Threats MDMP IPB

  1. What type of enemy vehicles are designed for operations at or beyond the FLOT, not to initiate combat but to survive if engaged.

    Note:  Armored scout cars, light patrol vehicles and light strike vehicle (BRM-1K, BRDM-2)
    Combat reconnaissance vehicles (CRVs)
  2. What type of enemy vehicle are usually classified into one of two categories: 

    Main Battle Tank or Light tank (T-62
    Armored fighting vehicles
  3. What are the two types of Light Armored Vehicles:
    • Armored personnel carrier (APC)
    • Infantry fighting vehicle (IFVs)
  4. What type of vehicle is BMP-3, BTR-80, or a MT-LB considered to be?
    Light Armored Fighting Vehicle
  5. What is a weapon system, typically firing large-caliber ammunition that are mounted and manned by crews, such as a cannon or howitzer
    Artillery
  6. What are the 5 categories of Artillery Systems?
    • Command and Recon
    • Cannon
    • Self-propelled cannons
    • Multiple Rocket Launchers
    • Mortar
  7. What are the two types of Air Defense Artillery? Explain.
    • Self-propelled systems are vehicle mounted
    • Towed systems require prime mover
  8. What type of SAMs are  air defense weapons used to protect key areas of a country’s infrastructure and areas of strategic importance?
    Strategic SAMs
  9. What type of SAMs are point defense weapons and used to protect ground force units and other potential targets from attack by enemy fixed-wing aircraft and armed helicopters
    Tactical SAMs
  10. What are the four categories of ADA?
    • Small Arms
    • Light
    • Medium
    • Heavy
  11. What is the difference between Radar Guided SAMs and IR SAMS?
    • Radar Guided SAMS Detect and acquire the target which tracks TGT and Guide missile to intercept
    • IR SAMs are fire and forget
  12. What is considered systems that are classified as light, attack, multirole, transport and reconnaissance aircraft.
    Rotary Wing Aircraft
  13. What type of Aircraft that's a systems are classified as fighter/interceptor, strike, ground-attack, multirole, bombers, special mission, or transport aircraft
    Fixed-wing AC
  14. What type of vehicle is considered as a Drone or Remote piloted vehicle (RPV)
    Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
  15. What are the major mission commands of the operation process?
    • Plan
    • Prepare
    • Execute
    • Assess
  16. Within mission command of the operations process, what is The art and science of understanding a situation, envisioning a desired future, and laying out effective ways of bringing that future about?
    Plan
  17. Within mission command of the operations process, what is Activities performed by units and Soldiers to improve their ability to execute an operation
    Prepare
  18. Within mission command of the operations process, what is Putting a plan into action by applying combat power to accomplish the mission
    Execute
  19. Within mission command of the operations process, what is Continuous determination of the progress toward accomplishing a task,  creating an effect, or achieving an objective
    Assess
  20. What are the 6 types of plans.
    • Campaign plan
    • Operational Plan
    • Supporting Plan
    • Concept Plan
    • Branch
    • Sequel
  21. What are the 3 types of Orders to conduct military operations?
    WARNO, OPORD, FRAGO
  22. What is a preliminary notice of actions or orders that Gives subordinates maximum time for parallel planning and preparation
    WARNO
  23. What Provides timely changes of existing orders to subordinates while providing notification to higher
    FRAGO
  24. What type of ORDER consist of the 5 W's? (who, what, where, when, and why)
    Operations Order
  25. What does MDMP provide?
    an analyzed solution to a tactical military problem
  26. What are the 7 steps to MDMP?
    • Receipt of the Mission
    • Mission Analysis
    • COA DEV
    • COA Analysis
    • COA Comparison
    • COA Appoval
    • Orders production
  27. What are some qualities that a COA needs to possess? (FASDC)
    • Feasible
    • Acceptable
    • Suitable
    • Distinguishable
    • Complete
  28. Which step of MDMP is wargaming  Conducted?
    COA Analysis
  29. Mission analysis is an assessment of the situation that enables units to better see themselves and the enemy.
    What are you determining during Mission Analysis? (4 Ws)
    • What the command must accomplish
    • When it must be accomplished
    • Where the operation will take place
    • Why the operation is important –the purpose
  30. What are the 5 paragraphs of an Operations Order?
    • Situation
    • Mission (5-Ws)
    • Execution
    • Sustainment
    • Command and Signal
  31. Within OPORD annexes, where is the CAS task and distribution explained?
    Annex D, Appendix 5
  32. What is the systematic process of analyzing the mission variables of enemy, terrain, weather, and civil considerations in an area of interest to determine their effect on operations.
    Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield (IPB)
  33. What are the 4 steps of IPB?
    • Define the OE
    • Describe the environmental effects on the operation
    • Evaluate the Threat
    • Determine threat COA
  34. Describe How Weather Can Affect Friendly And Threat/Adversary Operations.
    • • Visibility
    • • Wind
    • • Precipitation
    • • Cloud cover/ceiling
    • • Temperature
    • • Humidity
    • • Atmospheric pressure (as required)
    • • Sea state
  35. What is a graphic overlay used to confirm or deny enemy COAs Used to develop the information collection overlay/decision support template
    Event Template
  36. What is the purpose of Targeting?
    Integrate / synchronize fires into joint operations by utilizing available capabilities to generate a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target
  37. Who at the primary personnel in the BCT Targeting Board?
    XO, S2, S3,FSCOORD, FSO, Targeting Officer, EWO, MISO, Info Operations officer, Civil Affairs, JAG
  38. What is the steps to the targeting process? D3A?
    Decide, Detect, Deliver, Assess
  39. Which step within D3A are we trying to determine what do we want to attack and what effect are we trying to achieve?
    Decide
  40. Which step within D3A are we trying to determine Which asset will achieve the effect on the target and is it prepared to attack?
    Deliver
  41. Which step within D3A are we trying to determine Did we achieve the desired effect on the target –if not, do we reattack?
    Assess
  42. Which step within D3A are we trying to determine how do we find the target and when do we attack?
    Detect
  43. What is the product resulting from the collection, processing, integration, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of available information concerning foreign nations, hostile or potentially hostile forces or elements, or areas of actual or potential operations
    Intelligence
  44. What is the systematic observation of aerospace, surface, or subsurface areas, places, persons, or things, by visual, aural, electronic, photographic, or other means
    Surveillance
  45. What is a mission undertaken to obtain, by visual observation or other detection methods, information about the activities and resources of an enemy or adversary, or to secure data concerning the meteorological, hydrographic, or geographic characteristics of a particular area
    Reconnaissance
  46. What are the critical elements of the request for Information?
    • Latest time information is of value (LTIOV)
    • Location
    • then question
  47. What is the primary goal of airspace control?
    to enhance effectiveness of joint and multinational air operations
  48. Who is the Airspace Control Authority
    JFACC
  49. What are the two methods of Airspace control
    • Positive
    • Procedural
  50. What is a line that A line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas
    Boundary
  51. What is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas
    Phase Line
  52. What type of Maneuver Control measure conveys the commander’s intent in the defense?
    Forward edge of the Battle Area (FEBA)
  53. What is the A line that indicates the most forward positions of friendly forces in any kind of military operation at a specific time and Does not include small, long-range reconnaissance assets
    Forward line of own troops (FLOT)
  54. What is a line of advance assigned for purposes of control; often a road or a group of roads, or a designated series of locations, extending in the direction of the enemy
    Axis of Advance
  55. What is a location on the ground used to orient operations, phase operations, facilitate changes of direction, and provide for unity of effort
    Objective
  56. An area where the commander intends to contain and destroy an enemy force with the massed effects of all available weapons and supporting systems
    Engagement Area
  57. A defensive location oriented on a likely enemy avenue of approach or  For attack helicopters, an area designated in which they can maneuver and fire into a designated engagement area or engage targets of opportunity
    Battle Position
  58. What is the Use of direct fires, supported by indirect fires, to engage an enemy without closing with the enemy to destroy, suppress, fix, or deceive that enemy
    Attack by fire position
  59. What measure employed to facilitate the efficient use of airspace to accomplish missions and simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces
    Airspace Coordinating Measure
  60. What is a procedural method to separate fixed-and rotary-wing aircraft by determining an altitude below which fixed-wing aircraft normally will not fly
    Coordination Level
  61. What is an airspace coordinating measure that uses altitude to separate users as they transition between different airspace control element
    Coordinating Altitude
  62. What is a restricted air route of travel specified for use by friendly aircraft and established for the purpose of preventing friendly aircraft from being fired on by friendly forces
    Air Corridor
  63. What is the Airspace reserved for specific activities in which the operations of one, or more, airspace users is restricted
    Restricted Operation Zone
  64. What at the two types of Fire Support Coordination Measure FSCM?
    • Permissive: FSCL, CFL FFA
    • Restrictive: RFL, NFA, ACA
  65. What is a measure employed by land and amphibious commanders to facilitate the rapid engagement of targets and simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces?
    Fire Support Coordination Measure
  66. What Fire support coordination measure established by the land or amphibious force commander to support common objectives within an area of operation; beyond which all fires must be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement 
    Fire support Coordination Line
  67. What is a line beyond which conventional surface-to-surface direct fire and indirect fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing headquarters without additional coordination
    Coordinated Fire Line CFL
  68. What USMC specific FSCM that facilitates the expeditious attack of surface targets of opportunity between the measure and the FSCL
    Battlefield Coordination Line
  69. What specific area into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing headquarters
    Free Fire Area
  70. A three-dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure with an associated airspace coordinating measure used to facilitate the integration of fires  that is established to support Air Interdiction is called?
    Kill Box
  71. What are the two types of Kill Boxes
    • Blue Kill box air-to-surface munition
    • Purple Kill Box: subsurface-to-surface, surface-to surface, and air-to-surface munitions
  72. A line established between converging friendly surface forces that prohibits joint fires or their effects across that line is called
    Restrictive Fire Line
  73. An area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited is called
    No fire area
  74. An area in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing headquarters is called
    Restrictive Fire Area
  75. What is an area into which a designated ground unit or fire support ship delivers, or is prepared to deliver fire support.
    Zone of Fire
  76. What is a three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires that is Primarily in CAS situations for high-volume fire and the Burden of deconfliction rests with the ground commander
    Airspace Coordination Area
  77. What are the two types of Airspace Coordination Areas.
    • Formal: Established by the airspace control
    • Informal ACA –Requested by the maneuver commander and approved at battalion or higher level
  78. ACAs are a primary method by which to provide procedural control in a _____ _____ ____ environment
    Close air support
  79. What are the 6 Characteristics of    an Effective ACA
    • • Cover ingress, egress, employment and holding
    • • Easily identified from air
    • • Allow simultaneous use of artillery and CAS
    • • Include lateral and vertical limits
    • • Simple to put in effect
    • • Deconflicted from known and / or templatedthreats
  80. When should submit Initial DD Form 1972(s) submitted to higher headquarters
    Mission Analysis
  81. During MDMP, when does the CAS planners develop a fire support plan and unit airspace plan; coordinate the development and activation of FSCMs/ACMs
    Step 3: COA Dev
  82. During MDMP, When does the CAS Planners Conduct initial tactical risk assessment (TRA) for each COA and recommend terminal attack control (TAC) criteria for commander (and types of control)
    COA Analysis
  83. During Orders production CAS planners are responsible for what product?
     Appendix 5 to Annex D
  84. What information is required on the DD 1972
    • Who and What
    • • Where and When
    • • Remarks
    • • Coordination
    • • Mission Data
    • • Battle Damage Assessment (BDA)
  85. What are the 3 types of controls for CAS?
    • Type 1: See the TGT, see the Platform and analyze attacking aircraft geometry and can clear hot
    • Type 2: See the TGT and/or See the attacking aircraft and can clear hot
    • Type 3: Can't see the TGT or Attacking Aircraft and can clear to engagement
  86. What at the 2 Army rehearsals that involve the TACP?
    • Combine Arms(Maneuver) rehearsal
    • Fire support rehearsal
  87. What is required in order to conduct CAS TGT engagement?
    9 LINE
  88. What is line 4 and 6 of a 9-line CAS TGT engagement
    • Line 4: Altitude
    • Line 6: Location
  89. As a CAS Target Description Techniques what does "contact" mean
    aircrew sees a specified reference point
  90. As a CAS Target Description Techniques what does "tally" mean
    means sighting of a target
  91. What are the three type of Night illumination
    • Ambient- moon light, etc
    • Cultural- street light, car light
    • Artificial- employed by surface or airforce
  92. What are the best ways to mark friendly positions at night
    IR strobes
  93. Name some IR brevity terms.
    • Sparkle
    • snake
    • pulse
    • steady
    • rope
    • cease sparkle
    • contact sparkle
    • match sparkle
  94. What are the three characteristics that describe an urban environment?
    • A complex man-made physical terrain
    • A population of significant size and density
    • An infrastructure upon which the area depends
  95. Describe the advantages and disadvantages if Medium/high and low/very low altitude tactics.
    • Medium/high: Advantages- Allows observation of tgt area, marks, and other aircraft hits, Lower fuel consumption, Reduced navigation difficulties
    • Disadvantages- Increases enemy threat detection, and preparation time, Requires local air superiority


    • Low/very low: Advantages- Decreases enemy threat detection, Local air superiority not needed
    • Disadvantages- Observation of tgt area, marks and other aircraft hits are limited to the attack, Higher fuel consumption
  96. What are the two types of Method of attack during CAS?
    • Bomb on Coordinate
    • Bomb on target
  97. Who is a qualified and certified service member who, from a forward position, directs the action of combat aircraft engaged in close air support and other air operations
    JTAC
  98. Who is a specifically trained and qualified aviation officer, who exercises control from the air of other aircraft engaged in close air support of ground troops
    FAC (A)
  99. What are the 4 things a FAC (A) can do?
    • Brief
    • Stack
    • Mark
    • Control
  100. What are the current aircrafts use in the FAC (A) role? (FW -even #s / rotary-odd #s)
    • • USN: F/A-18
    • • USMC: F/A-18
    • • USMC: AH-1Z, UH-1Y
    • • USMC: AV-8B
    • • USAF: A-10
    • • USAF: F-16
  101. Who can provide timely and accurate CAS targeting information to a JTAC/FAC(A), or directly to aircraft when authorized by the controlling JTAC/FAC(A)
    JFO
  102. Identify the observers planning consideration? (SLOCTOP)
    • Security
    • Location
    • Communication
    • Targeting
    • Observation
    • Position
  103. List the basic considerations for LASER operations.
    • • Line of sight  (LOS)
    • • Pulse repetition frequency (PRF) Code
    • • Direction of attack
    • • Designation timing
    • • Weapons delivery envelope
  104. What are the primary categories of LASER designation operations
    • Target Acquisition
    • Weapons Guidance
  105. What are the 3 types of laser hardware
    • • LASER Guided Weapons (LGW)
    • • LASER Target Designators (LTD)
    • • LASER Spot Tracker (LST)
  106. Describe Final attack headings within Laser procedures
    FAHs must avoid the 20-degree safety exclusion zone
  107. What is the optimal Attack zones when using laser?
    120 degrees or 60 on each side
  108. During SEAD, Who Plans, coordinates and directs tactical air operations
    Air Operation Center
  109. During SEAD, who Coordinates Army support for J-SEAD
    Battlefield Coordination Detachment
  110. During SEAD, who Receives, coordinates and processes J-SEAD requests
    Air Support Operation Center
  111. During SEAD,  Identifies potential local targets and requests support
    TACP
  112. What are the three categories of SEAD?
    • Area of Responsibility (AOR) / Joint Operations Area (JOA)-wide air defense (AD) system suppression
    • • Localized suppression
    • • Opportune suppression
  113. Describe AOR / JOA-wide AD System Suppression
    conducted against specific enemy air defense (AD) systems throughout the AOR/JOA
  114. What is the immediate objective of the AOR / JOA-wide AD System Suppression
    to destroy or disrupt the enemy Integrated Air Defense System (IADS)
  115. What category of SEAD is Operations that are normally confined to geographic areas associated with specific targets or transit routes for a specific time usually Planned or Immediate
    Localized Suppression
  116. What type of SEAD is unplanned and includes aircrew self-defense and attack against surface-AD targets of opportunity
    Opportune Suppressio
  117. What are the two means to accomplish SEAD/JSEAD
    • Destructive
    • Disruptive
  118. What are two types of Disruptive Means of SEAD?
    Active and Passive
  119. In regards of planning for SEAD, which step of MDMP when do you ID and status of available EW assets
    Step 1 : Receipt of the Mission
  120. In regards of planning for SEAD, which step of MDMP when do you Determine enemy EMS…
    • Dependence
    • Capabilities
    • Vulnerabilities
    ID specific/implied EW tasks
    Route Air Support Requests (ASRs)
    Mission Analysis
  121. In regards of planning for SEAD, which step of MDMP do you:
    Determine availability of EW capes
    Determine forces required for the mission
    list of EW objectives and desired effects
    list of EW capes required
    COA DEV
  122. What are some AIR Force Assets that can perform SEAD?
    • • F-16s w/AGM-88s (non-HTS)
    • • RC-135 Rivet Joint
    • • E-3 AWACS
    • • EC-130 Compass Call
    • • JSTARS
    • • MQ-9 Reaper (RPAs)
    • • F-35 Lightning II
    • • F-22 Raptor
  123. What are some Naval Assets that can perform SEAD?
    • • E/A-18G Growler
    • • P-8A Poseidon
    • • F-35 Lightning II
    • • SOF
    • • RPAs
  124. What are some Army Assets that can perform SEAD?
    • • Artillery
    • • AH-64D Apache
    • • RC-12 Guardrail
    • • SOF
    • • RPAs
Author
Rusty
ID
325687
Card Set
Threats MDMP IPB
Description
Threats, MDMP, IPB
Updated