CBT 3

  1. 1. When does the amber dual bleed light illuminate?
    • a. When the APU Bleed Valve is open and the No.1 Engine bleed valve is closed.
    • b. When the APU Bleed Valve is open and the No.1 Engine bleed valve is on.
    • c. When the APU Bleed Valve is open and the No.2 Engine bleed valve is on and the isolation valve is open.
    • d. Both B and C are correct.
    • d. Both B and C are correct.
  2. 2. During flight Auto-Fail light illuminate on pressurization panel. Which statement is correct?
    • a. Both pressure controllers have failed. You must manually control the pressurization system.
    • b. The primary controller has failed. You must select alternate mode to extinguish the auto-fail light.
    • c. The alternate pressure controller has failed. Action is not necessary.
    • d. None of above.
    • a. Both pressure controllers have failed. You must manually control the pressurization system.
  3. 3. During cruise, it becomes necessary to divert to an alternate airport. What must be done to the pressurization system?
    • a. Adjust the flight altitude.
    • b. Adjust the landing altitude.
    • c. Change to alternate mode.
    • d. Change to manual mode.
    • b. Adjust the landing altitude.
  4. 4. Illumination of an Amber Cowl Anti Ice light indicates;
    • a. An over pressure condition.
    • b. An over temperature or over pressure condition.
    • c. The respective Cowl Anti Ice valve is open.
    • d. The respective Cowl Anti Ice valve is in transit, the cowl anti ice valve position disagrees with respective engine anti ice switch position.
    • a. An over pressure condition.
  5. 5. The R Elev Pitot light is illuminated. What does this indicate?
    • a. The right elevator pitot is blocked.
    • b. System B Hydrolic pressure is low.
    • c. The right elevator pitot is not heated.
    • d. None of the above.
    • c. The right elevator pitot is not heated.
  6. 6. The engine anti ice should be turned on ..
    • a. Anytime if there is visible moisture.
    • b. If the temperature is 10C or less and there is visible moisture.
    • c. If the temperature is 10C or more and there is visible moisture.
    • d. All above correct.
    • b. If the temperature is 10C or less and there is visible moisture.
  7. 7. Radio altitude is displayed:
    • a. On the PFD when below 1500 feet AGL.
    • b. On the PFD between DA/(DH) and 2500 feet AGL.
    • c. On the PFD when below 2500 feet AGL.
    • d. On the ND when below 2500 feet AGL.
    • c. On the PFD when below 2500 feet AGL.
  8. 8. The landing gear is normally extended and retracted by which hydrolic system?
    • a. A Hyd. Syst.
    • b. B Hyd. Syst.
    • c. STBY Hyd. Syst.
    • d. A and STBY Hyd. Syst.
    • a. A Hyd. Syst.
  9. 9. What is the maximum airspeed for retracting landing gear?
    • a. 235 KIAS
    • b. 270 KIAS
    • c. 320 KIAS
    • d. 250 KIAS
    • a. 235 KIAS
  10. 10. The Cockpit voice recorder (CVR) switch_________.
    • a. When the switch in ?Auto? position, powers the cockpit voice recorder from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shut down
    • b. When the switch in ?ON? position, trips the switch to the ?Auto? position after the first engine start.
    • c. Position of the switch is in the center instrument panel
    • d. Both A and B are correct.
    • d. Both A and B are correct.
  11. 11. When the standby power switch is off ___________.
    • a. The STANDBY PWR off light will be illuminated.AC standby bus, static inverter and DC standby bus are not powered.
    • b. Automatic Switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power sources.
    • c. The standby PWR off light will be extinguished
    • d. The static inverter provides 28V DC power to Transfer Bus No.1
    • a. The STANDBY PWR off light will be illuminated.AC standby bus, static inverter and DC standby bus are not powered.
  12. 12. Illumination of the BAT discharge light indicates:
    • a. The battery is being overcharged.
    • b. Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch on.
    • c. The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch on.
    • d. The battery bus is not powered.
    • b. Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch on.
  13. 13. One of the basic principle operation for the B-737/800 electrical system is ?There is no paralleling of the DC sources of power?
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • b. False
  14. 14. Illumination of the Drive Light indicates?.
    • a. IDG failure
    • b. IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
    • c. IDG Disconnected through the drive disconnect switch
    • d. All of the above.
    • d. All of the above.
  15. 15. The TR unit will illuminate in flight if ?.
    • a. Any TR unit fails
    • b. TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail
    • c. TR2 fails or TR1
    • d. TR2 or TR3 fail
    • b. TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail
  16. 16. Engine oil pressure is in amber band when takeoff thrust is set. Which of the following is true for takeoff?
    • a. Acceptable, no action is necessary
    • b. Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
    • c. Permitted only for completion of the flight, preferably at reduced thrust setting.
    • d. Do not takeoff.
    • d. Do not takeoff.
  17. 17. Which hydraulic system during normal operations powers the thrust reversers?
    • a. System A
    • b. System B
    • c. System A for Engine No.1 and System B for Engine No.2
    • d. Standby System
    • c. System A for Engine No.1 and System B for Engine No.2
  18. 18. The APU electronic control unit (ECU) provides:
    • a. Automatic shutdown protection for over speed conditions, low oil pressure, and high oil temperature.
    • b. Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure, and EGT exceedence.
    • c. Automatic Control of APU speed through the electronic fuel unit.
    • d. All of the above are correct.
    • d. All of the above are correct.
  19. 19. The APU switch off position has an automatic shutdown delay of about _______.
    • a. 30 seconds
    • b. 60 seconds
    • c. 120 seconds
    • d. 135 seconds
    • b. 60 seconds
  20. 20. The APU supplies bleed air for both air conditioning packs ______________
    • a. On the ground only
    • b. In the air only
    • c. Both On the ground and in the air
    • d. None of above correct.
    • a. On the ground only
  21. 21. Alternate brake system is powered by ________.
    • a. Standby Hydraulic system
    • b. Hydraulic system A
    • c. Hydraulic system B
    • d. Brake Accumulator system
    • b. Hydraulic system A
  22. 22. Pulling the engine fire warning switch up
    • a. Closes fuel, hydraulic shutoff and engine bleed air valves.
    • b. Disables thrust reverser.
    • c. Trips generator control relay and breaker
    • d. All above correct.
    • d. All above correct.
  23. 23. When the extinguisher test switch is placed to the 1 or 2 positions, 3 green lights illuminates. This indicates that:
    • a. The fire extinguisher bottles are full.
    • b. The fire extinguisher bottles are empty.
    • c. The discharge circuits are normal.
    • d. The fire detector loops are normal.
    • c. The discharge circuits are normal.
  24. 24. The primary flight controls consists of rudder, ailerons, and___________.
    • a. Spoilers
    • b. Flaps
    • c. Elevators
    • d. Speed brakes
    • c. Elevators
  25. 25. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 degrees, Roll control is assisted by the ,_______.
    • a. Ground Spoilers
    • b. Flight Spoilers
    • c. Stabilizer
    • d. Both A and B are correct
    • b. Flight Spoilers
  26. 26. In the event hydraulic systems A and B failure, ailerons, elevators, and rudder can be operated with the standby system automatically.
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • b. False
  27. 27. Main electric trim operates more slowly with flaps retracted than flaps extended?
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  28. 28. The center tank scavenges jet pump operates when:
    • a. Both center tank fuel pump switches are turned off and there is sufficient fuel in CTR fuel tank.
    • b. The No.1 main fuel tank is about one-half full and the main thank no.1 forward pump is operating.
    • c. Crossfeed selector in open position.
    • d. Both A and B correct.
    • d. Both A and B correct.
  29. 29. What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump low pressure light indicate?
    • a. Low fuel pressure in the affected tank.
    • b. Low fuel pump output pressure.
    • c. The fuel pump switch is off.
    • d. Both B and C correct.
    • d. Both B and C correct.
  30. 30. Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
    • a. Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check valves.
    • b. Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main tank check valves.
    • c. Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.
    • d. Main tank pumps can not produce pressure until the center tank low pressure lights illuminate and center tank pumps are turned off.
    • c. Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.
  31. 31. B-737/800 cargo compartment fire protection system is consist of
    • a. Cargo compartment smoke detectors.
    • b. Cargo compartment fire detectors.
    • c. Cargo compartments has single loop detection.
    • d. All above correct.
    • a. Cargo compartment smoke detectors.
  32. 32. The hydraulic fluid is supplied from system A, system B and the standby system. The standby reservoir is connected through a standpipe to _________?
    • a. System A
    • b. System B
    • c. Totally independent system
    • d. Both system A and B
    • b. System B
  33. 33. Two independent IRS?s are the sole source of the attitude and heading information, except for the standby attitude indicator and standby magnetic compass.
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  34. 34. When a FLT control switch is placed to STBY RUD, the extinguishing of the associated low pressure light is an indication that the standby rudder valve has opened.
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  35. 35. The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to:
    • a. Allowing landing gear retraction if hydraulic System A is lost during takeoff.
    • b. Automatically use hydraulic System B for landing gear retraction if hydraulic System A pumps fail and the landing gear lever is positioned up.
    • c. Allow the use of nose wheel steering in the event hydraulic System A fails.
    • d. Automatically use hydraulic System B pressure for gear retraction if the no.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, with the landing gear lever up either main gear not up and locked.
    • d. Automatically use hydraulic System B pressure for gear retraction if the no.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, with the landing gear lever up either main gear not up and locked.
  36. 36. The amber standby hydraulic system low pressure light is armed________
    • a. At all times.
    • b. Only when either FLT control switch is moved to STBY RUD.
    • c. Only when the alternate flaps switch is moved to arm.
    • d. Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.
    • d. Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.
  37. 37. Pulling the No.2 engine fire warning switch shuts off hydraulic fluid to the_______.
    • a. Electric pump in System B.
    • b. Engine driven pump in system B.
    • c. Electric pump in System A.
    • d. Engine driven pump in system A.
    • b. Engine driven pump in system B.
  38. 38. All modes of the GPWS are inoperative when:
    • a. The captain radio altimeter is inoperative.
    • b. The First Officer radio altimeter is inoperative.
    • c. The IRS fault light is illuminated.
    • d. Air data computer No.2 is inoperative.
    • a. The captain radio altimeter is inoperative.
  39. 39. The GPWS does not provide alerts for flight toward vertically sheer terrain or for shallow descents when the airplane is in landing configuration.
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  40. 40. All other GPWS warnings take priority over windshear warnings:
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • b. False
  41. 41. Amber fuel LOW alert indicates ______________
    • a. Fuel quantity less than 726 kgs in the related main tank.
    • b. Fuel quantity less than 907 kgs in the related main tank.
    • c. Fuel quantity less than 453 kgs in the related main tank.
    • d. Total Fuel quantity less than reserve fuel.
    • b. Fuel quantity less than 907 kgs in the related main tank.
  42. 42. If The PASS OXY ON light illuminates. What does this indicates?
    • a. The passenger oxygen system pressure is low.
    • b. The passenger oxygen system quantity is low.
    • c. Passenger oxygen system is activated.
    • d. All above correct.
    • c. Passenger oxygen system is activated.
  43. 43. In ?degraded mode audio system? what are combinations for transmission and reception at the regarded station?
    • a. Captain-VHF-1; FO-VHF-2; Observer-VHF-2
    • b. Captain-VHF-2; FO-VHF-1; Observer-VHF-1
    • c. Captain-VHF-1; FO-VHF-2; Observer-VHF-1
    • d. Captain-VHF-1; FO-VHF-1; Observer-VHF-1
    • c. Captain-VHF-1; FO-VHF-2; Observer-VHF-1
  44. 44. The engine fire extinguishing circuits are powered by the ______________ bus.
    • a. AC Standby
    • b. DC Standby
    • c. Battery Bus
    • d. Hot Battery
    • d. Hot Battery
  45. 45. An alternate retraction system is provided for the LE devices.
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • b. False
  46. 46. Two GPS?s are the primary update sources to the FMC position. If all GPS data becomes unavailable, the FMC position will be determined by the radio or IRS?s
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  47. 47. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light illuminated indicates:
    • a. Leading edge devices are in transit.
    • b. Leading edge devices do not agree with trailing edge flap setting.
    • c. Asymmetric leading edge devices.
    • d. All of the above are correct.
    • d. All of the above are correct.
  48. 48. The flap load relief system is operational at:
    • a. All flap settings
    • b. Flaps 15, 30, and 40
    • c. Flaps 30 and 40
    • d. Flaps 40 only
    • c. Flaps 30 and 40
  49. 49. Refill (RF) indication of the hydraulic system quantity indication is displayed when,
    • a. Automatically when the hydraulic quantity is below 67% in either system A or B
    • b. Anytime when the hydraulic quantity is not enough for supplying 3000 psi.
    • c. When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi in.
    • d. Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.
    • c. When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi in.
  50. 50. Primary Flight Display (PFD) minimum maneuver amber speed area indicates
    • a. Minimum maneuver speed for full maneuver capability and provides 40 degrees bank capability in 1G flight to stick shaker or initial buffet.
    • b. Provides 25 degrees bank capability in 1G flight to stick shaker
    • c. Provides 30 degrees bank capability in 1G flight to stick shaker
    • d. Both A and C correct.
    • a. Minimum maneuver speed for full maneuver capability and provides 40 degrees bank capability in 1G flight to stick shaker or initial buffet.
  51. 51. Auto brake disarm amber light indicate,
    • a. Speed brake lever moved to down detent during RTO or landing.
    • b. Manual brakes applied during RTO or landing.
    • c. Landing made with RTO selected.
    • d. All above correct.
    • d. All above correct.
  52. 52. Drain masts are used to _________.
    • a. drain lavatory?s and galley?s wash basins.
    • b. drain waste water system.
    • c. drain the water in the APU shroud.
    • d. drain the water accumulated in the hydraulic system.
    • a. drain lavatory?s and galley?s wash basins.
  53. 53. EQUIP door warning light is used to indicate the position of
    • a. E&E compartment door
    • b. Nose Landing Gear compartment door
    • c. Water service panel
    • d.A and B correct
    • a. E&E compartment door
  54. 54. How are the cargo compartments heated?
    • a. They are not heated at all.
    • b. The forward cargo compartment is heated by the right pack
    • c. The aft cargo compartment is heated by the right pack
    • d. Cabin air is routed to the cargo compartments linings for heating
    • d. Cabin air is routed to the cargo compartments linings for heating
  55. 55. What does the left air conditioning pack supply?
    • a. The flight deck and the mix manifold
    • b. The flight deck and only via the re-circulated air mix manifold
    • c. The flight deck only
    • d. The mix manifold only
    • a. The flight deck and the mix manifold
  56. 56. All bleed valves are ________?
    • a. AC power operated
    • b. DC power operated
    • c. DC power controlled, pressure operated
    • d. AC power controlled, pressure operated
    • c. DC power controlled, pressure operated
  57. 57. If wing anti ice is used on the ground ,when does the wing anti ice valve close?
    • a. Wing anti ice can not be used on the ground
    • b. When throttles are set above takeoff warning setting
    • c. At the time of lift off
    • d. None of above correct.
    • b. When throttles are set above takeoff warning setting
  58. 58. If the green window heat on light extinguished, that means_________?
    • a. Overheat detected
    • b. Window heat switch/s off
    • c. System failure occurred
    • d. All above correct.
    • d. All above correct.
  59. 59. In normal operation, select the correct statement.
    • a. The A/P can be used for take off and landing
    • b. The A/P can be used for CLB,CRZ,DESCENT and LANDING
    • c. The A/P can be used for Auto takeoff.
    • d. Both autopilot A and B can be used during Cruise flight
    • b. The A/P can be used for CLB,CRZ,DESCENT and LANDING
  60. 60. What is the Power Supply for the BATTERY BUS if TR3 fails?
    • a. BATTERY BUS is powered by TR1 or via the inverter
    • b. BATTERY BUS is powered by DC STANDBY BUS
    • c. BATTERY BUS is not powered.
    • d. BATTERY BUS is powered by the BATTERY or BATTERY CHARGER
    • d. BATTERY BUS is powered by the BATTERY or BATTERY CHARGER
  61. 61. What is the TR unit for?
    • a. It converts 115V AC to 28V DC
    • b. It converts 28V AC to 115V DC
    • c. It converts 28V DC to 115V AC
    • d. It produces 115V AC and 28V DC
    • a. It converts 115V AC to 28V DC
  62. 62. EEC Provides,________ during flight.
    • a. N1 and N2 redline overspeed protection.
    • b. EGT redline exceedance protection.
    • c. Turbulence N1 protection.
    • d. Both A and B correct.
    • a. N1 and N2 redline overspeed protection.
  63. 63. APU can be used for electrical load and bleed air extraction up to_____ feet, only electrical load up to _____ feet, only bleed air extraction up to _____ feet.
    • a. 17000-41000-10000
    • b. 10000-17000-41000
    • c. 41000-17000-10000
    • d. 10000-41000-17000
    • d. 10000-41000-17000
  64. 64. Which signals trigger a warning with OVHT/DET switch in ?Normal? and all loops are operative?
    • a. ENG.OVHT. If one loop senses overheat
    • b. FIRE WARN. If both loops sense fire.
    • c. FIRE WARN. If one loop senses fire
    • d. All above correct
    • b. FIRE WARN. If both loops sense fire.
  65. 65. When Engine no 1 Fire Warning Switch is pulled, which hydraulic system is still operative?
    • a. Hyd.syst. A only
    • b. Hyd.syst. B only
    • c. Both Hyd.syst A and B
    • d. Hyd. Syst B electric Hyd. Pump only
    • c. Both Hyd.syst A and B
  66. 66. PTU is installed as a back up for Hyd.Sys.B.
    • It is hydraulic motorized pump unit and it is used for ?.?
    • a. Flaps operation
    • b. Auto slats and leading edge flaps and slats operation
    • c. Primary flight controls unit operation
    • d. Secondary flight control unit operation
    • b. Auto slats and leading edge flaps and slats operation
  67. 67. The purpose of the "Landing Gear Transfer Unit" is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system___________.
    • a. A electric motor-driven pump volume is lost
    • b. A engine?driven pump volume is lost
    • c. B electric motor-driven pump volume is lost
    • d. B engine?driven pump volume is lost
    • b. A engine?driven pump volume is lost
  68. 68. Choose the correct hydraulic power source for the related brake system.
    • a. Normal brake system _________ Hydraulic sys.A
    • b. Alternate brake system ______ Hydraulic sys.A
    • c. Brake accumulator ___________ Hydraulic sys.A
    • d. Alternate brake system ______ Hydraulic sys.B
    • b. Alternate brake system ______ Hydraulic sys.A
  69. 69. Hydraulic system A and B are lost and both FLT CONTROL switches are set to STBY RUD. Which components are powered by the hydraulic standby system?
    • a. Both reversers, leading edge-and trailing edge flaps
    • b. Both reversers, rudder,, elevator, aileron
    • c. Both reversers, rudder, nose wheel steering
    • d. Both reversers, rudder, extension of leading edge devices.
    • d. Both reversers, rudder, extension of leading edge devices.
  70. 70. What happens if Engine Fire Warning Switch number 1 is pulled?
    • a. Hydraulic system A is lost
    • b. Hydraulic supply to ENG 1 and ELEC 2 pumps is interrupted.
    • c. Hydraulic supply to related engine driven pump is interrupted and respective pump low pressure light is deactivated.
    • d. Both A and C correct.
    • c. Hydraulic supply to related engine driven pump is interrupted and respective pump low pressure light is deactivated.
  71. 71. Normally the (TE) Trailing edge flaps operate with _________.
    • a. electric motor power
    • b. hydraulic system A
    • c. hydraulic system B
    • d. hydraulic system A and B
    • c. hydraulic system B
  72. 72. When rejected take off at 80 kts. The spoilers will rise automatically as soon as____
    • a. At least one reverser thrust lever is raised
    • b. When anti skid brakes are used
    • c. The SPEED BRAKE lever is positioned to ARMED
    • d. When right landing gear air-ground safety switch is sensed rejected takeoff.
    • a. At least one reverser thrust lever is raised
  73. 73. Nose landing gear brake system is supplied by the ___________.
    • a. Hydraulic system A
    • b. Hydraulic system B
    • c. Both Hydraulic system A&B
    • d. Nose Landing Gear has no breaking system.
    • d. Nose Landing Gear has no breaking system.
  74. 74. Which statement about the brake pressure accumulator is correct?
    • a. It is charged by Hydraulic Sys.B
    • b. It is precharged by the bleed air
    • c. It is charged by Hydraulic System A
    • d. None of above
    • a. It is charged by Hydraulic Sys.B
  75. 75. At Flight Mode Annunciation system which color indicates an ?armed? mode?
    • a. Green
    • b. Yellow
    • c. Magenta
    • d. White
    • d. White
  76. 76. How much kgs. of fuel triggers amber fuel LOW alert in Center Fuel Tank?
    • a. 1134 kgs.
    • b. 907 kgs.
    • c. 726 kgs.
    • d. None of above
    • d. None of above
  77. 77.The ground Proximity Warning System will not provide warning in case of _______
    • a. high descent rates at low RA while in landing configuration
    • b. flight towards sharply rising terrain
    • c. altitude loss after takeoff or go-around
    • d. excessive deviation below an ILS Glide Slope.
    • b. flight towards sharply rising terrain
  78. 78. Where is the location of the filling port of crew oxygen cylinder?
    • a. Forward cargo compartment
    • b. Aft. Cargo compartment
    • c. In the cockpit
    • d. Electronic compartment
    • a. Forward cargo compartment
  79. 79. During flight, if any other traffic continues to close a resolution advisory (RA) is generated when the other traffic is approximately ________________.
    • a. Approximately 40 seconds from the point of closest approach
    • b. Approximately 60 seconds from the point of closest approach
    • c. Approximately 25 seconds from the point of closest approach
    • d. Approximately 75 seconds from the point of closest approach
    • c. Approximately 25 seconds from the point of closest approach
  80. 80. When does the airplane start to pressurize the cabin?
    • a. After doors closed
    • b. After engine start
    • c. After higher power setting on ground
    • d. After liftoff (air-ground sensor affect)
    • c. After higher power setting on ground
  81. 81. System A is pressurized by ENG 1 HYD PUMP and ELEC 2 HYD PUMP powered by generator 2.
    • What could be the reason for this combination?
    • a. To reduce the load of Engine driven generator 1
    • b. To reduce the workload of engine 1
    • c. Both A and B correct.
    • d. To have at least one operating pump after an engine failure
    • d. To have at least one operating pump after an engine failure
  82. 82. Is there any restriction to operate an ELEC HYD PUMP on ground?
    • a. No system restriction
    • b. For hydraulic fluid cooling a minimum of 760 kgs. fuel in the respective main tank is necessary
    • c. 76 kgs. hydraulic fluid is necessary in the respective hydraulic system.
    • d. Minimum fuel for ground operation of electric motor-driven pumps is 760 kgs in the related main tank.
    • d. Minimum fuel for ground operation of electric motor-driven pumps is 760 kgs in the related main tank.
  83. 83. B-737/800 has two ATC Transponder and able to transmit _______.
    • a. coded radio signal with altitude info.
    • b. flight number, airspeed and ground speed
    • c. magnetic heading and GPS position
    • d. All of above correct.
    • d. All of above correct.
  84. 84. During engine start sequence, fuel supply and ignition starts after the engine start lever raised to idle.
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  85. 85. If primary pack control system fails, affected pack is controlled by the standby pack control.
    • " PACK light with MASTER CAUTION and AIR COND system announciator lights illuminate with Master Caution Recall."
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  86. 86. What is the minimum time limit to put the battery switch to OFF position, after the APU switch is placed to OFF?
    • a. 90 secs.
    • b. 100 secs.
    • c. 60 secs.
    • d. 120 secs.
    • d. 120 secs.
  87. 87. EEC wet start protection deactivates ignition and shuts off the engine fuel valve when no EGT rise detected within 15 seconds after placing the start lever to idle detent.
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  88. 88. If speed brake is in down position during landing or rejected takeoff, the auto speed brake system operates when ____________.
    • a. main landing gear spin up more than 60 Kts
    • b. both thrust levers retarded to idle
    • c. reverse thrust lever positioned for reverse thrust
    • d. All above correct.
    • d. All above correct.
  89. 89. The MASTER CAUTION Lights __________.
    • a. When any caution occurs outside the normal field of vision of the flight crew.
    • b. Crew may reset the system after failure identification.
    • c. Pushing either annunciator light panel recalls all existing fault annunciations.
    • d. All above correct.
    • d. All above correct.
  90. 90. The fuel temperature indicator shows the fuel temperature of the Main Fuel Tank 1
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  91. 91. When aircraft deviates from selected altitude, a momentary tone sounds and the current altitude box turns amber and flashes when the deviation exceeds more than_______ft.
    • a. 900 ft
    • b. 500 ft
    • c. 300 ft
    • d. 150 ft
    • c. 300 ft
  92. 92. What is the differential pressure at or below FL 280?
    • a. 7.45 psi
    • b. 7.80 psi
    • c. 8.35 psi
    • d. 9.10 psi
    • a. 7.45 psi
  93. 93. Only the first officer side sliding window can be opened from outside on the ground and can be used for emergency evacuation.
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • a. True
  94. 94. What is the retractable landing light speed limit when extended?
    • a. 250 KT below 10000?
    • b. 235 KT / .64 M
    • c. Retractable landing lights extended automatically when landing gear lever placed to down position.
    • d. No speed limit
    • d. No speed limit
  95. 95. Which fault light can NOT be reset with TRIP RESET SW?
    • a. The ?Bleed Trip Off? light
    • b. The ?Pack? light
    • c. The ?Zone Temp? light
    • d. ?Wing Body Overheat? light.
    • d. ?Wing Body Overheat? light.
  96. 96. What are the dimensions of B-737/800W aircraft?
    • a. width 39,5m / length 36m
    • b. width 39,5m / length 47m
    • c. width 36m / length 39.5m
    • d. width 41m / length 47m
    • c. width 36m / length 39.5m
  97. 97. PSEU system on the ground monitors with of the following?
    • a. Takeoff/landing configuration warnings
    • b. Landing gear
    • c. Air/ground sensing
    • d. All of the above.
    • d. All of the above.
  98. 98. When Engine Failure, ?ENG FAIL? alert appears on upper display unit and this alert remains until ________.
    • a. related engine recovers
    • b. start lever moved to cutoff.
    • c. related Engine Fire Warning Switch pulled.
    • d. All of above.
    • d. All of above.
  99. 99. APU, Engine and Wheel Well has dual loop fire warning system which alerts the crew when any overheat and fire condition exists.
    • a. True
    • b. False
    • b. False
  100. 100. The Ram Air System provides
    • a. Fresh air to the cabin and flight deck to reduce workload of both packs.
    • b. Cooling air for the electronic compartment.
    • c. Additional airflow when packs are not adequate to maintain selected temp.
    • d. Cooling air for the heat exchanger.
    • d. Cooling air for the heat exchanger.
Author
seafire
ID
327496
Card Set
CBT 3
Description
Boeing
Updated