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Why are HLA antibodies not more of a problem in the transfusion of RBCs?

A)  There are few if any HLA antigens on the surface of the RBC
B)  They react at low temperatures
C)  They are mostly IgM antibodies
D)  HLA antigens are removed by the filter on the RBC unit at the time of transfusion

During storage, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of:

A) Cryoprecipitated AHF
B) Platelets
C) Fresh frozen plasma
D)  Red Blood Cells

The optimum storage temperature for platelets is:

A) 4C
B) -20C
C) -12C
D) 22C

Red Blood Cells, Deglycerolized, that was frozen and then thawed in an open system has an outdate of:

A) 24 hours
B) 42 days
C) 6 days
D) 10 years

A patient is suspected of having paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH). Which pattern of reactivity is characteristic of the Donath-Landsteiner antibody, which causes this condition?

A)  The IgG antibodies attach to RBCs at 37C and cause agglutination at the AHG phase
B)  The IgG antibodies attach to RBCs at 37C and cause hemolysis
C)  The IgG antibodies attach to RBCs at lower temperatures and cause hemolysis at 37C.
D)  The IgM antibodies attach to RBCs at lower temperatures and cause hemolysis at 37C

If a group DCe/dce man marries a dce/dce woman, what percentage of their offspring can be expected to be D-negative?

A) 50%
B) 25%
C) 75%
D) 0%

What type of immunoglobulin can appear in pentameric form, with identical monomers joined by J chain?

A) IgD
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgE

A weakly reactive anti-D is detected in a postpartum specimen from an Rh-negative woman. During her prenatal period, antibody screening tests were negative. These findings indicate:

A)  that she is NOT a candidate for Rh immune globulin
B)  a need for further investigation to determine candidacy for Rh immune globulin
C)  that she is a candidate for Rh immune globulin
D)  the presence of Rh-positive cells in her circulation

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is best associated with which of the following blood groups?

A) I/i
B) Duffy
C) P
D) Kell

A patient (not recently transfused) has life-threatening anemia due to warm autoantibodies. The patient's plasma reacts 2+ in the antiglobulin phase of testing with all cells on a routine panel. A technique that would be beneficial in preparing the patient's plasma for further alloantibody identification testing is:

A)  adsorption using methyldopa-treated red cells
B)  autoadsorption using the patient's ZZAP-treated red cells
C)  adsorption using enzyme-treated red cells from a random donor
D)  autoadsorption using the patient's LISS-treated red cells

A unit of whole blood is spun using a hard spin, and the plasma is removed into a transfer pack 24 hours after collection. The plasma unit is then frozen solid and later thawed at 4C, at which time the liquid portion is removed. The remainder of the plasma unit should be:

A)  discarded due to incorrect preparation
B)  labeled as cryoprecipitated AHF and frozen at -30C
C)  placed in the refrigerator and labeled liquid plasma
D)  labeled as fresh frozen plasma and frozen at -18C

Which of the following is part of the adaptive immune response?

A) neutrophils
B) defensins
C) natural killer cells
D) plasma cells

A patient is typed as group O, Rh-positive and crossmatched with 6 units of blood. At the indirect antiglobulin (IAT) phase of testing, both antibody screening cells and two crossmatched units are incompatible. What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility?

A) recipient autoantibody
B) rouleaux
C) donors have positive DATs
D) recipient alloantibody

Using the specified anticoagulant/preservative, indicate the allowable shelf life for blood for transfusion therapy: CPD (citrate phosphate dextrose)

A) 21 days
B) 42 days
C) 35 days
D) Not an approved anticoagulant

For plateletpheresis donors, the pretransfusion platelet count must be at least:

A) 200 x 10^3 /μL
B)  300 x 10^3 /μL
C)  250 x 10^3 /μL
D)  150 x 10^3 /μL

Congestive heart failure, severe headache, and/or pulmonary edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?

A) hemolytic
B) circulatory overload
C) febrile
D) anaphylactic

A group B, Rh-negative donor has a positive DAT. Which of the following situations would occur?

A)  all major crossmatches would be incompatible
B)  the Du test and control would be positive
C)  the forward and reverse ABO groupings would not agree
D)  the antibody screening test would be positive

Which patient's genotype could produce anti-c alloantibody after RBC transfusion?

Should an Rh D negative woman who has just had a miscarriage receive RhIg?

A)  Yes, but only a minidose regardless of trimester
B)  Yes, but only if she does not already have immune anti-D from a previous pregnancy
C)  No, RhIg is given for term pregnancies only
D)  No, the type of the baby is unknown

Which antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual?

A)  Anti-A,B
B)  Anti-H
C)  Anti-A and anti-B
D)  Anti-A, anti-B, anti-A,B, and anti-H

Which condition would most likely be responsible for the following typing results?

Patient's cells - Anti-A=neg, Anti-B=neg
Patient's serum - A1 cells=neg, B cells=4+

A)  Impossible to determine
B)  Masking of antigens by the presence of massive amounts of antibody
C)  Weak antigen
D)  Immunodeficiency

Why is an additional reagent (anti-human globulin) required for reactions that detect IgG?

A)  IgG is a direct agglutinin
B)  AHG reagent works to crosslink IgG molecules bound to RBCs
C)  IgG can only be detected after prolonged incubation
D)  IgG can bind only half as many antigens as IgM

IgG (Coombs) control cells:

A)  can be used only for the indirect Coombs' test
B)  can be used as a positive control for anti-C3 reagents
C)  must be used to confirm all positive Coombs' reactions
D)  are coated only with IgG antibody

What blood type is not possible for an offspring of AO and BO persons?

A) AB
B)  All are possible
C) O
D) A or B

Anti-E is identified in a panel at the antiblobulin phase. When check cells are added to the negative tubes, no agglutination is seen. The most appropriate course of action would be to:

A)  Record the check cell reactions and report the antibody panel result
B)  Open a new vial of AHG for subsequent testing that day
C)  Open a new vial of check cells for subsequent testing that day
D)  Quality control the AHG reagent and check cells, then repeat the panel

A blood donor tests positive for weak D, but also appears to have anti-D in his serum. What may be the problem?

A)  Blocked-D typing phenomenon
B)  A D mosaic may make antibodies to missing antigen parts
C)  Most weak D individuals make anti-D
D)  The problem could be due to a disease state

An acid elution stain was made using a 1-hour postdelivery maternal blood sample. Two thousand cells were counted and thirty of these cells appeared to contain fetal hemoglobin. Your medical center adds one vial of Rh immune globulin to the calculated dose when the estimated volume of the hemorrhage exceeds 20 ml of whole blood. Calculate the number of vials of Rh immune globulin that would be indicated under these circumstances

A) 3
B) 2
C) 5
D) 4

Glycophorin B is associated with the antigenic activity of:

A) Ss
B) Wra/Wrb
C) Lua/Lub
D) MN

Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups?

A) Rh
B) I/i
C) Duffy
D) P

According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as an allogeneic (random)blood donor?

A)  received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously
B)  current: Hgb 11.5 Hct 36
C)  donated a unit of whole blood three months ago
D)  resides with a known hepatitis patient

It is generally asymptomatic but has a very high carrier rate (70-80% have chronic infections). About 10% of the carriers develop cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma. These statements are most typical of which of the following transfusion-transmitted infections?

A) HCV
B) HBV
C) HEV
D) HAV

An exchange transfusion is indicated for an infant weighing 1000 g at birth. The donor blood must meet all of the following criteria except:

A) HLA-matched
B)  O-negative units, less than 5 days old
C) Irradiated
D)  CMV-negative

The following results were obtained when typing a patient's blood sample.

Cell typing - anti-A=4+, anti-B=2+
Serum typing - A1 cells=0, B cells=4+

The tech suspects that this is a case of an acquired B antigen. Which of the following would support this suspicion?

A)  The patient's red cells give a negative result with a monoclonal anti-B reagent lacking the ES-4 clone
B)  Secretor studies show that the patient is a nonsecretor
C)  A positive autocontrol test
D)  A patient diagnosis of leukemia

Which of the following is the best source of HLA-compatible platelets?

A) mother
B)  siblings
C) cousins
D) father

The HLA complex shows strong associations with which blood groups?

A) Rodgers
B) Duffy
C) MN
D) Bg

What type of routine testing does the blood bank technologist perform when determining the blood group of a patient?

A) Phenotyping
B) Genotyping
C) Both genotyping and phenotyping
D) Depends on the type of test request

A unit of packed cells is split into two aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:

A)  8 AM the next morning
B)  4PM on the same day
C)  8PM on the same day
D) the original date of the unsplit unit

Which blood component is most effective in treating a patient with von Willebrand's disease?

A)  Cryoprecipitated AHF
B) Whole Blood
C) Platelets
D) Stored Plasma

How would autoantibodies affect compatibility testing?

A)  Screen cells would always be positive
B) No effect
C)  All tests (ABO, Rh, screen cells, DAT, crossmatch) may show abnormal results
D)  Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) is usually negative

Which of the following medications can cause production of warm autoantibodies?

A) tetracycline
B) cephalothin
C) methyldopa
D) penicillin

Which of the following would be the best source of Platelets for transfusion in the case of alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia?

A) pooled platelet-rich plasma
B) mother
C) polycythemic donor
D) father

Hemolysis of the red cell occurs when which components of complement are attached?

A) C3
B) C8-C9
C) C1
D) C4-C2

Is there a discrepancy between the following blood typing and secretor study results? Blood typing results:
Anti-A=4+, Anti-B=0, A1 cell=0, B cell=4+

Secretor inhibition test results:
Anti-A + saliva + A1 cells=0, Anti-B + saliva + B cells=4+, Anti-H + saliva + O cells=0

A)  Blood types as A1, but secretor study is inconclusive
B)  No problem, the sample is from a group A nonsecretor
C)  Blood types as A and saliva types as B
D)  No problem, the sample is from a group A secretor

What ABO type(s) may donate red cells to any other ABO type?

A)  O-negative
B)  A-negative, B-negative, AB-negative, or O-negative
C)  AB-negative
D)  AB-negative, A-negative, B-negative

Which occurs first following an intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A)  reduction in plasma haptoglobin concentration
B)  urinary excretion of hemosiderin
C)  decrease in serum bilirubin
D)  increase in urine hemoglobin

Which of the following is true about plasma for transfusion?

A)  Thawed 5 day plasma is preferred for volume expander or protein replacement
B) Should be ABO compatible with the patient's RBCs 
C)  Group O plasma is compatible with any recipient
D)  Frozen plasma (less than 24 hours) is the best source for Factor VIII for hemophilia treatment