A&P 1 Final Lecture Part 1

  1. What are the 7 important functions of the bones?
    • Support
    • Protection
    • Anchorage
    • Mineral and Growth factor storages 
    • Blood cell formation
    • Triglycerides (fat) storage
    • Hormone Production
  2. Bones provide a _____ that supports the body and cradles its soft organs.
  3. The vertebrae surround the spinal cord, and the rib cage helps protect the ____ of the thorax.
    Vital organs
  4. Skeletal muscles, which attach to bones by ____, use bones as ____ to move the body and its parts.
    • Tendons 
    • Levers
  5. Bone is a reservoir for ____, most important ____ and ____. The stored ____ are released into the bloodstream in their ionic form as needed for distribution to all parts of the body,
    • Minerals 
    • Calcium
    • Phosphate
    • Minerals
  6. Mineralized bone matrix stores important ____ factors.
  7. What is hematopoiesis?
    Blood cell formation
  8. Where does red cell formation occur within certain bones?
    Red marrow
  9. What is stored in bones' cavitvies as a source of energy for the body?
    Triglycerides (fat)
  10. Bones produce ____, hormone that helps to regulate insulin secretions, glucose homeostasis, and energy expenditure.
  11. Osteocalcin is a hormone produced by bones. It helps to regulate ___ secretions, ____ homeostasis, and ____ expenditure.
    • Insulin 
    • Glucose 
    • Energy
  12. What are the two types of substances found in bones' matrix?
    Minerals and growth factors
  13. Describe the functions of a bone's marrow cavities.
    Sites for red cell formation and fat storage
  14. There are ____ named bones in the human skeleton. They are divided into the two groups: ___ and ____.
    • 206
    • Axial 
    • Appendicular
  15. The axial or appendicular skeleton form the long axis of the body and included the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.
  16. The ____ skeleton consists of the bones of the upper and lower limbs and the girdles (shoulder and hip bones) that attach the limbs to the ___ skeleton.
    • Appendicular 
    • Axial
  17. Does the axial or the appendicular skeleton help us move from place to place (locomotion) and manipulate our environment?
  18. Bones are classified by their shape as ___, short, ___, or ____.
    • Long
    • Flat
    • Irregular
  19. Bone classification: 
    Long bones are ___-er than they are ___.
    They are named for their ____ shape, not their overall size.
    • Longer
    • Wide
    • Elongated
  20. Bone classification: 

    A long bone has a ____ plus two ends.
  21. Bone classification: 

    Short bones are roughly ___ shaped. 

    Examples are ___ and ___.
    • Cuboidal 
    • Wrist 
    • Ankles
  22. ____ bones are a special type of short bones that form in a tendon.
  23. ___ bones are thin, flattened, and usually a bit curved.
  24. ____ bones have complicated shapes that fit none of the other classes of bones' profiles.  

    Ex. ___ and ___
    • Irregular
    • Vertebrae 
    • Hip bones
  25. Every bone has a dense outer layer that looks smooth and solid to the naked eye. The external layer is ___ bone and the inner layer is ___ bone.
    • Compact 
    • Spongy
  26. Other name for spongy bone.
    Trabecular bone
  27. Spongy bone, a honeycomb or small needle-like or flat pieces called ____. In living bones, the open spaces between the ____ are filled with red or yellow bone marrow.
    • Trabeculae
    • Trabeculae
  28. Short, Flat, and irregular bones share a simple design: They all consist of thin plates of __ bone (____) covered by ___ bone.
    • Spongy
    • Diploe
    • Compact
  29. The compact bone is covered outside and inside by connective tissue membranes, respectively the ___ and ___.
    • Periosteum
    • Endosteum
  30. Short, irregular, and flat bones contain bone marrow (between the ____), but no well-defined marrow cavity. Where they form movable joints with their neighbors, ____ cartilage covers their surfaces.
    • Trabeculae
    • Hyaline
  31. Long Bones: 

    The shaft, or ____, forms the long axis of the bone. It is constructed of a relatively thick ___ of compact bone that surrounded a central ___ cavity. The medullary cavity in adults contain fat called _____.
    • Diaphysis 
    • Collar 
    • Medullary 
    • Yellow bone marrow
  32. Long Bones: 

    The ____ are the bone ends. In many cases, they are broader than the diaphysis.
  33. Long Bones: 

    The epiphyses: the outside consists of compact bone, inside is spongy. A thin layer of articular (____)cartilage covers the joint surface of each epiphysis, cushioning the opposing bone ends during movement and asorbing stress.
  34. Long Bones: 

    Between the diaphysis and each epiphysis of an adult long bone is and ____ Line, a remnant of the ____ plate, a disc of hyaline cartilage.
    • Epiphyseal 
    • Epiphyseal
  35. The epiphyseal line or plate is also called ____.
  36. Long Bones: 

    A glistening white, double-layered membrane called the ____ covers the external surface of the entire bone except the joint surfaces.
  37. The external fibrous layer of the periosteum is ___ connective tissue. The internal ____ layer, next to the bone surface , consists primarily of primitive stem cells, ____, that give rise to all bone cells except bone-destroying cells.
    • Dense irregular
    • Osteogenic 
    • Osteogenic Cells
  38. The periosteum is richly supplied with nerve and blood vessels, which pass through the shaft to enter the marrow cavity via a ____.
    Nutrient foramen
  39. _____ fibers are tufts of collagen fibers that extend from its fibrous layer into the bone matrix and secure the periosteum to the underlying bone.
    Perforating (Sharpey's)
  40. The ____ also provides anchoring points for tendons ad ligaments.
  41. Long Bones: 

    A delicate, connective tissue membrane called the ____ covers internal bone surfaces. It covers the trabeculae of spongy bone and lines the canals that pass through the compact bones.
  42. Like the periosteum, the ____ contains ____ cells that can differentiate into other bone cells.
    • Endosteum 
    • Osteogenic
  43. Red marrow, _____ tissue, is typically found within the trabecular cavities of spongy bone and long bones and in the dipole of flat bones.
  44. In newborn infants, the medullary cavity of the diaphysis and all areas of spongy bone contain ___ bone marrow.
  45. The red marrow found in the dipole of flat bones (such as the sternum) and in some irregular bones (hip bones) is more or less active in hemopoiesis.
  46. Bone ____ serve as sites of muscle, ligament, and tendon attachment, as joint surfaces, or as conduits for blood vessels and nerves.
  47. Bone markings serve as sites of muscle, ligament, and tendon attachment, as ____ surfaces, or as ____ for blood vessels and nerves.
    • Joint
    • Conduits
  48. ____-bone markings that bulge outward from the surface.
  49. Bone marking; projections, include ____, ____, ____, and others.
    • Trochanters
    • Spines 
    • Heads
  50. Bone markings; projections, indicate (in most cases) the ___ created by muscles attached to and pulling on them or are modified surfaces where bones meet and form joints.
  51. Bone markings; projections, allow ___ and ___ vessels to pass.
    • Nerve 
    • Blood
  52. What are the 5 major cells in the bone?
    • Osteogenic
    • Osteoblast 
    • Osteocytes
    • Bone Lining Cells
    • Osteoclasts
  53. Osteogenic cells are ____ active stem cells found in the ___ and ____. 

    In growing bones, they ae flattened or squamous cells.
    • Mitotically 
    • Periosteum
    • Endosteum
  54. ____ are bone forming cells that secrete the bone matrix. 

    Actively mitotic.

    Unmineralized bone matrix secreted include ____ and calcium-binding proteins that make up the initial unmineralized bone, or ____.
    • Osteoblasts
    • Collagen
    • Osteoid
  55. When osteoblasts become completely surrounded by the matrix being secreted, they become ____.
  56. The spidery ____ are mature bone cells that occupy spaces (_____) that conform to their shape.
    • Osteocytes
    • Lacunae
  57. What bone cell monitors and maintains the bone matrix?

    If they die, they are reabsorbed into the matrix.
  58. Osteocytes
  59. What bone cell acts as stress or strain sensors and respond to mechanical stimuli. They communicate with osteoblast and osteoclasts(responsible for bone remodeling).
  60. Bone lining cells are ___ cells found on the bone surfaces where bone remodeling is not going on.
  61. Bone lining cells on the external surface are also called ____ cells, and those lining internal surfaces are called ____ cells.
    • Periosteal
    • Endosteal
  62. What cells are giant multinucleate cells located at sites of reabsorption?
  63. Osteoclasts, when actively reabsorbing, rest in a shallow depression called a ____ bay and exhibits a distinctive ____ border that directly contacts the bone.
    • Resorption
    • Ruffled
  64. The structural unit of compact bone is called either the ____ or the ____ system.
    • Osteon
    • Haversian
  65. Each osteon is an elongated cylinder oriented ___ to the long axis of the bone. 

    Tiny weight-bearing pillars
  66. What are considered tiny weight-bearing pillars in the bone?
  67. Each matrix tube of the osteon is a ____ and for that reason compact bone is often called ____ bone.
    • Lamella 
    • Lamellar
  68. Although, all of the collagen fibers in a particular lamella run in a ___ direction,  the collagen fibers in adjacent lamella run in ____ directions. 

    This alternating pattern is beautifully designed to . . .
    • Same 
    • Different
    • Withstand torsion stresses- the adjacent lamellae reinforce one another to resist twisting.
  69. Running through the core of each osteon is the ____ canal, Haversian ____, containing small blood vessels and nerve fibers that serve the osteon's cells.
    • Central
    • Canal
  70. Canals of a second type called ____ canals, lie at right angles to the long axis of the bone and connect the blood and nerve supply of the medullary cavity to the central canals.
    Perforating (Volkmann's) canals
  71. Spidery-shaped ____ occupy lacunae at the junctions of the lamellae.
  72. Hairlike canals called ____ connect the lacunae to each other and the central canal.
  73. ____ tie all the osteocytes in a mature osteon together, allowing them to communicate and permitting nutrients and wastes to be relayed from one osteon to the next throughout the osteon.
  74. Lying between intact osteons are incomplete lamellae called ____ lamellae.
  75. What lamellae is located just deep to the periosteum and just superficial to the endosteum, extending around the entire circumference of the diaphysis?
    Circumferential Lamellae
  76. The trabeculae in spongy bone align precisely along lines of ___ and help the bone resist ___.
    • Stress
    • Stress
  77. Only a few cells thick, trabeculae contains irregularly arranged ____ and ____ interconnected by canaliculi.
    • Lamellae
    • Osteocytes
  78. Nutrients reach the osteocytes of spongy bone by diffusing through the ____ from capillaries in the ____ surrounding the trabeculae.
    • Canaliculi 
    • Endosteum
  79. Bone contains organic and inorganic substances. 

    Organic include ____ and ___.
    Inorganic include ___.
    • Bone cells
    • Osteoid
    • Mineral Salts
  80. Osteoid makes up 1/3 of the bone matrix, includes ground substance (____, ____) and collagen fibers, both of which are secreted by osteoblasts.
    • Proteoglycans
    • Glycoproteins
  81. Bone's resilience is thought to come from ___ bonds on or between collagen molecules. These bonds stretch and break easily on impact, dissipating energy to prevent the force from rising to a fracture.
  82. The balance of bone tissue (65%) consists of inorganic ____ or mineral salts, largely ____.

    The crystals account for the most notable characteristics of bone- its exceptional hardness, which allows it to resist ____.
    • Hydroxyapatites 
    • Calcium Phosphates
    • Compression
  83. The hormonal controls of the bone primarily involve ____ (PTH), produced by the ___ gland. To a much lesser extend ___, produced by parafolicular cells (C cells) of the tyroid gland may be involved.
    • Parathyroid Hormone
    • Parathyroid 
    • Calcitonin
  84. When blood levels of ionic calcium decline, PTH is released. The increased PTH level stimulated ____ to resorb bone, releasing ___ into blood.
    • Osteoclasts
    • Calcium
  85. When blood levels of ionic calcium rise, PTH is release is stopped. The decrease of PTH levels stimulated ____ to stop resorb bone, causing ___ blood levels to drop.
    • Osteoclasts
    • Calcium
  86. In humans, calcitonin appears to be a hormone in search of a function because its effects on calcium homeostasis are negligible.  When administered at pharmacological (high doses) doses, it ____ lower blood calcium levels temporarily.
  87. ___- a hormone released by adipose tissue, plays a role in regulating bone density.
  88. ____ is better known as a neurotransmitter that regulates mood and sleep, but most of the body's is made in the gut (intestine).
  89. ____ Law holds that a bone grows or remodels in response to the demand placed on it.
  90. A bone is loaded(stressed)whenever weight bears down on it or muscles pull on it. This loading is usually off center and tends to ____ the bone.
  91. As a result of mechanicl stessors, long bones are thickest ___ along the ___, exactly where bending stresses are greater. 

    Hollow in the middle for ____.
    • Midway
    • Diaphysis
    • Lightness
  92. Wolff's law explains handness(being left or right handed) results in the bones of one upper limb being ___ than those of the less-used limb.
  93. What type of activy leads to large increases in bone strength?
    Vigorous Excercise
  94. Curved bones are thickest where ?
    They are most likely to buckle
  95. The trabeculae of spongy bone form ___, or struts, along lines of compression.
  96. Large, bony projects occur where heavy, active ____ attach.
  97. Because compressed and stretched regions are oppositely charged, it has been suggested that electrical signals direct ___.
  98. Fluid flows within the canaliculi also appeat to appear to provide stimuli that directs the ____ process.
  99. Joints are classified by ___ and ____.
    • Structure 
    • Function
  100. Concerning joints, structurally, there are ____, ____, and  ____.
    • Fibrous
    • Cartilaginous 
    • Synovial
  101. The functional classification of joints is based on the amount of ____ allowed by the joint.
  102. Joints, functionally classifying them there is ____, ___, and ____.
    • Synarthroses
    • Amphiarthroses 
    • Diarthroses
  103. Joints:

    Synarthroses allow ____ movement
    Amphiarthroses allow ____. 
    Diarthroses allow ___ .
    • No movement
    • Little movement
    • Free movement
  104. In fibrous joints, the bones are joined by ____ of connective tissue. No joint cavity is present. The amount of movement depends on . . .
    • Collagen fibers 
    • The length of the connective tissue fibers.
  105. Most fibrous joint are ___ moveable.
  106. Is there a joint cavity present in fibrous joints?
  107. What are the 3 types of fibrous joints?
    • Sutures
    • Syndesmoses 
    • Gomphoses
  108. What fibrous joint occurs between bones of the skull?

    It's wavy, articulating bone edges interlock, and the junctions is completely filled by ____ amounts of very short connective tissue fibers that are continuous with the periosteum.
    • Sutures
    • Minimal
  109. Sutures allow the skull to expand as . . .
    The brain grows during birth.
  110. Sutures mature and become Gomphoses?

    T or F
    False, they become syndesmoses.
  111. Because movement of the cranial bones would damage the brain, the movable nature of ___ is a protective adaptation.
  112. In syndesmoses, the bones are connected only by ___. 
    The amount of movement depends on the ___ of the connecting fibers.
    • Ligaments
    • Length
  113. Where are two places you can find syndesmoses fibrous joints?
    • Distal ends of the tibia and fibula 
    • Radius and Ulna/ hand area
  114. Where can you find gomphosis fibrous joints?
    Teeth, with their bony alveolar sockets
  115. The fibrous connection in gomphoses is the short ____ ligament.
  116. What fibrous joint is described as a peg-like socket?
  117. In cartilaginous joints, there are united by ____.
  118. Cartilaginous joints lack a ____ are ___ moveable.
    • Joint cavity
    • Not highly
  119. Name the two types of cartilaginous joints.
    • Synchondroses 
    • Symphyses
  120. A bar or plate of hyaline cartilage unites the bones at a _____, junction of cartilage.
  121. Virtually, all synchondroses are _____ (immovable).
  122. The epiphyseal plate is a common example of what joint?
  123. Epiphyseal plates are temporary joints and eventually become ____. 

    Another example is the costal cartilage of the first rib and the ____ of the sternum.
    • Synostoses 
    • Manubrium
  124. Symphysis are joints where ____ united the bones.
  125. Symphysis act as ___ absorber joints and permit a limited amount of movement.
  126. What cartilaginous joint is functional classified as amphiarthrotic?
  127. Intervertebral joints and pubic symphysis of the pelvis are examples of what type of joints?
  128. Synovial joints are those separated by a . . .
    Fluid-containing joint cavity
  129. All synovial joints are ____ (freely moveable).
  130. What are 6 features of synovial joints?
    • Articular cartilage 
    • Joint Cavity
    • Articular capsule 
    • Synovial Fluid
    • Reinforcing ligaments
    • Nerves and blood vessels
  131. Synovial joints have articulating cartilage covering the joints. What is it?
    Hyaline cartilage
  132. In synovial joint, what plays a part in absorbing compression?
    Spongy cushions known as articulating cartilage
  133. What occupies free space in the synovial joints?
    Synovial Fluid
  134. The joint cavity of synovial joints is enclosed by two layered articular capsule.

    Name them and describe them.
    • Fibrous layer: Dense irregular connective tissue, continuous with the periostea of the articulating bones. strengthens against pulling apart.
    • Synovial membrane: Loose connective tissue, covers all internal joint surfaces not hyaline cartilage.
  135. What is the function of the synovial joint's articulating capsule's synovial membrane?
    Make synovial fluid and line the inside not hyaline cartilage
  136. Synovial fluid is derived largely by _____ from ___ flowing through the ____in the synovial membrane.
    • Filtration 
    • Blood
    • Capillaries
  137. Synovial fluid, found in articular cartilage, provides a slippery, weight-bearing film that reduces friction between cartilage. 

    Without this, what would happen to the joint?
    • Overheat
    • Waste away
  138. The synovial fluid is forced from the cartilages when a joint is compressed; then as pressure on the joint is relieved, the fluid seeps back into the articular cartilages like water into a sponge, ready to be squeezed out again the next time the joint is loaded (pressure).

    Name the process.
    Weeping Lubrication
  139. What process lubricates the free surfaces of the cartilages and nourishes their cells?
    Weeping Lubrication
  140. Synovial called contain ___- cells that rid the cavity of microbes and cellular debris.
  141. Synovial joints are reinforced and strengthen by a number of band-like _____. Most often, these are ____, which are thickened parts of the ____ layer. 

    In other cases, they remain distinct and are deep outside the capsule (_____)or deep to it(____). 

    Since intracapsular ligaments are covered with the synovial membrane, they do not lie within the joint cavity.
    • Ligaments
    • Capsular ligaments 
    • Fibrous
    • Extracapsular ligaments
    • Intracapsular ligaments
  142. Synovial are not very innervated and blood rich.

    T or F
    False, they are heavily innervated and supplied with blood
  143. Concerning synovial joints, some, such as the hip and knee, have cushioning ___ pads between the fibrous layer and the synovial membrane or bone.

    Where present, these ____ discs, or ___, extend inward from the articular capsule and partially or completely divide the synovial cavity into two.
    • Fatty pads
    • Articular
    • Menisci
  144. Articulating discs occur in the knee, ___, and a few other joints.
  145. Bursae and tendon sheaths are part of the synovial joint.

    T or F
    False, they are just associated
  146. What is the purpose of bursae and tendon sheaths?
    Reduce friction between adjacent structures during joint activity.

    Basically lube bags
  147. What are described as flattened fibrous sacs lined with synovial membrane and containing a thin film of synovial fluid?
  148. What is described as an elongated bursa that wraps around a tendon subject to friction?
    Tendon Sheaths 

    Common where several tendons are crowded within a narrow canals
  149. Concerning synovial movement, 

    • Attached to immovable 
    • Attached to the movable bone
  150. Range of motion allowed by synovial joints varies from . . .

    Name and describe them.
    • Nonaxial Movement: slipping movement
    • Uniaxial: Movement in one plane
    • Multiaxial: Movement in 3 more more planes
  151. What are the 3 general types of movements for synovial joints?
    • Gliding 
    • Angular 
    • Rotation
  152. Describe Gliding movements
    When a flat and flat bones' surface glide or slip over another.
  153. Examples of gliding movement joints.
    • Intercarpal and intertarsal 
    • Flat articular processes of the vertebrae
  154. What are the 6 angular movements?
    • Flexion
    • Extension 
    • Adduction
    • Abduction
    • Hyperextension
  155. What movement is described a bending movement, usually along the sagittal plane, the decreases the angle of the joint bringing articulating bones closer?
  156. What two movements move along the sagittal place?
    • Flexion 
    • Extension/ Hyperextension
  157. The arm flexed at the shoulder when the arm is lifted in an anterior direction is what type of movement?
  158. What movements move only the frontal plane?
    • Adduction
    • Abduction
  159. What movement is described as the turning of a bone around its own axis?
  160. What is the only movement allowed between the first two cervical vertebrae 

    Also, common at the hip and shoulder joints.
  161. Rotation mat be directed toward or away from the ___.
  162. Describe the following movements:

    • Nonangular anterior and posterior movement along the transverse plane. ie. jaw forward or back
    • Lifting or dropping ie. should shrugging or drop jaw
    • Saddle joint between metacarpal 1 and the trapezium ie. touch finger tips
  163. What are the types of synovial structural types?
    • Plane
    • Hinge
    • Pivot 
    • Condylar (ellipsoid)
    • Saddle
    • Ball and socket
  164. Plane joints are ___-axial movement
    Hinge are 
    Condylar are
    Saddle are
    Ball and Socket . . .
    • Non-axial
    • Uniaxial
    • Uniaxial 
    • Biaxial
    • Biaxial 
    • Multiaxial
  165. Plane joints allow ___ movement
  166. Hinge joints allow ___ movement
    Pivot joints allow ___ movement
    • Flexion/Extension
    • Rotation
  167. Condylar and Saddle joints allow ___, ____, ____, and ____movements

    Ball and socket is FREE!!!
    • Adduction/Abduction
    • Flexion/Extension
  168. Intercarpal, intertarsal joints and joints between vertebral articular surfaces are examples of ___ joints. (structural)
  169. Elbow and interphalangeal joints are ___ joint (structurally)
  170. Proximal radioulnar joints and atlantoaxial joint are examples of ___ joints. (structurally)
  171. Metacarpophalangeal (knuckle) joints and wrist joints are examples of ___ joints (structurally).
    Condylar joint
  172. Carpometacarpal joints of the thumbs are examples of ____ joints. (structurally)
  173. Muscle type: Elongated, striations, voluntary
  174. Muscle type: Elongated , striated, unvoluntary
  175. Muscle type: Walls of hollow visceral organs, nonstriated, unvoluntary
    Smooth muscle
  176. The region of a myofibril between two successive Z discs is a ____.
  177. What is known as the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber- the functional unit of skeletal muscle?
  178. Sarcomeres contain an __ band flanked by half an __ band at each end.
    • I
  179. Shortening occurs if and when the ___ generate enough tension on the thin filament to exceed the forces that oppose shortening.
    Cross bridges
  180. Contraction ends when the cross bridges become ___.
  181. The ____ states that during contraction, the thin filaments slide past thick ones so that the actin and myosin filaments overlap to a greater degree. 

    Neither the thick nor the thin filaments change ____ during contraction.
    • Sliding Filament model of Contraction
    • Length
  182. The Sliding Model of Contraction:

    1. Nervous system stimulates muscle fibers, the ___ heads on the thick filaments latch onto the ___-binding sites on ___ in the thin filaments, and the sliding begins.
    • Myosin
    • myosin
    • Actin
  183. The Sliding Model of Contraction:

    2: These cross-bridge attachments form and break several times during contraction, acting like tiny ratchets to generate ____ and propel the thin filaments toward the ___ of the ___.
    • Tension
    • Center
    • Sarcomere
  184. The Sliding Model of Contraction:

    3: Thin filaments slide ____, the z discs to which they attach are pulled towards the __ line.
    • Centrally
    • M
  185. The Sliding Model of Contraction:

    Overall, as the muscle shortens . . .
    • The I band shortens
    • Distance between Zs shorten
    • H zones disappear
    • Contiguous A bands move close together, length does not change
  186. Skeletal Muscle fiber to contract:

    1: Fiber stimulated 
    2: Generation of ____ in its sarcolemma
    3: ____ automatically propagated along the sarcolemma
    4: Intracellular ___ ions levels must rise briefly, providing the final trigger for contraction.
    • Action potential
    • Action potential
    • Calcium
  187. Nervous system stimulation of muscle fiber and generation of action potential occur at the _____ junction and set events in motion.
  188. Nerve cells that activate skeletal muscle fibers are called _____.
    Somatic motor neurons
  189. Each axon gives off several short, curling branches that collectively form an elliptical  _____ junction, or motor end plate, with a single muscle fiber.
  190. Each muscle fiber has only one neuromuscular junction, located approx. ___ along its length.
  191. The end of the axon, the axon terminal, and the muscle fiber are exceedingly close, but remain separated by a space, the ____.
    Synaptic cleft
  192. The synaptic cleft is filled with a gel-like extracellular substance rich with ____ and ___ fibers.
    • Glycoproteins
    • Collagen
  193. Within the moundlike axon terminal are ____, small membranous sacs containing the neurotransmitter ____(ACH)
    • synaptic vesicles
    • Acetylcholine
  194. The trough-like part o the muscle fiber's sarcolemma that helps form the neuromuscular junction is highly folded (____ folds); provide large surface area for millions of ACH receptors.
  195. ACH diffuses into the ACH receptors causes the ____.
    Action potential
  196. After ACH binds to its receptors, its effect is quickly terminated by _____, located in the synaptic cleft.
  197. What enzyme in the synaptic cleft prevents continued muscle fiber contraction in the absence of additional nervous system stimulation?
  198. Resting membrane of sarcolemma is ___.
  199. 3 steps for action potential in sarcolemma.
    • Generation of an end plate potential
    • Depolarization
    • Repolarization
  200. 1: Binding of ACH to receptors.
    2: Opens ______ gated ion channels allowing Na+ and K+ to pass. 
    3: Inner becomes negative because Na+ has a higher driving force. 
    4: Start of ______.
    5: Prior ignited an action potential, spreads around, opens ___-gated Na+ channels. Needs to reach ____ to start action potential

    6: AP propagates in ___ directions from the neuromuscular junction. 
    7: Reaches peak of neg. charge, ____ starts.
    8: Na+ channels ___, voltage-gated ___ channels open.
    • Chemically(ligand)
    • Depolarization/ end plate potenial 
    • voltage 
    • Treshold
    • All
    • Repolarization 
    • Close
    • K+
  201. During repolarization, potassium ions concentration is substantially higher inside the cell than in the extracellular fluid, K+ diffuses rapidly out of the muscle, restoring ____ charge conditions.
  202. During repolarization, a muscle fiber is said to be in ____ period, cannot be stimulated.
  203. The ___________ pump restores thr ionic conditions of the resting membrane.
    ATP-dependant Na+K+
  204. Initiating Muscle Contraction: 

    1: Impulse via axon opens ___-gated calcium channels in the axonal membrane. Calcium triggers release of ____ into synaptic cleft.
    2: ACH bind with reprtors opening chemically gated ______ channels. Greater influx of ____ causes a local voltage change (endplate potential)
    3: Generation and propagating an AP.
    4: AP along the _ tubules changes the shape of voltage sensitive proteins in the tubules, which in turn stimulate ___ calcium release channels to release calcium into the ____.
    • Calcium
    • Calcium
    • Na+ K+
    • Na+
    • T
    • SR 
    • Cytosol
  205. When intercellular calcium levels are ___, the muscle cell is relaxed, and ____ molecules physically block the active (myoin0binding)sites on troponin.
  206. When nerve impulses arrive in quick seccussion, intracellular ___ levels soar due to successive puffs of rounds of Ca+ released from the SA.
  207. As the Ca+ pumps of the SA reclaims calcium ions from the ___ and ___ again changes shape, tropomyosin again blocks actin's myosin-binding sites. The contraction ends.
    • Cytosol
    • Troponin
  208. Cross bridge formation requires ___.
  209. The force of muscle contraction depends on the number of ___ cross bridges that are attached to ___.
    • Myosin
    • Actin
  210. More motor units, 

    More or less force?
  211. The bulkier the muscle and the greater the cross-sectional area, the more ___ it can develop.
  212. The large fibers of large motor units produce the most ____ movements.
  213. __________ excercise increases muscle force by causing muscles to hypertrophy.(incease)
    Regular Resistance
  214. More frequency of contraction, more ____
  215. Describe the ideal length-tension relationship.
    When the muscle is slightly stretched and permits sliding along nearly the entire length of the thin filaments. If the muscle is stretched so much that the filaments do not overlap, the myosin heads have nothing to attach to and cannot generate tension
  216. On muscle velocity, there are slow and fast fibers

    Reflects how fast their myosin ____ split ___, and the pattern of electrical activity of thier motor neurons.
    • ATPases 
    • ATP
  217. Contraction duraction also varies with fiver types and depends on how quickly ___ moves from the cytosol into the SR.
  218. Oxidative fibers use aerobic pathways for ATP generation 
    Glycolytic fibers more ____ pathways and _____.
    • Anaerobic 
    • Creatine phoshate
  219. Factors that affect force of muscle
    • Number of muscle fibers recruited 
    • Size of muscle fibers
    • Frequency of stimulation
    • Degree of muscle stretch
  220. Fast and slow fibers are _____ fibers
  221. Slow oxidative fibers resist ___, high endurance, little power, many ____, rich ___ supply, and abundant supply of myoglobin
    • Fatigue
    • mitochondria 
    • capillary
  222. Fast glycolytic fiber: contracts ____. little use of ___, glycogen reserves, tire quick, contract ____, few ____, little myoglobin,
    • Rapidly
    • Oxygen
    • powerful
    • mitochondria
  223. The morse stress on a muscle to the longer ___ period.
Card Set
A&P 1 Final Lecture Part 1
Parts of chpt. 6,8,9