-
1. When does the amber dual bleed light illuminate?
- a. When the APU Bleed Valve is open and the No.1 Engine bleed valve is closed.
- b. When the APU Bleed Valve is open and the No.1 Engine bleed valve is on.
- c. When the APU Bleed Valve is open and the No.2 Engine bleed valve is on and the isolation valve is open.
- d. Both B and C are correct.
- d. Both B and C are correct.
-
2. During flight Auto-Fail light illuminate on pressurization panel. Which statement is correct?
- a. Both pressure controllers have failed. You must manually control the pressurization system.
- b. The primary controller has failed. You must select alternate mode to extinguish the auto-fail light.
- c. The alternate pressure controller has failed. Action is not necessary.
- d. None of above.
- a. Both pressure controllers have failed. You must manually control the pressurization system.
-
3. During cruise, it becomes necessary to divert to an alternate airport. What must be done to the pressurization system?
- a. Adjust the flight altitude.
- b. Adjust the landing altitude.
- c. Change to alternate mode.
- d. Change to manual mode.
- b. Adjust the landing altitude.
-
4. Illumination of an Amber Cowl Anti Ice light indicates;
- a. An over pressure condition.
- b. An over temperature or over pressure condition.
- c. The respective Cowl Anti Ice valve is open.
- d. The respective Cowl Anti Ice valve is in transit, the cowl anti ice valve position disagrees with respective engine anti ice switch position.
- a. An over pressure condition.
-
5. The R Elev Pitot light is illuminated. What does this indicate?
- a. The right elevator pitot is blocked.
- b. System B Hydrolic pressure is low.
- c. The right elevator pitot is not heated.
- d. None of the above.
- c. The right elevator pitot is not heated.
-
6. The engine anti ice should be turned on ..
- a. Anytime if there is visible moisture.
- b. If the temperature is 10C or less and there is visible moisture.
- c. If the temperature is 10C or more and there is visible moisture.
- d. All above correct.
- b. If the temperature is 10C or less and there is visible moisture.
-
7. Radio altitude is displayed:
- a. On the PFD when below 1500 feet AGL.
- b. On the PFD between DA/(DH) and 2500 feet AGL.
- c. On the PFD when below 2500 feet AGL.
- d. On the ND when below 2500 feet AGL.
- c. On the PFD when below 2500 feet AGL.
-
8. The landing gear is normally extended and retracted by which hydrolic system?
- a. A Hyd. Syst.
- b. B Hyd. Syst.
- c. STBY Hyd. Syst.
- d. A and STBY Hyd. Syst.
- a. A Hyd. Syst.
-
9. What is the maximum airspeed for retracting landing gear?
- a. 235 KIAS
- b. 270 KIAS
- c. 320 KIAS
- d. 250 KIAS
- a. 235 KIAS
-
10. The Cockpit voice recorder (CVR) switch_________.
- a. When the switch in ?Auto? position, powers the cockpit voice recorder from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shut down
- b. When the switch in ?ON? position, trips the switch to the ?Auto? position after the first engine start.
- c. Position of the switch is in the center instrument panel
- d. Both A and B are correct.
- d. Both A and B are correct.
-
11. When the standby power switch is off ___________.
- a. The STANDBY PWR off light will be illuminated.AC standby bus, static inverter and DC standby bus are not powered.
- b. Automatic Switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power sources.
- c. The standby PWR off light will be extinguished
- d. The static inverter provides 28V DC power to Transfer Bus No.1
- a. The STANDBY PWR off light will be illuminated.AC standby bus, static inverter and DC standby bus are not powered.
-
12. Illumination of the BAT discharge light indicates:
- a. The battery is being overcharged.
- b. Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch on.
- c. The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch on.
- d. The battery bus is not powered.
- b. Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch on.
-
13. One of the basic principle operation for the B-737/800 electrical system is ?There is no paralleling of the DC sources of power?
-
14. Illumination of the Drive Light indicates?.
- a. IDG failure
- b. IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
- c. IDG Disconnected through the drive disconnect switch
- d. All of the above.
- d. All of the above.
-
15. The TR unit will illuminate in flight if ?.
- a. Any TR unit fails
- b. TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail
- c. TR2 fails or TR1
- d. TR2 or TR3 fail
- b. TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail
-
16. Engine oil pressure is in amber band when takeoff thrust is set. Which of the following is true for takeoff?
- a. Acceptable, no action is necessary
- b. Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
- c. Permitted only for completion of the flight, preferably at reduced thrust setting.
- d. Do not takeoff.
- d. Do not takeoff.
-
17. Which hydraulic system during normal operations powers the thrust reversers?
- a. System A
- b. System B
- c. System A for Engine No.1 and System B for Engine No.2
- d. Standby System
- c. System A for Engine No.1 and System B for Engine No.2
-
18. The APU electronic control unit (ECU) provides:
- a. Automatic shutdown protection for over speed conditions, low oil pressure, and high oil temperature.
- b. Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure, and EGT exceedence.
- c. Automatic Control of APU speed through the electronic fuel unit.
- d. All of the above are correct.
- d. All of the above are correct.
-
19. The APU switch off position has an automatic shutdown delay of about _______.
- a. 30 seconds
- b. 60 seconds
- c. 120 seconds
- d. 135 seconds
- b. 60 seconds
-
20. The APU supplies bleed air for both air conditioning packs ______________
- a. On the ground only
- b. In the air only
- c. Both On the ground and in the air
- d. None of above correct.
- a. On the ground only
-
21. Alternate brake system is powered by ________.
- a. Standby Hydraulic system
- b. Hydraulic system A
- c. Hydraulic system B
- d. Brake Accumulator system
- b. Hydraulic system A
-
22. Pulling the engine fire warning switch up
- a. Closes fuel, hydraulic shutoff and engine bleed air valves.
- b. Disables thrust reverser.
- c. Trips generator control relay and breaker
- d. All above correct.
- d. All above correct.
-
23. When the extinguisher test switch is placed to the 1 or 2 positions, 3 green lights illuminates. This indicates that:
- a. The fire extinguisher bottles are full.
- b. The fire extinguisher bottles are empty.
- c. The discharge circuits are normal.
- d. The fire detector loops are normal.
- c. The discharge circuits are normal.
-
24. The primary flight controls consists of rudder, ailerons, and___________.
- a. Spoilers
- b. Flaps
- c. Elevators
- d. Speed brakes
- c. Elevators
-
25. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 degrees, Roll control is assisted by the ,_______.
- a. Ground Spoilers
- b. Flight Spoilers
- c. Stabilizer
- d. Both A and B are correct
- b. Flight Spoilers
-
26. In the event hydraulic systems A and B failure, ailerons, elevators, and rudder can be operated with the standby system automatically.
-
27. Main electric trim operates more slowly with flaps retracted than flaps extended?
-
28. The center tank scavenges jet pump operates when:
- a. Both center tank fuel pump switches are turned off and there is sufficient fuel in CTR fuel tank.
- b. The No.1 main fuel tank is about one-half full and the main thank no.1 forward pump is operating.
- c. Crossfeed selector in open position.
- d. Both A and B correct.
- d. Both A and B correct.
-
29. What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump low pressure light indicate?
- a. Low fuel pressure in the affected tank.
- b. Low fuel pump output pressure.
- c. The fuel pump switch is off.
- d. Both B and C correct.
- d. Both B and C correct.
-
30. Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
- a. Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check valves.
- b. Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main tank check valves.
- c. Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.
- d. Main tank pumps can not produce pressure until the center tank low pressure lights illuminate and center tank pumps are turned off.
- c. Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.
-
31. B-737/800 cargo compartment fire protection system is consist of
- a. Cargo compartment smoke detectors.
- b. Cargo compartment fire detectors.
- c. Cargo compartments has single loop detection.
- d. All above correct.
- a. Cargo compartment smoke detectors.
-
32. The hydraulic fluid is supplied from system A, system B and the standby system. The standby reservoir is connected through a standpipe to _________?
- a. System A
- b. System B
- c. Totally independent system
- d. Both system A and B
- b. System B
-
33. Two independent IRS?s are the sole source of the attitude and heading information, except for the standby attitude indicator and standby magnetic compass.
-
34. When a FLT control switch is placed to STBY RUD, the extinguishing of the associated low pressure light is an indication that the standby rudder valve has opened.
-
35. The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to:
- a. Allowing landing gear retraction if hydraulic System A is lost during takeoff.
- b. Automatically use hydraulic System B for landing gear retraction if hydraulic System A pumps fail and the landing gear lever is positioned up.
- c. Allow the use of nose wheel steering in the event hydraulic System A fails.
- d. Automatically use hydraulic System B pressure for gear retraction if the no.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, with the landing gear lever up either main gear not up and locked.
- d. Automatically use hydraulic System B pressure for gear retraction if the no.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, with the landing gear lever up either main gear not up and locked.
-
36. The amber standby hydraulic system low pressure light is armed________
- a. At all times.
- b. Only when either FLT control switch is moved to STBY RUD.
- c. Only when the alternate flaps switch is moved to arm.
- d. Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.
- d. Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.
-
37. Pulling the No.2 engine fire warning switch shuts off hydraulic fluid to the_______.
- a. Electric pump in System B.
- b. Engine driven pump in system B.
- c. Electric pump in System A.
- d. Engine driven pump in system A.
- b. Engine driven pump in system B.
-
38. All modes of the GPWS are inoperative when:
- a. The captain radio altimeter is inoperative.
- b. The First Officer radio altimeter is inoperative.
- c. The IRS fault light is illuminated.
- d. Air data computer No.2 is inoperative.
- a. The captain radio altimeter is inoperative.
-
39. The GPWS does not provide alerts for flight toward vertically sheer terrain or for shallow descents when the airplane is in landing configuration.
-
40. All other GPWS warnings take priority over windshear warnings:
-
41. Amber fuel LOW alert indicates ______________
- a. Fuel quantity less than 726 kgs in the related main tank.
- b. Fuel quantity less than 907 kgs in the related main tank.
- c. Fuel quantity less than 453 kgs in the related main tank.
- d. Total Fuel quantity less than reserve fuel.
- b. Fuel quantity less than 907 kgs in the related main tank.
-
42. If The PASS OXY ON light illuminates. What does this indicates?
- a. The passenger oxygen system pressure is low.
- b. The passenger oxygen system quantity is low.
- c. Passenger oxygen system is activated.
- d. All above correct.
- c. Passenger oxygen system is activated.
-
43. In ?degraded mode audio system? what are combinations for transmission and reception at the regarded station?
- a. Captain-VHF-1; FO-VHF-2; Observer-VHF-2
- b. Captain-VHF-2; FO-VHF-1; Observer-VHF-1
- c. Captain-VHF-1; FO-VHF-2; Observer-VHF-1
- d. Captain-VHF-1; FO-VHF-1; Observer-VHF-1
- c. Captain-VHF-1; FO-VHF-2; Observer-VHF-1
-
44. The engine fire extinguishing circuits are powered by the ______________ bus.
- a. AC Standby
- b. DC Standby
- c. Battery Bus
- d. Hot Battery
- d. Hot Battery
-
45. An alternate retraction system is provided for the LE devices.
-
46. Two GPS?s are the primary update sources to the FMC position. If all GPS data becomes unavailable, the FMC position will be determined by the radio or IRS?s
-
47. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light illuminated indicates:
- a. Leading edge devices are in transit.
- b. Leading edge devices do not agree with trailing edge flap setting.
- c. Asymmetric leading edge devices.
- d. All of the above are correct.
- d. All of the above are correct.
-
48. The flap load relief system is operational at:
- a. All flap settings
- b. Flaps 15, 30, and 40
- c. Flaps 30 and 40
- d. Flaps 40 only
- c. Flaps 30 and 40
-
49. Refill (RF) indication of the hydraulic system quantity indication is displayed when,
- a. Automatically when the hydraulic quantity is below 67% in either system A or B
- b. Anytime when the hydraulic quantity is not enough for supplying 3000 psi.
- c. When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi in.
- d. Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.
- c. When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi in.
-
50. Primary Flight Display (PFD) minimum maneuver amber speed area indicates
- a. Minimum maneuver speed for full maneuver capability and provides 40 degrees bank capability in 1G flight to stick shaker or initial buffet.
- b. Provides 25 degrees bank capability in 1G flight to stick shaker
- c. Provides 30 degrees bank capability in 1G flight to stick shaker
- d. Both A and C correct.
- a. Minimum maneuver speed for full maneuver capability and provides 40 degrees bank capability in 1G flight to stick shaker or initial buffet.
-
51. Auto brake disarm amber light indicate,
- a. Speed brake lever moved to down detent during RTO or landing.
- b. Manual brakes applied during RTO or landing.
- c. Landing made with RTO selected.
- d. All above correct.
- d. All above correct.
-
52. Drain masts are used to _________.
- a. drain lavatory?s and galley?s wash basins.
- b. drain waste water system.
- c. drain the water in the APU shroud.
- d. drain the water accumulated in the hydraulic system.
- a. drain lavatory?s and galley?s wash basins.
-
53. EQUIP door warning light is used to indicate the position of
- a. E&E compartment door
- b. Nose Landing Gear compartment door
- c. Water service panel
- d.A and B correct
- a. E&E compartment door
-
54. How are the cargo compartments heated?
- a. They are not heated at all.
- b. The forward cargo compartment is heated by the right pack
- c. The aft cargo compartment is heated by the right pack
- d. Cabin air is routed to the cargo compartments linings for heating
- d. Cabin air is routed to the cargo compartments linings for heating
-
55. What does the left air conditioning pack supply?
- a. The flight deck and the mix manifold
- b. The flight deck and only via the re-circulated air mix manifold
- c. The flight deck only
- d. The mix manifold only
- a. The flight deck and the mix manifold
-
56. All bleed valves are ________?
- a. AC power operated
- b. DC power operated
- c. DC power controlled, pressure operated
- d. AC power controlled, pressure operated
- c. DC power controlled, pressure operated
-
57. If wing anti ice is used on the ground ,when does the wing anti ice valve close?
- a. Wing anti ice can not be used on the ground
- b. When throttles are set above takeoff warning setting
- c. At the time of lift off
- d. None of above correct.
- b. When throttles are set above takeoff warning setting
-
58. If the green window heat on light extinguished, that means_________?
- a. Overheat detected
- b. Window heat switch/s off
- c. System failure occurred
- d. All above correct.
- d. All above correct.
-
59. In normal operation, select the correct statement.
- a. The A/P can be used for take off and landing
- b. The A/P can be used for CLB,CRZ,DESCENT and LANDING
- c. The A/P can be used for Auto takeoff.
- d. Both autopilot A and B can be used during Cruise flight
- b. The A/P can be used for CLB,CRZ,DESCENT and LANDING
-
60. What is the Power Supply for the BATTERY BUS if TR3 fails?
- a. BATTERY BUS is powered by TR1 or via the inverter
- b. BATTERY BUS is powered by DC STANDBY BUS
- c. BATTERY BUS is not powered.
- d. BATTERY BUS is powered by the BATTERY or BATTERY CHARGER
- d. BATTERY BUS is powered by the BATTERY or BATTERY CHARGER
-
61. What is the TR unit for?
- a. It converts 115V AC to 28V DC
- b. It converts 28V AC to 115V DC
- c. It converts 28V DC to 115V AC
- d. It produces 115V AC and 28V DC
- a. It converts 115V AC to 28V DC
-
62. EEC Provides,________ during flight.
- a. N1 and N2 redline overspeed protection.
- b. EGT redline exceedance protection.
- c. Turbulence N1 protection.
- d. Both A and B correct.
- a. N1 and N2 redline overspeed protection.
-
63. APU can be used for electrical load and bleed air extraction up to_____ feet, only electrical load up to _____ feet, only bleed air extraction up to _____ feet.
- a. 17000-41000-10000
- b. 10000-17000-41000
- c. 41000-17000-10000
- d. 10000-41000-17000
- d. 10000-41000-17000
-
64. Which signals trigger a warning with OVHT/DET switch in ?Normal? and all loops are operative?
- a. ENG.OVHT. If one loop senses overheat
- b. FIRE WARN. If both loops sense fire.
- c. FIRE WARN. If one loop senses fire
- d. All above correct
- b. FIRE WARN. If both loops sense fire.
-
65. When Engine no 1 Fire Warning Switch is pulled, which hydraulic system is still operative?
- a. Hyd.syst. A only
- b. Hyd.syst. B only
- c. Both Hyd.syst A and B
- d. Hyd. Syst B electric Hyd. Pump only
- c. Both Hyd.syst A and B
-
66. PTU is installed as a back up for Hyd.Sys.B.
- It is hydraulic motorized pump unit and it is used for ?.?
- a. Flaps operation
- b. Auto slats and leading edge flaps and slats operation
- c. Primary flight controls unit operation
- d. Secondary flight control unit operation
- b. Auto slats and leading edge flaps and slats operation
-
67. The purpose of the "Landing Gear Transfer Unit" is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system___________.
- a. A electric motor-driven pump volume is lost
- b. A engine?driven pump volume is lost
- c. B electric motor-driven pump volume is lost
- d. B engine?driven pump volume is lost
- b. A engine?driven pump volume is lost
-
68. Choose the correct hydraulic power source for the related brake system.
- a. Normal brake system _________ Hydraulic sys.A
- b. Alternate brake system ______ Hydraulic sys.A
- c. Brake accumulator ___________ Hydraulic sys.A
- d. Alternate brake system ______ Hydraulic sys.B
- b. Alternate brake system ______ Hydraulic sys.A
-
69. Hydraulic system A and B are lost and both FLT CONTROL switches are set to STBY RUD. Which components are powered by the hydraulic standby system?
- a. Both reversers, leading edge-and trailing edge flaps
- b. Both reversers, rudder,, elevator, aileron
- c. Both reversers, rudder, nose wheel steering
- d. Both reversers, rudder, extension of leading edge devices.
- d. Both reversers, rudder, extension of leading edge devices.
-
70. What happens if Engine Fire Warning Switch number 1 is pulled?
- a. Hydraulic system A is lost
- b. Hydraulic supply to ENG 1 and ELEC 2 pumps is interrupted.
- c. Hydraulic supply to related engine driven pump is interrupted and respective pump low pressure light is deactivated.
- d. Both A and C correct.
- c. Hydraulic supply to related engine driven pump is interrupted and respective pump low pressure light is deactivated.
-
71. Normally the (TE) Trailing edge flaps operate with _________.
- a. electric motor power
- b. hydraulic system A
- c. hydraulic system B
- d. hydraulic system A and B
- c. hydraulic system B
-
72. When rejected take off at 80 kts. The spoilers will rise automatically as soon as____
- a. At least one reverser thrust lever is raised
- b. When anti skid brakes are used
- c. The SPEED BRAKE lever is positioned to ARMED
- d. When right landing gear air-ground safety switch is sensed rejected takeoff.
- a. At least one reverser thrust lever is raised
-
73. Nose landing gear brake system is supplied by the ___________.
- a. Hydraulic system A
- b. Hydraulic system B
- c. Both Hydraulic system A&B
- d. Nose Landing Gear has no breaking system.
- d. Nose Landing Gear has no breaking system.
-
74. Which statement about the brake pressure accumulator is correct?
- a. It is charged by Hydraulic Sys.B
- b. It is precharged by the bleed air
- c. It is charged by Hydraulic System A
- d. None of above
- a. It is charged by Hydraulic Sys.B
-
75. At Flight Mode Annunciation system which color indicates an ?armed? mode?
- a. Green
- b. Yellow
- c. Magenta
- d. White
- d. White
-
76. How much kgs. of fuel triggers amber fuel LOW alert in Center Fuel Tank?
- a. 1134 kgs.
- b. 907 kgs.
- c. 726 kgs.
- d. None of above
- d. None of above
-
77.The ground Proximity Warning System will not provide warning in case of _______
- a. high descent rates at low RA while in landing configuration
- b. flight towards sharply rising terrain
- c. altitude loss after takeoff or go-around
- d. excessive deviation below an ILS Glide Slope.
- b. flight towards sharply rising terrain
-
78. Where is the location of the filling port of crew oxygen cylinder?
- a. Forward cargo compartment
- b. Aft. Cargo compartment
- c. In the cockpit
- d. Electronic compartment
- a. Forward cargo compartment
-
79. During flight, if any other traffic continues to close a resolution advisory (RA) is generated when the other traffic is approximately ________________.
- a. Approximately 40 seconds from the point of closest approach
- b. Approximately 60 seconds from the point of closest approach
- c. Approximately 25 seconds from the point of closest approach
- d. Approximately 75 seconds from the point of closest approach
- c. Approximately 25 seconds from the point of closest approach
-
80. When does the airplane start to pressurize the cabin?
- a. After doors closed
- b. After engine start
- c. After higher power setting on ground
- d. After liftoff (air-ground sensor affect)
- c. After higher power setting on ground
-
81. System A is pressurized by ENG 1 HYD PUMP and ELEC 2 HYD PUMP powered by generator 2.
- What could be the reason for this combination?
- a. To reduce the load of Engine driven generator 1
- b. To reduce the workload of engine 1
- c. Both A and B correct.
- d. To have at least one operating pump after an engine failure
- d. To have at least one operating pump after an engine failure
-
82. Is there any restriction to operate an ELEC HYD PUMP on ground?
- a. No system restriction
- b. For hydraulic fluid cooling a minimum of 760 kgs. fuel in the respective main tank is necessary
- c. 76 kgs. hydraulic fluid is necessary in the respective hydraulic system.
- d. Minimum fuel for ground operation of electric motor-driven pumps is 760 kgs in the related main tank.
- d. Minimum fuel for ground operation of electric motor-driven pumps is 760 kgs in the related main tank.
-
83. B-737/800 has two ATC Transponder and able to transmit _______.
- a. coded radio signal with altitude info.
- b. flight number, airspeed and ground speed
- c. magnetic heading and GPS position
- d. All of above correct.
- d. All of above correct.
-
84. During engine start sequence, fuel supply and ignition starts after the engine start lever raised to idle.
-
85. If primary pack control system fails, affected pack is controlled by the standby pack control.
- " PACK light with MASTER CAUTION and AIR COND system announciator lights illuminate with Master Caution Recall."
- a. True
- b. False
- a. True
-
86. What is the minimum time limit to put the battery switch to OFF position, after the APU switch is placed to OFF?
- a. 90 secs.
- b. 100 secs.
- c. 60 secs.
- d. 120 secs.
- d. 120 secs.
-
87. EEC wet start protection deactivates ignition and shuts off the engine fuel valve when no EGT rise detected within 15 seconds after placing the start lever to idle detent.
-
88. If speed brake is in down position during landing or rejected takeoff, the auto speed brake system operates when ____________.
- a. main landing gear spin up more than 60 Kts
- b. both thrust levers retarded to idle
- c. reverse thrust lever positioned for reverse thrust
- d. All above correct.
- d. All above correct.
-
89. The MASTER CAUTION Lights __________.
- a. When any caution occurs outside the normal field of vision of the flight crew.
- b. Crew may reset the system after failure identification.
- c. Pushing either annunciator light panel recalls all existing fault annunciations.
- d. All above correct.
- d. All above correct.
-
90. The fuel temperature indicator shows the fuel temperature of the Main Fuel Tank 1
-
91. When aircraft deviates from selected altitude, a momentary tone sounds and the current altitude box turns amber and flashes when the deviation exceeds more than_______ft.
- a. 900 ft
- b. 500 ft
- c. 300 ft
- d. 150 ft
- c. 300 ft
-
92. What is the differential pressure at or below FL 280?
- a. 7.45 psi
- b. 7.80 psi
- c. 8.35 psi
- d. 9.10 psi
- a. 7.45 psi
-
93. Only the first officer side sliding window can be opened from outside on the ground and can be used for emergency evacuation.
-
94. What is the retractable landing light speed limit when extended?
- a. 250 KT below 10000?
- b. 235 KT / .64 M
- c. Retractable landing lights extended automatically when landing gear lever placed to down position.
- d. No speed limit
- d. No speed limit
-
95. Which fault light can NOT be reset with TRIP RESET SW?
- a. The ?Bleed Trip Off? light
- b. The ?Pack? light
- c. The ?Zone Temp? light
- d. ?Wing Body Overheat? light.
- d. ?Wing Body Overheat? light.
-
96. What are the dimensions of B-737/800W aircraft?
- a. width 39,5m / length 36m
- b. width 39,5m / length 47m
- c. width 36m / length 39.5m
- d. width 41m / length 47m
- c. width 36m / length 39.5m
-
97. PSEU system on the ground monitors with of the following?
- a. Takeoff/landing configuration warnings
- b. Landing gear
- c. Air/ground sensing
- d. All of the above.
- d. All of the above.
-
98. When Engine Failure, ?ENG FAIL? alert appears on upper display unit and this alert remains until ________.
- a. related engine recovers
- b. start lever moved to cutoff.
- c. related Engine Fire Warning Switch pulled.
- d. All of above.
- d. All of above.
-
99. APU, Engine and Wheel Well has dual loop fire warning system which alerts the crew when any overheat and fire condition exists.
-
100. The Ram Air System provides
- a. Fresh air to the cabin and flight deck to reduce workload of both packs.
- b. Cooling air for the electronic compartment.
- c. Additional airflow when packs are not adequate to maintain selected temp.
- d. Cooling air for the heat exchanger.
- d. Cooling air for the heat exchanger.
|
|
