AO 321 Ch 1-5

What term describes the time or number of arming vane revolutions needed for the firing train to align after a bomb is released?

What means is used to initiate an electrical fuze?

What mechanical time fuze is used with dispenser weapons?

By what means, if any, can the factory set primary and optional functioning delay of the Mk 339 be changed for tactical requirements?

What method is used to determine if the Mk 339 fuze has shifted from the primary to the option delay?

Which of the following weapons uses an FMU-143/B tail fuze?

What electronic bomb fuze is used in Mk 80/BLU 100 (series) general purpose bombs—including laser-quided bombs?

What electronic bomb fuze is used for retarded delivery of the Mk 80/BLU 100

What type of bomb is used in most routine bombing operations?

Identification of BLU-110/111/117A/B bombs loaded with PBXN-109 can be made by the stencil on the bomb body (front and rear) and by what other means?

A bomb body is shipped with a plastic plug installed in the nose and tail fuze wells to prevent what occurrence?

When shipping bombs, what type of pallet is used?

When shipping, what factor determines the number of bombs that are loaded on

Arming wire assemblies are used for what purpose?

Premature or accidental withdrawal of an arming wire from a component is prevented by the installation of which of the following devices?

A conical fin assembly is attached to the aft end of a bomb by what means?

What bomb fin is used with the Mk-82/BLU-111 to provide a retarded (high-drag) bomb delivery for the aircraft?

What general-purpose bomb, if any, is used with the BSU-85/B Air Inflatable Retarder?

How do laser-guided bombs detect a target?

What location is the wing assembly mounted on the Guided Bomb Units?

The computer-control group (CCG) of a laser guidance kit is used for what purpose?

What modification kit is used to convert GP bombs into mines?

What bomb body, if any, is used to make the Mk 63 mine?

What is the purpose of the Mk 339 Mod 1 mechanical time fuze?

What are the components of the Mk 118 Mod 0 and Mod 1 antitank bombs?

What is the primary purpose of practice bombs?

What type of ammunition causes the most injuries to personnel?

The history of rockets covers a span of how many centuries?

What initiating device ignites the propellant grain of a rocket?

What component of a rocket contains the propellant, igniter, and nozzle?

The gases produced when rocket motor propellant burns create what type of force?

Rockets are propelled by what means?

Which of the following rocket components is/are a part of the motor?

What type of HE-FRAG warhead is used with a 5.0-inch rocket?

What type of warhead combines the effectiveness of HE-FRAG and HEAT warheads?

What type of warhead is a compromise between the armor-piercing and fragmentation designs?

A 2.75-inch rocket assembly can be carried and launched from which of the following launcher packages?

All 2.75-inch rockets may be shipped in which of the following configurations?

Which NAVAIR publication provides authorized assemblies, safety precautions, and restrictions for airborne rockets?

All 5.0-inch rockets should be received through the supply system in which of the following configurations?

A rocket motor should NOT be used if it has been dropped more than what prescribed number of feet?

When, if ever, should you attempt to remove the base fuze from a rocket warhead?

Long-range missiles are usually capable of traveling what minimum number of miles?

Speeds from Mach 0.8 to Mach 1.2 are referred to by what term?

Speeds above Mach 5.0 are referred to by what term?

A service missile is usually referred to as what type of missile?

A training missile is classified as what type of missile?

A guided missile is designed to be air-launched as an intercept aerial missile. It is the 9th design and the 13th modification of the design. What designator is assigned to the missile?

What are the classifications of missile homing systems?

Which of the following statements describes an AIM-7M guided missile?

In an AIM-7M guided missile, the warhead is in what location?

The missile battery is located in what section of a Harpoon guided missile?

An AIM-9M Sidewinder guided missile has how many major components?

The control fins should be attached to what section of a Sidewinder guided missile?

What modification of a Mk 36 rocket motor is equipped with a safe-arm ignition assembly?

To reposition the safe-arm ignition assembly of a Mk 36 Mod 8 rocket motor,

An AGM-88C guided missile is designed to operate in what total number of modes?

The designation AGM-65E identifies what missile?

What are the major assemblies of the LAU-7 guided missile launcher?

Which of the following guided missile launchers is a complete launching system used with AIM-9M (series) missiles?

In the LAU-7 guided missile launcher, the missile's IR detector is cooled by what

What are the two distinct interface configurations used for the AIM-9X?

What launchers are capable of launching the AIM-9X?

What missile is an anti-armor terminal homing weapon that uses a variety of warhead configurations, including shaped charge, blast fragmentation, and thermobaric?

All versions of Hellfire missiles in the Navy and Marine Corps inventory are carried on what type of guided missile launcher?

What reusable missile launcher completes the F/A-18, AV-8, and P-3 aircraft suspension and launching system for the Maverick AGM-65 air-to-ground missile?

A hand-manipulated signaling device is used for all EXCEPT which of the signaling purposes?

Pyrotechnic pistols includes all EXCEPT which of the following features?

A Mk 124 Mod 0 marine smoke and illumination signal emits what color

The day or night end of a Mk 124 Mod 0 signal is marked in which of the

A Mk 79 Mod 0 illumination signal kit consists of a _________ signal projector and a total of _____ Mk 80 Mod 0 signals.

When fired, the star ejected from a Mk 80 Mod 0 signal burns for what minimum

Before loading a signal into a Mk 31 Mod 0 signal projector, you should first take

The illuminating candle in the LUU-2B/B aircraft parachute flare is made from what materials?

Approximately how many pounds of force is required to pull the timer knob from the timer of an LUU-2B/B aircraft parachute flare?

When a Mk 25 marine location marker is handled, what component physically

When a Mk 25 Mod 2 marker is in the water, what liquid serves as an electrolyte to produce a current in the battery?

What is the average burn time of a Mk 25 Mod 2 marine location marker?

A Mk 25 will provide smoke and flame for approximately how long?

IR decoys generate heat and infrared energy which is used to distract what type of missile?

Passive expendables are filled with chaff, which is dispensed by aircraft to mask or screen other aircraft or to cause tracking radar to do what?

What signal cartridge produces a flash of light and a white puff of smoke?

What color smoke is produced by a CXU-3 signal cartridge?

To extinguish an aircraft parachute flare that is burning in the open, which of the following methods should be used?

Pyrotechnic hazards are frequently increased by what factor(s)?

What is the primary weapon used in antisubmarine warfare?

A Mk 46 Mods torpedo can be assembled into how many recoverable exercise

To ensure a predictable air trajectory and water entry without causing structural damage to a Mk 46 torpedo, what means is used?

To suspend Mk 46 torpedoes from the bomb racks or shackles of the launching aircraft, which of the following suspension band configurations can be used?

Component location information for a Mk 46 torpedo is contained in what NAVSEA publication?

What is the major advantage of using Otto fuel II in torpedoes?

Otto fuel II safety, storage, and handling instructions are contained in which of

When a person is initially exposed to Otto Fuel II vapors, what symptoms could occur?

Aircraft-laid mines are used in which of the following types of operations?

Magnetic, acoustic, and pressure mines are grouped into which of the following general classifications?

Depending on the type of mine, the explosive system may contain which of the following components?

Air-laid mines contain which of the following types of explosives?

The arming device in an air-laid mine consist of a _________ switch piston

A Mk 63 service mine is classified as what type of mine?

What safety device is used in a Mk 65 mine?

Mines must be jettisoned in water that is at least how many feet deep?