCC power system converts the 400hz MG output to 28 VDC for use by the equipment in the LCC
    Power supply group
  48. which statement best describes the function of the MGS
    it is the primary element for missile guidance, nav, and control
  49. what is the function of the power distribution unit in the MGS
    it isolates loads between the MGS and flight controls through the use of a diode block
  50. which batt in the MGS ensures missile guidance computer data integrity during power loss
    SRAM batt
  51. which MGS component contains electronics and provides power to accelerometers, gyros, and torque motors?
    MGS control (MGSC)
  52. which item is used to accomplish the operational certification of the NS-50 MGS
    MGS test set (MGSTS)
  53. how does the MGSTS indicate that an excessive power condition exists?
    indicator lamp and aural alarm
  54. the virtual control processor simulates what MGS components during self test of the MGSTS?
    missile guidance computer and SRAM
  55. during the MGSTS SRAM battery test, the output of the power module is loaded by what?
    Toggle switches
  56. the MGSTS SRAM battery power saving test verifies proper operation of the ______?
    Limit detectors
  57. what test must be accomplished after completion of a MGS cert?
    MGSTS self test
  58. how many equipment bays or racks does the ground Minuteman automated test station have (GMATS)?
    4
  59. which component is not one of the functional groups of the electronic equipment test station?
    Interface test adapters
  60. the computer group is made up of the ______?
    Printer, system controller, and Bar code reader
  61. which component contains the pre-programmed instructions for testing a unit under test?
    system controller
  62. how many power supplies make up the power and switching group?
    11
  63. what is the purpose of the unit power controller 3 in the power switching group?
    controls the parameters of the AC power supply
  64. what is the purpose of the micro controller?
    prevents power from being sent through the interface carrier assembly when no interface test adapter is present
  65. what allows the instrumentation group to interface with the computer group?
    high speed parallel interface bus and three hewlett packard interface buses
  66. which component of the test station preforms measurements within a specified sweep time?
    spectrum analyzer
  67. what are 3 functions of the universal counter?
    measuring the time interval and relative phase between two independent signals, preforming freq measurements of RF signals, and measuring the pulse width of a signal on one chanel
  68. what is the purpose of the mobile work surface
    contains a support structure on which to mount and provide cooling air to the UUT
  69. the atlas V common core booster has two propellant tanks containing _______
    rocket propellant 1 (RP-1) and liquid oxygen
  70. the atlas V common core boosters aft transition structure provides_________
    mounting for up to 5 solid rocket boosters
  71. when the atlas v centaur upper stages propellant tanks are empty they must be ______
    pressurized to maintain structural integrity
  72. what is a satellites structure designed to provide?
    strong, stable platform for payload instruments and subsystems
  73. thermal insulation is designed to _______
    reduce the rate of heat loss from a satellite
  74. what is used on a satellite to transport heat energy form internal equipment to a remote radiator surface
    chemical fluids such as ammonia
  75. the electric heaters on a satellite operate the _______
    radio commands are received from a satellite control facility
  76. why are liquid propellant systems used on a majority of satellites?
    satellite controllers can fire them multiple times
  77. controlling a satellites attitude is required to ensure_______
    instruments are pointing in the right direction
  78. satellite attitude and spin adjustments are provided by using________
    on board thrusters
Author
cameron35
ID
327596
Card Set
volume 1 cdcs
Description
cdc volume 1
Updated