AO 321 CH 6-10

  1. How is an M61A1/A2 automatic gun (1) driven and (2) controlled?
    (1) Hydraulically (2) electrically
  2. At what prescribed rate can an M61A1/A2 gun fire M50 series ammunition?
    4,000 to 6,000 rpm
  3. What components are the primary parts of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun?
    Barrels, rotor assembly, and housing assembly
  4. What means are used to secure the gun barrels to the stub rotor of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun?
    Interrupted locking lugs
  5. On an M61A1/A2 gun, what component picks up a round as it enters the gun?
    Breech-bolt assembly
  6. On an M61A1/A2 gun, a full firing cycle requires what prescribed number of actions?
    7
  7. What are the two distinct cycles of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun operation?
    Firing and clearing
  8. What component of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun ejects the empty case from the
    • gun?
    • The extractor lip
  9. On an M61A1/A2 automatic gun, what sequence of actions is performed by the
    • breech-bolt assembly during one full firing cycle?
    • Feed, chamber, lock and fire, unlock, extract, and eject
  10. A drum unit assembly consists of the drum unit and what other major parts?
    Entrance cover, scoop disk, and exit cover
  11. The mechanical drive unit in an F/A-18 aircraft has what total number of output shafts?
    1
  12. A gun gas purge system is used for what purpose?
    Cool the gun barrels and purge gas from the gun compartment
  13. The air required to operate the gun gas purge system in an F/A-18 aircraft is
    • provided by what air source?
    • Engine bleed air and the ram air scavenge door
  14. In an F/A-18 aircraft, the M61A1/A2 automatic gun system can be operated in what computer mode?
    A/A, A/G, or CCIP
  15. In an F/A-18 aircraft, what component is used to manually clear the M61A1/A2 automatic gun?
    Clearing section clamp
  16. An M61A1/A2 automatic gun must be sent to a depot-level maintenance activity under which of the following conditions?
    When major repair is required

    When an alteration is authorized

    When 120,000 rounds have been expended
  17. Which of the following gun maintenance procedures should be accomplished during scheduled maintenance?
    Lubrication

    Normal disassembly and parts replacement

    A functional check of the components based on the round interval
  18. Scheduled maintenance for an M61A1/A2 automatic gun handling and drive system should be performed after what maximum number of rounds has been
    • fired?
    • 30,000 rounds
  19. What is the rapid rate of fire for the GAU-21?
    950 to 1100 rounds per minute
  20. What is the maximum air-to-ground range of the GAU-21?
    6,500 meters
  21. How is the GAU-16 cooled after firing?
    By air
  22. What is the performance firing rate of the GAU-16?
    750 to 850 rounds per minute
  23. The GAU-17 major gun assemblies include the barrels and barrel clamp,
    • housing, rotor, and what assembly
    • Clutch
  24. What is the sustained firing rate of the M240D?
    100 rounds per minute
  25. What weapon can be easily removed from the helo and used for ground
    • defense if needed?
    • M240D
  26. A complete M50 service cartridge consists of what total number of components?
    5
  27. Which of the following cartridge cases is made of steel?
    M103A1
  28. All projectiles have essentially the same configuration with the exception of which
    • of the following projectiles?
    • HPT
  29. What is one way to identify the type of 20mm ammunition?
    The painted color on the projectile and the lettering on the body
  30. What is the PGU designation for the Semi-armor Piercing High Explosive Incendiary (SAPHEI) cartridge?
    PGU-28/B and PGU-28A/B
  31. What is the container that the M50/PGU series ammunition is normally packed in?
    M548
  32. Small arms ammunition’s intended use is in various types of mounted, hand-held,
    • or shoulder-fired weapons, _______ through _________caliber.
    • .22, .50
  33. What are ball cartridges used against?
    Personnel and unarmored targets
  34. What is the preferred .50 caliber cartridge that is used against combustible targets?
    Incendiary, M1
  35. What kind of configuration is the .50 caliber cartridge when used in the aircraft
    • machine gun?
    • Metallic link belts
  36. What cartridge is used in the GAU-17, M240, and M14 rifle for signaling,
    • incendiary, target designation, and range estimation?
    • NATO Tracer, M62
  37. The LALS A/E32K-7 consists of the ammunition loader, ammunition transfer
    • system, or what other component?
    • An ammunition replenisher
  38. What weapons handling equipment is used with the LALS when afloat?
    MHU-191
  39. What must be done to ensure that the ammunition loader is empty?
    One marked dummy round must be cycled completely through the storage container assembly, transfer unit assembly, and conveyor assembly.
  40. In what type of environment must transporter loading or downloading operations
    • be conducted?
    • RADHAZ-free
  41. To prevent explosive primers on gun ammunition from being exposed to static
    • electricity, what is one action that should be taken?
    • Make sure that the primer button of the ammunition doesn't come into contact with the human body.
  42. What tow target is used for air-to-air and surface-to-air gunnery or missile firing training exercises?
    TDU-32A/B
  43. The Navy currently uses which of the following powered targets?
    BQM-34S and BQM-74E
  44. A BQM-74E missile target can be launched from which of the following launching
    environments?

    An aircraft
  45. A shore installation
  46. A ship
  47. The BQM-74E target is controlled through normal flight maneuvers with the capability of performing 75-degree bank angle turns by what means?
    By fixed or portable integrated tracking and control system transponder
  48. There are a total of how many types of TALD vehicles?
    Three
  49. What does the TALD use to provide false imagery to defense acquisition
    • systems?
    • Chaff, electromagnetic, and radar signature augmentation
  50. What air-launched decoy has the product improvement that added turbojet propulsion, radar control, low-level flight, and GPS navigational capability?
    ITALD
  51. Target performance reports are to be completed immediately after the operation and submitted into the database within ______hours if the target is expended and _____ hours if the target was not expended
    24, 48
  52. Current expenditure/allocation information will be available as part of the target site on what database system?
    AWIS
  53. Target logbooks provide a history of maintenance, operation, and ___________
    • control of the target.
    • Configuration
  54. What is the purpose of the individual target performance report?
    To document target performance
  55. The ammunition handling equipment identified by Mk and Mod numbers is under the control of what command?
    NAVSEASYSCOM
  56. The ammunition handling equipment identified by ADU, ADK, and HLK is under the control of what command?
    NAVAIRSYSCOM
  57. The command that has control over a particular piece of ammunition handling equipment can be identified by what means?
    Item designation
  58. A standard four-way wood pallet has what maximum SWL?
    4,000 pounds
  59. What is the maximum SWL of the Mk 3 Mod 0 pallet?
    4,000 pounds
  60. A Mk 12 Mod 1 pallet is _____ long and _____ wide?
    45.5 inches, 35 inches
  61. A Mk 43 Mod 1 is used with what weapons carrier to lift Mk 82/BLU 111 bombs in
    • tandem?
    • Mk 49 Mod 1
  62. What is the maximum SWL of the Mk 49 Mod 1 weapons carrier?
    2,500 pounds
  63. A Mk 51 Mod 1 weapons carrier has what total number of lifting eyes?
    8
  64. How many interchangeable and interlocking 49-inch sections make up the A/F
    • 32K-1A bomb assembly stand?
    • Three
  65. What does the tray permit for the weapon during weapon assembly/disassembly?
    Permits a 360-degree rotation of the weapon
  66. To use an HLU-256/E manual hoisting bar in a tee configuration, you should perform what action?
    Relocate the nose plug to a position at the bar's midpoint
  67. What beam is used to lift harpoon missiles?
    Mk 37 Mod 1
  68. The Mk 85, 86, 87, Mod 1 and Mk 100 Mod 2 pallet slings can handle what range of load heights?
    16 to 70 inches
  69. When two leg assemblies are used with a Mk 105 hoisting sling, what is the rated
    • capacity?
    • 6,000 pounds
  70. The ratchet crank on an HLU-288/E bomb hoist is used for what purpose?
    To help hoist a load
  71. What is the double-point cable lift capacity of the HLU-196D/E?
    3,000 pounds
  72. Aero 12C bomb skid has what maximum SWL?
    1,250 pounds
  73. An Aero 12C bomb skid with an Aero 9C bomb skid adapter installed has what maximum SWL?
    1,000 pounds
  74. What is the maximum SWL of an Aero 64B soft-belt adapter?
    2,500 pounds
  75. What is the maximum SWL of an MHU-191/M munitions transporter?
    5,000 pounds
  76. Two pairs of ADU-483/E adapters have a maximum SWL of how many pounds?
    4,000 pounds
  77. What is the maximum SWL of an Aero 71A skid flatbed adapter?
    4,000 pounds
  78. Forklift trucks are powered by gasoline engines, diesel engines, and what other
    • source of power?
    • Electric motors
  79. An A/S 32K-1E weapons loader has what maximum SWL?
    4,500 pounds
  80. Bomb racks are used for which of the following purposes?
    To carry, release, and arm stores
  81. What is the acronym LEMA?
    Linear Electro-mechanical Actuator
  82. The power required to operate the secondary release assembly of a BRU-14/A bomb rack is provided by what source?
    A cartridge-actuated device
  83. What bomb rack can be installed in the weapon pylon of the H-60 aircraft?
    BRU-14/A
  84. A BRU-32A/A bomb ejector rack is used on which of the following types of aircraft?
    F/A-18
  85. A BRU-33/A bomb ejector rack is used to carry two external stores each weighing up to what maximum weight?
    1,000 pounds
  86. How many impulse cartridges are required to be installed in the ejection unit of a BRU-33 (series) bomb ejector rack to generate the required gas pressure for
    • rack operations?
    • Two
  87. The BRU-55 bomb ejector rack provides the interface from aircraft to rack and rack to weapons that allows the carriage of what weapons?
    Two JSOW or two 1,000 pound JDAM
  88. When the gas-generating cartridge is fired in an IMER/ITER ejector unit
    assembly, which of the following movements is part of the process of unlocking the suspension hooks?

    The aft movement of the breech
  89. The aft movement of the hook release rod
  90. The downward movement of the cranks
  91. During ejection, the weight of the store, plus gas pressure, forces the suspension hooks of an IMER/ITER ejector unit assembly to open. Which of the following
    • component(s) hold(s) the suspension hooks in the open position?
    • The hook toggle spring and the coil spring
  92. What maintenance level is responsible for maintaining both the hardware adapter kit and the practice bomb adapters used with an IMER/ITER?
    Organizational
  93. What is the maximum weight of the SUU-25F/A dispenser when it is loaded with eight aircraft parachute flares?
    490 pounds
  94. When the SUU-25F/A dispenser is fully loaded, it contains what maximum number of impulse cartridges?
    Eight
  95. The AN/ALE-39 dispensing system is capable of cartridge ejecting which of the
    following load configurations?

    Chaff
  96. Flares
  97. RF jammers
  98. What manual should be referenced when handling of impulse cartridges shall be
    • accomplished in accordance with the general HERO requirements?
    • NAVSEA OP 3565/NAVAIR 16-1-529
  99. For proper disposition, who must be notified in the event a decoy flare has visible damage or the device's pyrotechnic load is visible?
    Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD)
  100. The Navy Personnel Ammunition and Explosives Handling Qualification and Certification Program is governed by what instruction?
    OPNAVINST 8023.24
  101. Research has shown that the majority of explosive mishaps are caused by personnel error due to inadequate training, lack of adequate supervision, lack of or inadequate SOPs, and what other reasons?
    Complacency and failure to follow the governing technical directives
  102. All Navy personnel under the scope of the QUAL/CERT instruction, includes officers, enlisted, and what other personnel?
    Government employees
  103. Which of the following personnel work under the QUAL/CERT program?
    Ammunition and Explosives stowage/issue personnel
Author
aviationordie
ID
327503
Card Set
AO 321 CH 6-10
Description
AO 321
Updated