001. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
C. Airmen are certified according to four categories of aircraft: airplane, glider, and lighter-than-air. The other answers list classes of pilot certification, not categories.
002. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?
B. Each category of aircraft is broken down into classes. The airplane category is divided into single-engine and multi-engine land and sea.
003. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
C. Normal, utility, and aerobatic are three of the categories under which aircraft are certified. Airplane, rotorcraft, and glider are aircraft classes, not categories. Landplane and seaplane are examples of airplane classes for pilot certification.
004. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
B. Aircraft are placed into groups having similar means of propulsion, flight, and landing. These classes include: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and balloon. The other answers list aircraft categories, not classes.
201. The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are:
C. In normal (non-acrobatic) flight conditions, lift is the upward force created by airflow over and under the wings. Weight, caused by the downward pull of gravity, opposes lift. Thrust is the forward force with propels the airplane, and drag is the retarding force opposing thrust. While gravity causes weight, it is not considered one of the four forces. While power and friction affect thrust and drag, they are not aerodynamic forces.
202. When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
C. In straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, the four forces are in equilibrium, Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag. When an aircraft is accelerating, thrust would need to be greater than drag. When an aircraft is resting on the ground, only weight is acting on it, lift, drag, and thrust are essentially zero.
204. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle
C. The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line and the relative wind. "Between the airplane's climb and the horizon" does not describe any aerodynamic term. "Formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing" describes the angle of incidence.
205. What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight and level flight?
A. Assuming the airplane is not accelerating, thrust equals drag, and lift equals weight. All four do not have to be equal. Thrust must equal drag and lift must equal weight.
219. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
C. Because flaps increase lift, inducing drag is also increased, thus allowing a steeper angle of decent without increasing airspeed. The angle of decent is increased, not decreased. Since flaps increase lift, it allows touchdown at a lower airspeed, not an increased airspeed.
220. What is one purpose of wing flaps?
C. Flaps increase both lift and inducing drag, allowing a steeper descent without increasing airspeed.
311. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
A. The critical angle of attack (angle of attack in which an airplane stalls) is determined by the lift coefficient of a particular wing configuration. An airplane will stall when the critical angle of attack is exceeded, regardless of weight or airspeed. The Center of Gravity (CG) and weight do not affect the critical angle of attack.
317. Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the
B. The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line and the relative wind. The pitch angle describes the angle of the airplane's longitudinal axis, not the wing. The rotor plane refers to helicopters, not airplanes.
006. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
C. V^A is defined as the design maneuvering speed. V^LO represents maximum landing gear operating speed. V^NE is the "Never Exceed" speed.
207. In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
B. Torque effect is greatest at low airspeed, high power settings, and high angle of attack. Low airspeed, low power, and low angle of attack produce the least amount of torque effect. High airspeed doesn't produce as much torque as low airspeed.
208. The lift turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
B. P-factor, or asymmetric propeller loading, normally occurs at a high angle of attack. The descending propeller blade on the right side takes a larger "bite" of the air and produces more thrust than the ascending blade on the left. The result is a left turning tendency of the airplane. Engine rotation is related to torque, gyroscopic forces is related to gyroscopic procession, not P-factor.
209. When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
B. P-factor is most pronounced at high angles of attack, which causes the descending propeller blade to produce more thrust. At a low angle of attack, thrust produced by the ascending and descending propeller blades is almost equalized. At high airspeeds, the angle of attack is lower, thus reducing the P-factor.
213. What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
C. Since the rudder moves the airplane about its vertical axis, it is used to control yaw. Overbanking tendency and roll are controlled by ailerons.
217. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the
C. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on an airplane depends on its speed. If abrupt control movements or strong gusts are applied at low airspeed, the airplane will stall before the load becomes excessive. At higher airspeeds, the increased airflow causes a greater lifting capacity. A sudden control input or gust at a high airspeed may result in an excessive load factor on the wings. The position of the CG does not affect the load factor on the wings. The amount of excess load depends on both the speed and the total load. Although abruptness does affect the total load on the airplane, the determining factor is airspeed.
218. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight and level flight?
A. In a level turn, lift must be increased to compensate for the loss of vertical lift as well as overcome centrifugal force. Since the wings must support not only the airplane's weight, but also the load imposed by centrifugal force, the load factor is greater than 1 G. Once established in a climb, there is no additional load factor imposed on the airplane. When an airplane is in a stalled condition, it is producing insufficient lift and the load factor decreases below 1 G.
301. What force makes an airplane turn?
B. In a turn, lift has both a vertical and a horizontal component. The horizontal component of lift, which is also referred to as centripetal force, opposes centrifugal force and causes the airplane to turn. The vertical component of lift opposes weight. The centrifugal force acts outward from the turn and opposes the horizontal component of lift.
312. What is ground effect?
A. When flying close to the ground, the airflow around an airplane is altered by interference with the surface of the earth. The resulting ground effect reduces the induced drag on the airplane. The upwash and downwash of airflow on the wing is reduced and the airplane can fly at lower speeds.
313. Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at:
A. Ground effect becomes noticeable when the height of the airplane above the ground is less than the length of the wingspan. The ground effect is not a result of the angle of attack and at higher angle of attack, airspeed will be lower so that floating will be decreased.
314. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
A. Since ground effect decreases induced drag, the airplane tends to float while excess speed bleeds off. The reduction in induced drag causes wingtip vertices to decrease. The wings produce more lift in ground effect than out of ground effects, therefore, more up elevator deflection would be required.
315. Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
A. The decreased induced drag while in ground effect allows the airplane to become airborne at a lower airspeed. This may fool you into thinking the airplane s capable of flying at the lower airspeed when you climb out of ground effect. Ground effect tends to cause an airplane to float during landing, not settle abruptly.
316. During an approach to stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to
A. Stall speed increases in proportion to load factor. Added G-forces cause an airplane to stall at an airspeed higher than the normal 1-G airspeed. Load factor normally does not effect an airplane's tendency to spin or controllability. Rather, this is a function of the airplane's stability.
711. The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
B. Establish the proper glide attitude and airspeed is critical to ensure the best possibility of reaching a suitable landing area. It also tends to reduce the possibility of a stall/spin accident. Checking the fuel supply is an important step in attempting to restart the engine, but controlling the aircraft is the first priority. Planning for a forced landing is another important step, but should be taken only after establishing the proper glide speed and determining that the engine(s) cannot be restarted.
210. An airplane said to be inherently stable will
B. An airplane that is inherently stable tends to return to its original attitude after it had been displaced and is therefore easier to control. Stability doesn't prevent you from installing or spinning an airplane.
211. What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
C. Longitudinal stability is determined primarily by the location of the center of gravity (CG) in relation to the center of lift. The rudder and rudder trim tab affect the directional stability. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag affects acceleration, but not longitudinal stability.
212. What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nose-down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
C. At higher power settings, in airplanes other than T-tail designs, the propeller slipstream causes a greater downward force on the horizontal stabilizer. When power is reduced, this downward force in the tail is also reduced, and the nose pitches down. CG is determined by how an airplane is built and loaded and is not affected by changes in thrust and drag. Most airplanes can fly with thrust less than the weight.
287. An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
C. When a CG aft of the rear CG limit, the airplane becomes tail heavy and unstable in pitch because the horizontal stabilizer is less effective. This condition makes it difficult, if not impossible, to recover from a stall or spin. An aft CG tends to shorten the takeoff run and may cause the airplane to pitch up and lift easily at a lower than normal airspeed. An airplane with an aft CG also requires less downward force on the tail. The airplane can fly at a lower angle of attack and will stall at a lower airspeed.
288. Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
B. In an airplane loaded to the aft CG limit, the horizontal stabilizer is less effective, causing the airplane to be less stable at all speeds.
309. In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
C. An airplane must be stalled before a spin can develop.
310. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
A. In a spin, both wings are stalled, although the outside wing may be less fully stalled than the inside wing.
089. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
A. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other aircraft.
090. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
A. The aircraft on the right has the right-of-way and the aircraft on the left shall give way.
091. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A. In general, the least maneuverable aircraft normally has the right-of-way. A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft. An aircraft that is towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft (but not a glider).
092. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
C. Since the airship is less maneuverable than an airplane, the airship has the right-of-way.
093. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A. An aircraft towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.
094. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
C. When any aircraft are approaching each other head-on, both pilots should alter their course to the right. For aircraft approaching head-on, the FARs do not make a distinction between aircraft categories.
095. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purposes of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
C. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for landing, the one at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but you should not use the rule to cut in front of another aircraft.
101. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
A. Except for a normal takeoff and landing, you must maintain enough altitude to allow for an emergency landing in the event of an engine failure without undue hazard to people or property on the surface. The minimum altitude for operating over an uncongested area is 500 feet above the surface, and the minimum altitude over a sparsely populated area or over open water is 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
102. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
C. An altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet.
103. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
B. An altitude of 500 feet above ground level (AGL), except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicles, or structure.
104. Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
A. The words person, vessel, vehicle, or structure apply for operations over a sparsely populated or open water area, and the distance is 500 feet.
105. If the altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
B. If unable to obtain a local altimeter setting, you should set the altimeter to the field elevation prior to departure.
106. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
B. You should set the altimeter to the field elevation prior to departure.
155. Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a Visual flight rules (VFR) flight on the magnetic course of 135°?
A. On an easterly magnetic course (0° to 179°) above 3000 feet above ground level (AGL), Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitudes are odd thousands plus 500 feet. Even thousands (plus 500 feet) are used for westbound courses above 3000 feet above ground level (AGL).
156. Which Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1000 feet.
C. This answer is correct because it is the only answer with odd thousands plus 500 feet.
157. Which Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3000 feet above ground level (AGL) on a magnetic course of 185°?
A. Because the courses westerly, and even thousands altitude plus 500 feet is used.
158. Each person operating an aircraft at Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitude should maintain an odd thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a
C. Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitudes on an easterly magnetic course (0° to 179°) are odd thousands +500 feet. Visual flight rules (VFR) altitudes are based on magnetic course, not true course or heading.
710. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
B. To ensure you can see other aircraft which may be blocked by blind spots, make clear interns and scan the area. While it is important to maintain an instrument scan, it is crucial to clear the area. You should not practice maneuvers in the vicinity of an airport.
814. What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending Visual flight rules (VFR) on an airway?
B. Because of potential traffic on the airways, it is important to scan. Making shallow turns allows you to compensate for blind spots. FSS does not provide traffic control or advisories on airways. ATC is expecting you to maintain the airway centerline.
833. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
C. Since haze reduces visibility, objects are closer than they appear. Without a definite visible object, which is sometimes the case in haze conditions, the eyes tend to relax and focus on a point in space about 3 to 5 feet away, not infinity.
834. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
B. The eyes are able to focus clearly only on a small area, approximately 10°, so a series of short eye movements is most effective. All sectors should be scanned. Peripheral vision and off-center viewing are most effective at night, not during the day.
835. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
B. The eyes are able to focus clearly only on a small area, approximately 10°, so a series of short eye movements is most effective. All sectors should be scanned. Peripheral vision and off-center viewing are most effective at night, not during the day.
836. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
C. A lack of relative movement can indicate that the two aircraft are moving toward one another on a collision course. There are times when the other aircraft may not appear to get larger or closer until just before collision. Even though the aircraft might be headed toward the same point, different aircraft speeds might keep them from reaching the same point at the same time.
120. Each pilot in an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (visual approach slope indicator (VASI)) shall
B. The visual approach slope indicator (VASI) glide path provides safe obstruction clearance to the runway. Therefore, the pilot should fly at or above the glide path. Not all visual approach slope indicator (VASI)s have a 3° glide path. visual approach slope indicator (VASI)s are intended to provide a glide path for a normal approach.
121. When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (visual approach slope indicator (VASI)), the pilot shall
B. The pilot should fly at or above the glide path. There is no requirement to land between the light bars.
302. When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
C. With a quartering tailwind, the aileron should be down on the side from which the wind is blowing in order to prevent the wind from flowing under the wing and lifting.
303. Which aileron position should a pilot generally used when taxiing in a strong ordering tailwind?
A. To counteract the lifting tendency of a quartering headwind, the aileron should be up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
304. Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nose-wheel equipped high-wing airplane?
C. A tricycle-gear, high-wing airplane is most susceptible to a quartering tailwind because a strong airflow beneath the wing and horizontal stabilizer can lift the airplane and tip or nose it over.
305. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering head wind?
C. While taxiing a tricycle-gear airplane in a quartering headwind, that failure on should be up on the side for which the wind is blowing, and the elevator neutral to prevent any lifting force on the tail. In this case, the wind is from the left so the left aileron should be up.
306. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?
B. In a tailwheel airplane, the aileron is held up on the upwind aside, and the elevator is held up to prevent the tail from lifting. Since the tale of most tailwheel airplanes is lower than the nose while taxiing, a strong head wind blowing on a neutral or down elevator could cause the tail to rise.
307. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
A. For a quartering tailwind, the controls are held the same for both tailwheel and tricycle-gear airplanes. Ailerons are down on the side from which the wind is blowing. The elevator is down to prevent the wind from lifting the tail.
308. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
C. A tricycle-gear, high-wing airplane is most susceptible to a quartering tailwind because a strong airflow beneath the wing and horizontal stabilizer can lift the airplane and tip or nose it over. For a quartering tailwind, the controls are held the same for both tailwheel and tricycle-gear airplanes. Ailerons are down on the side from which the wind is blowing. The elevator is down to prevent the wind from lifting the tail.
718. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
A. Taxiway edge lights are blue. White lights are used for runway edges and centerlines. Alternating red and green lights are not used for taxiway lighting.
760. A slightly higher glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator (PAPI) is
C. A slightly high indication on a precision approach path indicator (PAPI) shows three white lights and one red light. Four white lights is a high indication. Two white lights and two red lights are on the glide path.
761. A below glide path indication from a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI) is a
B. A below glide slope indication on a tricolor is read. The color pink is not used in a tricolor system. A green light indicates you are on the glide path.
762. An above glide slope indication from a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI) is
C. Amber is the color used for above glide path indication. White is not used on a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI). Green is the indication for being on the glide path.
763. An on-glide slope indication from a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI) is
C. Green is the indication for being on the glide path. Amber is the color used for above glide path indication. White is not used on a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI).
764. A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
B. A pulsating approach slope indicator provides a pulsating red light when below glide slope. A pulsating white light indicates above glide slope. A study white light indicates on glide slope.
768. To set the height intensity runway lights on the medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone 7 times, then click it
A. At airports with three-step pilot controlled runway lighting systems, 7 clicks turns all the lights on to the maximum intensity. 5 clicks turns the lights to medium. 1 click does not change the light setting. 3 clicks turns the lights to the lowest intensity.
769. An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
B. When the airport beacon is on during the daytime, it usually means that the ceiling is less than 1000 feet and/or the visibility is less than three statute miles (below basic Visual flight rules (VFR) minimums). The beacon is not used to indicate obstructions, nor does it indicate the control tower is not in operation. Remember, though, the airport beacon may not always be turned on when the weather is below Visual flight rules (VFR) minimums.
771. A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
B. A military airport beacon has two quick flashes of white light between green flashes. White and green alternating flashes indicates a civilian airport beacon. Green, yellow, and red flashes indicates a heliport.
772. How can a military airport be identified at night?
A. A military airport beacon has two quick flashes of white light between green flashes. White and green alternating flashes indicates a civilian airport beacon. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location does not describe any airport beacon.
067. The width of a federal airway from either side of the centerline is
B. federal airways include the airspace within four nautical miles each side of the airway centerline.
068. Unless otherwise specified, federal airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
B. federal airways normally began at 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and extend up to, but not including, 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL). 700 feet is the floor of Class E airspace associated with an airport for which an approved instrument approach procedure has been published airways do not normally began at the surface and do not include 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
069. Normal Visual flight rules (VFR) operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least
A. in order to operate in Class D airspace, the Visual flight rules (VFR) visibility minimum is three statute miles. In addition, the ceiling must be at least 1000 feet. 2500 feet is the top of most Class D airspace areas.
107. At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?
A. to standardize altimeter settings in Class A airspace, all pilots are required to set their altimeter to 29.92 at and above 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
118. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
A. in order for airspace to be classified as Class D there must be an operating control tower.
119. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communication with air traffic control are required for landings or takeoffs
B. when operating at an airport where control tower is in operation, you must be in radio contact with ATC whether or not Visual flight rules (VFR) conditions exist.
124. Two-way radio communication must be established with the air traffic control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which Class Airspace?
A. You must establish two-way communication prior to entering a Class C airspace area, and maintain it while operating within the Class C airspace. Two-way communications are not required in Class E or G airspace.
125. What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
C. To operate in a Class C airspace area, you are required to have both a two-way radio and a 4096 – code transponder with encrypting altimeter. DME is not required for a Class C airspace.
126. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
B. To operate in a Class B airspace area, a pilot must hold a private pilot certificate. However, within certain Class B airspace areas, student pilot operations may be conducted after receiving specific training and a logbook endorsements from an authorized flight instructor.
127. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
B. to operate in a Class B airspace area, a pilot must hold a private pilot certificate. However, within certain Class B airspace areas, student pilot operations may be conducted after receiving specific training and a logbook endorsements from an authorized flight instructor.
128. What minimum radio equipment is required for Visual flight rules (VFR) operation within Class B airspace?
B. Visual flight rules (VFR) operations within Class B airspace areas require a two-way radio and a 4096–code transponder with an encoding altimeter. VOR or TACAN receivers are only required for instrument flight.
129. An operable 4096 – code transponder and mode C encoding altimeter are required in
B. A 4096–code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required for operation within a Class B airspace area. It is not required in a Class D airspace or Class E airspace below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
130. In which type of airspace are Visual flight rules (VFR) flights prohibited?
B. Only IFR operations are allowed in Class A airspace. Visual flight rules (VFR) flights are allowed in Class B and Class C airspace if authorized by ATC.
136. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirements for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight is
C. In controlled airspace above 10,000 feet, it does not matter whether you are above or below 1200 feet above ground level (AGL). The Visual flight rules (VFR) cloud clearance is 2000 feet horizontal.
137. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for Visual flight rules (VFR) operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet above ground level (AGL) or below during daylight hours?
A. For Visual flight rules (VFR) flight in uncontrolled airspace below 1200 feet during daytime, you are only required to have 1 mile visibility and remain clear of clouds. 3-mile visibility applies to Visual flight rules (VFR) operations in Class B airspace. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet applies between 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) during daytime in uncontrolled airspace.
138. What minimum flight visibility is required for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL)?
C. Since an airway is Class E airspace, the minimum visibility below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) is three statute miles.
139. The minimum distance from clouds required for Visual flight rules (VFR) operations on an airway below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) is
B. The Visual flight rules (VFR) cloud clearances for Class E airspace apply. Below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), you must remain 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontally
140. During operations within control airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), but less than 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), the minimum distance above clouds requirement for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight is
B. Below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) in Class C, D, and E airspace, the cloud clearances are 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal. In Class B airspace, however, the cloud clearance is just "clear of clouds".
141. Visual flight rules (VFR) flight in controlled airspace above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
A. Below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) in Class C, D, and E airspace, the cloud clearances are 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal. The visibility and cloud clearances for 5 miles apply only above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and at or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
142. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), but less than 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), the minimum flight visibility for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight at night is
B. In Class G airspace at these altitudes, night VFR operations require 3-miles visibility. 1 mile is the minimum required for day time at these altitudes. 5 miles is required above 1200 above ground level (AGL) and at or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) for both day and night.
143. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) during daylight hours is
C. In uncontrolled airspace below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) and above 10,000 feet above ground level (AGL), required daytime visibility is one-mile. In Class G airspace at these altitudes night Visual flight rules (VFR) operations require 3 miles visibility. 5 miles is required for 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and at or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) for both day and night.
144. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), but less than 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), the minimum distance below clouds requirement for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight at night is
C. At night, in uncontrolled airspace above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) (both above and below 1200 feet above ground level (AGL)), the Visual flight rules (VFR) cloud clearance is 500 feet below. 1000 feet is the clearance above clouds at these altitudes. 1500 feet is not appropriate.
145. The minimum flight visibility required for Visual flight rules (VFR) flights above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) and more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) in controlled airspace is
C. At or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) and above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), the required visibility is five statute miles, whether in control or uncontrolled airspace.
146. For Visual flight rules (VFR) flight operations above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) and more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
A. Whether in controlled or uncontrolled airspace at these altitudes, the minimum Visual flight rules (VFR) horizontal distance from clouds is one statute mile.
147. During operations at altitudes of more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and at or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), the minimum distance above clouds requirement for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight is
A. For Visual flight rules (VFR) flights at these altitudes, whether in controlled airspace or not, you are required to remain 1000 feet above clouds. The only exception is for daytime operations above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) in uncontrolled airspace. In this case it is clear of clouds.
148. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic Visual flight rules (VFR) at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
C. To take off or land under Visual flight rules (VFR) in a Class D airspace area, the ceiling must be at least 1000 feet and the ground visibility must be at least 3 statute miles. Flight visibility may be used if ground visibility is not available. 1 statute mile visibility only applies under special Visual flight rules (VFR).
149. The basic Visual flight rules (VFR) weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
A. To take off or land under Visual flight rules (VFR) in a Class D airspace area, the ceiling must be at least 1000 feet in the ground visibility must be at least 3 statute miles.
150. A special Visual flight rules (VFR) clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate Visual flight rules (VFR) well within Class D airspace when the visibility is
C. When authorized by ATC, special Visual flight rules (VFR) allows you to operate with 1 statute mile visibility as long as you can remain clear of clouds.
151. What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special Visual flight rules (VFR) in Class D airspace?
C. When authorized by ATC, special Visual flight rules (VFR) allows you to operate with 1 statute mile visibility as long as you can remain clear of clouds.
153. What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special Visual flight rules (VFR) in Class D airspace at night?
C. For special Visual flight rules (VFR) at night, you must have a current instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped with IFR operations. Radar is not a requirement for Class D airspace. A transponder is not required equipment in Class D airspace.
154. No person may operate in airplane within Class D airspace at night under special Visual flight rules (VFR) unless the
B. Minimums for special VR at night are the same as for day (1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds). For special VR at night, you must have a current instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped with IFR operations.
165. An operable 4096 – code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
B. And encoding transponder is required in Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace. It is not required in Class D or Class E airspace.
166. With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) must be equipped with
C. An appropriate transponder capable of providing altitude encoding is required to be in use when within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport. VOR or TACAN receiver (ADF is not applicable) is only required for IFR operations within Class B airspace. IFR instruments and equipment are not required for Class B airspace operations.
601. What hazards two aircraft may exist in warning areas such as warning W – 50B?
A. Warning areas often contain hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
602. What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
A. A military operations area (MOA) is a block of airspace in which military training and maneuvers are conducted.
603. What type of military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?
A. "IR 644" is a military training route, on which aircraft may fly at speeds above 250 knots. "IR" designates a route used for IFR operations. Since the designation is a three-digit number, the route contains one or more segments above 1500 feet above ground level (AGL). Flights along routes with four digit numbers are conducted below 1500 feet above ground level (AGL). Visual flight rules (VFR) flights are normally conducted on routes designated VR.
779. The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
C. The vertical limit of Class C airspace is 4000 feet above the primary airport. This is the same for both inner and outer circles. 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) is the floor of the outer circle (5 n.m. to 10 n.m. radius).
780. The normal radius the outer area of Class C airspace is
C. The outer area of Class C airspace normally extends 20 nautical miles from the primary airport. 5 nautical miles is the dimension of the inner circle, while the outer circle has a radius of 10 nautical miles. 15 nautical miles is not used to define any portion of Class C airspace.
782. Under what condition man aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
C. The pilot must establish two-way communications with ATC as soon as practical after takeoff. The pilot is not required to file a flight plan for operating in a Class C airspace.
783. Under what conditions, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
B. The controlling agency may grant permission to fly through a restricted area. Airways do not usually transit a restricted area.
785. What actions should the pilot take when operating under Visual flight rules (VFR) in a military operations area?
C. Due to the possibility of military training activities, pilots operating in a MOA should use extra caution and be alert for other aircraft. Clearance to fly in a MOA is not required.
786. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
C. All pilots flying in an alert area, whether participating in activities or transitioning the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance. Even when operating under Air Traffic Control, pilots are not relieved of their responsibility for collision avoidance.
787. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
C. The actual lateral dimensions of Class D airspace vary with each location, but, in general, Class D airspace is based on the instrument procedures for the airport in that area. To the maximum extent practical and consistent with safety, satellite airports have been excluded from Class D airspace. Five statute miles is the dimension of the old "airport traffic area" designation, which is no longer valid.
788. A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
A. When approaching Class D airspace, you must contact the primary airports control tower before entering the airspace. When departing a non-towered satellite airport, contact the controlling tower as soon as practical after takeoff. Unicom and the Flight Service Station, in this context, do not fit the definition of an ATC facility providing air traffic services
799. Which intentional action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
C. Prior to entering Class C airspace, you need to establish contact with approach control. The tower sequences traffic for landing, but is not the facility to contact before entering Class C airspace.
813. What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special Visual flight rules (VFR) departure clearance in Class D airspace?
B. The control tower is the ATC facility which issues a special Visual flight rules (VFR) clearance.
571. An aircraft departs an airport in the Eastern Daylight Time zone at 0945 for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the Central Daylight Time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
A. To convert the local departure time to UTC, add 4 hours (0945 + 4 = 1345). Two hours later is 1545Z.
572. An aircraft departs an airport in the Central Standard Time zone at 0930 for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the Mountain Standard Time zone. The landing should be at what time?
C. Add 2 hours to the 09:30 departure time to find the arrival time of 1130 CST. Since Mountain time is 1 hour earlier than Central, subtract 1 hour, for a landing time of 1030 MST.
573. An aircraft departs in airport in the Central Standard Time zone at 0845 for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the Mountain Standard Time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
B. Departure time (0845) plus 2 hours is 1045 CST. Convert CST to UTC by adding 6 hours, for a landing time of 1645Z.
574. An aircraft departs in airport in the Mountain Standard Time zone at 1615 for a 2-hour 15-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific Standard Time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport should be
A. Add 2:15 to 1615 MST to find the arrival time of 1830 MST. Since Pacific time is one hour earlier than MST the arrival time is 1730 MST.
574. An aircraft departs and airport in the Pacific Standard Time zone at 1030 for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the Central Standard Time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated Universal Time?
C. Add 4 hours to 1030 PST to find the arrival time of 1430 PST. To convert PST to UTC, at 8 hours. The landing time is 2230Z.
576. An aircraft departs an airport in the Mountain Standard Time zone at 1515 for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific Standard Time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?
C. Add 2:30 to 1515 MST to find the arrival time of 1745 MST. Convert MST to PST by subtracting 1 hour. The answer is 1645 PST.
613. When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is
C. The call sign for a flight service station is its name, followed by the word "radio". The aircraft's full call sign should be given, using the phonetic alphabet.
614. The correct method for stating 4500 feet MSL to ATC is
C. Altitudes should be stated as individual numbers with a number of hundreds or thousands added as appropriate. In this case, 4500 feet should be read as "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
615. The correct method for stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
B. Altitudes should be stated as individual numbers with a number of hundreds or thousands added as appropriate. In addition, for altitudes at or above 10,000 feet MSL, each digit of the thousands is pronounced, so that 10,500 becomes "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."
789. Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area a pilot should
C. A local non-automated FSS provides airport and traffic advisories for an Airport Advisory Area. An Automatic terminal information service (ATIS) may not be available, and does not give traffic advisories. Whether or not you received assistance from approach control, you should contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
837. An ATC clearance provides
A. A clearance is authorization from ATC to operate under specific conditions in controlled airspace. It does not give a pilot priority over all other traffic, as other aircraft may also have an ATC clearance. While the purpose of a clearance is to provide separation from known traffic, it does not guarantee separation from unknown or nonparticipating aircraft.
111. A steady greenlight signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
C. A steady greenlight while in flight means you are cleared to land. A steady red light would be used to indicate that the pilot should give way to other aircraft and continue circling. A flashing green light would be used to indicate the pilot should return for landing.
112. Which light signal from the control tower clears the pilot to taxi?
C. While on the ground, a flashing green light means cleared to taxi. A steady green light means cleared for takeoff. A flashing white light means return to the aircraft's starting point on the airport.
113. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct the pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be
C. While in flight, a steady red light means give way and continue circling. A flashing red light means that the airport is unsafe; do not land. An alternating red and green light means to exercise extreme caution.
114. A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
A. A flashing white light while operating on the ground means return to the starting point on the airport.
115. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
B. An alternating red and green signal means the same whether you are in flight or on the ground - exercise extreme caution.
116. While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should
B. An alternating red and green signal means exercise extreme caution. This is followed by a flashing red signal, which, in flight, means that the airport is unsafe.
191. No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
C. The transponder must have been tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months.
759. To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, the aircraft must have a
A. A Very High Frequency Direction Finder (VHF/DF) facilities use a directional antenna and a VHF radio receiver. The equipment displays the direction of the aircraft each time it transmits on its VHF radio. A transponder code will show up on the radar screen, but not on a VHF/DF facility. A VOR (VHF omnidirectional range) and DME (distance measuring equipment) will indicate an aircraft's position relative to a ground station, but is not part of the directional finder facilities on the ground.
791. ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
A. Automatic terminal information service (ATIS) is broadcast at certain busy airports, and provides noncontrol weather and runway information.
792. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°: "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...". Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
C. Since the pilot is heading east (090°), the 3 o'clock position is to the right which is south.
793. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...". Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
C. Since the pilots 12 o'clock position is north the 10 o'clock position is Northwest.
794. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND...". Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A. Since the pilots 12 o'clock is directly ahead and 3 o'clock is 90° to the right, 2 o'clock is approximately 60° right.
795. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on north in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...". Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
C. The pilots 12 o'clock is North, so 9 o'clock is left, or west.
796. Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
C. Basic radar service for VFR aircraft provides traffic and advisories and limited vectoring on a workload permitting basis. Basic service is not mandatory for VFR aircraft. Wind shear warning is not part of the basic radar service.
797. From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request Stage II Terminal Radar Advisory Service during ground operations?
A. You should notify ground control on initial contact that you are requesting radar traffic information. Clearance delivery normally only provides IFR clearances. ATC needs to forward the clearance delivery request to departure control. Requesting the service just before takeoff could delay either the departure or availability of the service. Note: the terminology for radar service is changing to Basic, TRSA, Class C, and Class B.
798. Stage III Service in the terminal radar program provides
C. Stage III service provides sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft. It does not always provide IFR minimum separation, because visual separation is used when conditions permit. Also, separation is not provided between all aircraft, only participating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft. Separation is provided from other aircraft, not necessarily from obstacles and terrain. Note: the terminology for radar service is changing to Basic, TRSA, Class C, Class B.
800. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
A. You should avoid inadvertent selection of transponder codes which may set off false alarms at radar facilities. These codes are: 7500 for hijacking, 7600 for radio communication failure, and 7700 for emergencies.
801. When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
C. The transponder code for VFR aircraft is 1200. Aircraft operating above 18,000 feet MSL are in Class A airspace and must have and IFR clearance. 7600 is the code for radio failure. 7700 is the code for emergencies.
802. Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?
A. The transponder code for VFR aircraft is 1200. Aircraft operating above 18,000 feet MSL are in Class A airspace and must have and IFR clearance. 7600 is the code for radio failure. 7700 is the code for emergencies.
803. If air traffic control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
B. Since you would then be operating under VFR, the transponder should be set to 1200. 0000 is not a designated VFR transponder code. 4096 is the number of discrete codes which are available on a 4 digit transponder with each digit starting at 0 and ending in 7.
804. If the aircraft radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
C. To avoid conflicts and cause the least disruption in the traffic flow, determine the landing direction, and enter the pattern. Watch the tower for a light signal and acknowledged by rocking the wings. At night, acknowledged by flashing the landing or navigation lights. A crosswind entry is not normal, and rocking the wings is done to acknowledge tower light signals. Flashing lights is an acknowledgment of the tower light signals. Also, cycling the gear is not a signal, and you should stay outside and above the pattern instead of circling the airport when determining traffic flow.
811. After landing at a tower controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
B. The tower will normally instruct you to exit the runway and contact ground control. The taxiway used to exit the runway may not lead directly to the parking area, and you must still receive a clearance from ground control to taxi.
812. If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
C. A clearance to taxi to a runway allows the pilot to proceed to that runway and across any intersecting runways. You do not have to hold at it intersecting runway and await clearance. You may not take off because you have neither been cleared to taxi onto the runway or cleared for takeoff.
819. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
B. The frequencies used for ELTs are the emergency frequencies of 121.5 MHz (VHF) and 243.0 MHz (UHF).
820. When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or charged if the battery is rechargeable)?
C. The ELT battery must be replaced or recharged after one half the batteries useful life.
821. When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?
C. To prevent false alarms, ELT testing should be conducted only during the first five minutes after any hour.
822. Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
C. By monitoring 121.5, you will be able to hear the ELT signal if it has been activated.
247. If the pitot tube outside static events become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
A. The altimeter, the airspeed indicator, and the vertical speed indicator all use static air and would therefore be affected. The turn-and-slip indicator and altitude indicators do not rely on static error.
248. Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
C. The airspeed indicator operates by sensing RAM air (impact pressure) in the pitot tube. The altimeter and VSI use pressure readings from the static airports.
249. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
C. The altimeter, the airspeed indicator, and the vertical speed indicator (VSI) all you static air and would therefore be affected.
254. Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
A. When the current altimeter setting is set on the ground, the altimeter reads true altitude of the field, which is the actual height above mean sea level. There is no such thing as calibrated altitude. Absolute altitude is the actual height above the Earth's surface which would be zero field elevation.
255. How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
A. Because atmospheric pressure levels are raised on warm days, the aircraft will be at a higher altitude than indicated. In other words the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude.
256. What is true altitude?
A. True altitude is the actual height (vertical distance) above mean sea level. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface is the absolute altitude. The height above the standard datum plane describes pressure altitude.
257. What is absolute altitude?
B. Absolute altitude is the height (vertical distance) above the surface. The height above the standard datum plane is the pressure altitude.
258. What is density altitude?
B. Density altitude is found by applying a correction for nonstandard temperature to the pressure altitude.
259. What is pressure altitude?
A. Pressure altitude is the height above the standard datum plane when 29.92 is set in the scale. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure describes density altitude.
260. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
B. At sea level under standard conditions both indicated and true altitude would be zero. The other answers would require correction for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
261. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
B. A 1 inch change of Hg in the altimeter equals 1000 feet of altitude change in the same direction. In this case, you increase the altitude .7 of an inch (29.85 - 29.15 = .7), therefore, the indicated altitude increases 700 feet.
262. The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instruments?
A. The airspeed indicator senses impact pressure to provide an airspeed reading. The altimeter and vertical speed indicator utilize only static air.
263. As altitude increases, the indicated air speed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
B. Since airspeed indicators are calibrated to read true airspeed only under standard C level conditions, the indicated airspeed does not reflect lower air density at higher altitudes. As a result, the indicated airspeed of the stall remains the same. Indicated airspeed and true airspeed do not change with an increase in altitude.
264. What does the red line on the airspeed indicator represent?
C. The red line is the never exceeds speed. Maneuvering, turbulence, or rough airspeed's are not displayed on an airspeed indicator.
268. What color identifies the never exceeds speed on an airspeed indicator?
A. The red line is the never exceeds speed, the yellow arc is the caution range and the white arc is the flat operating range.
269. Which color on an airspeed indicator identifies the power off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
C. The lower limit of the green arc represents the power off stall speed in a specified configuration (usually flaps up, gear retracted). The upper limit of the green arc is the maximum structural cruising speed. The upper limit of the white arc is the maximum speed with flaps extended.
271. What color on an airspeed indicator identifies the normal flap operating range?
A. The white arc indicates the normal flap operating range.
272. What color on an airspeed indicator identifies the power off stalling speed with the wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
B. Stall speed with flaps and gear down is represented by the lower limit of the white arc. The upper limit of the green arc is the maximum structural cruising speed, while the upper limit of the white arc is the maximum flaps extended speed.
274. What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color-coded on an airspeed indicator?
C. The maneuvering speed of an airplane is not shown on the airspeed indicator. It can be found in the airplane manual or on placards. The never exceed speed is indicated by the red radio line. The maximum structural cruising speed is indicated by the upper limit of the green arc.
386. What are the standard temperature and pressure values at sea level?
B. The standard atmosphere is a temperature of 15°C (59°F) and 29.92" Hg (1013.2 mbar).
388. Under what condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
C. Pressure altitude equals true altitude when standard atmospheric conditions exist. When nonstandard conditions exist, true altitude will not equal pressure altitude. The other answers are wrong because they do not take into account temperatures that derive from standard values.
390. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
C. The aircraft will be at a higher true (actual) altitude above sea level that is indicated. In other words, the altimeter will indicate lower than the actual altitude. The only time the altitude indicates actual (true) altitude is when standard atmospheric conditions exist, and the correct altimeter setting is used.
391. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
B. Remember, "from high to low lookout below." In other words, the aircraft will be at a lower true (actual) altitude then indicated, so the altimeter indicates higher than actual.
392. Under what conditions will true altitude below or than indicated altitude?
C. When air is colder than standard, the aircraft's actual (true) altitude will be lower than indicated. In warmer than standard conditions, true altitude will be higher than indicated. There is not a direct correlation between density altitude and indicated altitude.
393. Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
C. In warmer than standard conditions, true altitude will be higher than indicated. When air is colder than standard, the aircraft's actual (true) altitude will be lower than indicated.
394. Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
C. Since density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temperature, it increases with increased temperature. An increase in barometric pressure lowers the pressure altitude. Thus, density altitude would also decrease. Density altitude would increase with an increase in relative humidity.
275. A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A. The turn indicator senses movement about the vertical axis (yaw) and longitudinal axis (roll). The miniature airplane indicates rate of turn, not angle of bank, which is the attitude of the aircraft in relation to the longitudinal axis.
276. To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
B. To correct for precision, the pilot must realign the heading indicator with the magnetic compass at regular intervals.
277. The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
B. The miniature airplane is adjustable and should be set to match the level flight indication of the horizontal bar. The horizontal bar is not adjustable, it moves only when the aircraft changes pitch.
279. Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
A. Metal and electronic components in the aircraft create magnetic fields which distort the lines of magnetic force. This causes deviation errors in the compass readings. Deviation is not caused by flaws in the magnets. The difference between true and magnetic north is called variation, not deviation.
280. In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
C. When turning from a northerly heading, the compass initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction. When starting a right turn, toward the east, the compass begins to show a turn to the west. Acceleration error does not occur when on a heading of north or south.
281. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if
B. When turning from a northerly heading, the compass initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction. During a left turn toward the West, the magnetic compass would initially indicate a turn to the east.
282. In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
A. Acceleration error is most pronounced on East/West headings. Using the acronym ANDS (accelerate - North, decelerate - South), acceleration will show a turn to the north, and deceleration will show a turn to the south. Turning errors are not evident when beginning turns from an East or West heading.
283. In the northern hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
A. Acceleration error is most pronounced on East/West headings. Using the acronym ANDS (accelerate - North, decelerate - South), acceleration will show a turn to the north, and deceleration will show a turn to the south. Turning errors are not evident when beginning turns from an East or West heading.
284. In the northern hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerating or decelerating, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A. Since acceleration and deceleration errors are most pronounced on east/west headings, accelerating and decelerating on a north or south heading will not show much of an error on the magnetic compass.
286. During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
C. Magnetic dip causes turning and acceleration/deceleration errors. For this reason, magnetic compass indications are accurate only in straight and level on accelerated flight. If the airspeed is constant in a turn, the compass will still show turning errors. Errors will occur during turns regardless of the bank angle.
221. Excessively high engine temperatures will
B. High temperature can cause detonation and a resulting loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and engine damage, including scoring of the cylinders and damage to pistons, rings, and valves.
222. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
A. With high power settings and the mixture set to lean, overheating can result. This can be indicated by a high engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature. When the mixture is too rich, temperatures are usually lower than normal. High oil pressure does not normally cause high temperatures. However, low oil levels can cause high oil temperature.
223. One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
A. Dual ignition systems fire to spark plugs, which improves combustion of the fuel/air mixture and results in slightly more power. The ignition system does not affect heat distribution or cylinder head pressure.
225. The operating principle of float–type carburetors is based on the
B. The decreased pressure caused by air flowing rapidly through the venturi tube draws fuel from the flow chamber. Air is not metered at the venturi. The increased air velocity at the venturi throat causes a decrease in air pressure not an increase.
226. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
C. If fuel flow is not decreased with altitude, the mixture becomes too rich with fuel. Therefore, the fuel measure must be leaned to maintain the proper fuel/air ratio. Air density is decreased with altitude, not increased. Increasing the fuel mixture would further enrich the error/fuel mixture.
227. During the run-up at a high elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat checked. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
A. In this case, engine roughness is probably caused by the mixture set to Rich for the high-altitude. When the carburetor heat is turned on, the warm air entering the carburetor is less dense, and the mixture is further enriched. As a result, the engine roughness increases. The problem can usually be corrected by leaving the mixture. Detonation is the result of a mixture that is too late.
228. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a dissent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
B. With a decrease in altitude, air density increases. This means you will have to enrich the mixture as you to send, otherwise the fuel/air mixture can become excessively lean.
229. Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
B. Carburetor icing is most likely between 20°F and 70°F in high humidity conditions the other answers are incorrect because carburetor icing is less likely with low humidity.
230. The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as
A. Icing is more probable below 70°F with high humidity the possibility of carburetor icing decreases below 32°F, down to 20°F. At 0°F, the humidity is generally low.
231. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed – pitch propeller and a float – type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A. The restricted airflow through the carburetor causes an enriched mixture and loss of RPM. While a drop in temperatures may result, they will not be the first indication of carburetor ice. Engine roughness may develop later, but will not be the first indication of perforator ice.
232. Applying carburetor heat will
C. When the carburetor heat is turned on, the warmer air entering the carburetor is less dense, the mixture is enriched. The result would be less air going through the carburetor not more air.
233. What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
B. When the carburetor heat is turned on, the warmer air entering the carburetors less dense, the mixture is enriched.
234. Generally speaking, the use of carburetor he tends to
B. Since the warmer air entering the carburetor is less dense, the fuel/air mixture is enriched and power decreases.
235. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed–pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
C. When carburetor he is first applied, the mixture is enriched, and RPM decreases. Then, as the ice melts, airflow into the carburetor increases, leaning the mixture, and RPM increases.
236. With regard to carburetor ice, float – type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
C. Because fuel injection systems do not have a Venturi throat, they are not as susceptible to icing as float – type carburetors. Icing is possible when the humidity is high, regardless of whether visible moisture is present or not.
237. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
C. The higher the grade of fuel, the more pressure it can withstand without detonating. Conversely, low fuel grades are more prone to detonation. When detonation occurs, cylinder head temperatures increase.
238. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
B. Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture suddenly explodes in the cylinder instead of burning smoothly. When the fuel ignites in advance of normal ignition this is called pre-ignition.
239. If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
B. Detonation occurs when the engine overheats. One action to help cool the engine is to increase airspeed, thus increasing the cooling airflow around the engine. Detonation can result from a mixture that is to lead. Because carburetor heat tends to increase engine temperature applying carburetor heat makes the problem worse.
240. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
A. Preignition occurs when the fuel/air mixture ignites too soon. Combustion is the normal burning of the mixture. Detonation occurs when fuel explodes instead of burning smoothly.
244. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
B. Engine oil lubricates moving parts, reduces friction, and remove some of the heat from the cylinders. Reciprocating aircraft engines are not normally equipped with thermostats. Outside air is important for engine cooling, but the air is primarily directed to the hottest parts of the engine, especially the cylinders.
245. An abnormal high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
C. If the oil level is too low, it can cause high engine oil temperatures. While it is important to use the proper oil height and weight, it is not as likely to cause abnormally high temperatures as a loyal rich mixture tends to cool the engine slightly instead of causing high temperatures.
651. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during the climb?
B. Reducing the rate of climb and increasing airspeed will increase the cooling airflow around the engine. Increasing RPM will increase engine temperature. Reducing the climb speed reduces the cooling airflow which could result in a hotter engine.
652. What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
B. A richer fuel mixture burns at a slightly lower temperature and helps cool the engine.
653. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
A. The throttle controls the power output of the engine, which is indicated on the manifold pressure gauge. The propeller control changes the pitch of the propeller blades, thus controlling engine RPM, which is indicated on the tachometer. The propeller control does not maintain a constant blade angle. Rather, it varies pitch to maintain a constant speed. The throttle does not directly control engine RPM, and the mixture control is not used to regulate power.
654. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
A. By selecting the propeller blade angle, the pilot can convert a high percentage of the engine power into thrust over a wide range of RPM and airspeed combinations. This allows the most efficient performance to be gained from the engine. A constant-speed propeller is not necessary for maintaining a desired airspeed.
655. A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
C. For a given RPM setting, there is a maximum allowable manifold pressure. Generally, high manifold pressures with low RPM should be avoided to prevent internal stresses within the engine. I manifold pressures are allowable with high RPM settings, within limits. The mixture should be leaned for optimum performance.
656. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
A. Immediately after starting the engine, set the proper RPM and check engine gauges for proper indications.
657. Should it become necessary to hand prop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
A. When hand propping an airplane, a competent pilot must be at the control to prevent the airplane from moving and to set the engine controlled properly. The person propping the engine does not have to be a pilot nor do they have to call contact. Since the pilot must be at the controls, not just in the cockpit, the person hand propping the engine is in charge of the starting procedure.
224. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, the practice of running a fuel tank dry before switching tanks is considered unwise because
B. The greatest danger in running a fuel tank dry is that error can enter the fuel system and cause vapor lock. The other answers can be problems but these are secondary concerns compared to vapor lock.
241. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature an engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating range?
A. Lower grade fuels will detonate under less pressure. Using a lower fuel rating than specified can cause excessive engine temperature. A high oil pressure may be an indication of a problem, but is not as likely to cause excessive temperatures as a lower grade fuel.
242. What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
A. If the manufacturers recommendations are followed, the next higher grade of fuel main normally be used. Automotive gas is not normally recommended.
243. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
C. As the airplane cools overnight, water condenses in the tanks from vapor in the air and enters the fuel. Filling the tanks eliminates the airspace and prevents condensation. Filling the tanks would not force any excess water to the top of the tank because water is heavier than fuel and would settle at the bottom of the tank.