P3K2 Fuel & Hyd

  1. Name the fuel tanks on the P-3K2 and their types
    • Tank 1, 2, 3, 4 – Wet Wing type tanks
    • Tank 5 Centre – Wet Wing type tank
    • Tank 5 Fuselage – Bladder type tank
  2. What are the fuel tank capacities and hence the total?
    • 1 & 4 – 10,500 lbs each
    • 2 & 3 – 11,000 lbs each
    • 5C – 11,300 lbs
    • 5F – 5,800 lbs
    • TOTAL = 60,100 lbs
  3. How many fuel vents are there, and where are they located?
    5. 3 port wing tip (1 of these is for the centre tank), 2 starboard wing tip.
  4. Where are the fuel drain valves?
    • Wing tanks have their drain valves at the lowest point in the tank.
    • Fuselage tank has one drain on the centre line of the tank.
  5. What tank is the cross ship crossfeed valve located in?
    Tank 2
  6. Tank No. 5 can be both pressure and gravity refuelled. TRUE/FALSE?
    False – Only able to be pressure refuelled.
  7. Tank No. 5 can receive fuel transferred from the wing tanks. TRUE/FALSE?
    False – Tank 5 can only supply fuel to the wing tanks, there is no capability to transfer fuel from a wing tank to No. 5 tank.
  8. Where are the two tank No. 5 Fuel Transfer Pumps located?
    In the Fuselage (Bladder) tank
  9. How is Tank 5 Fuselage bladder prevented from collapsing as fuel is withdrawn?
    A Tee junction in the no. 5 vent line is connected to ram air from a scoop on the underside of the port wing. A restrictor is located in the line outboard of the Tee junction, and generates a small amount of backpressure which prevents the bladder tanks collapsing due to the small negative differential which builds up as fuel is removed.
  10. What is the flow rate, scavenge rate, and pressure rating of the boost pumps?
    • 5000 lbs per hour pressure at 18psi
    • 2000 lbs per hour scavenge at 5psi
    • 15-30 psi nominal operating pressure.
  11. What does the boost pump BOOST light mean?
    Pressure has dropped to below 2 psi. Extinguished as pressure rises through 3.5 psi.
  12. What is the cross feed thermal relief valve? Where is it located and what is its function?
    This is a pressure relief valve located in the cross feed manifold section in the wing centre section (No. 5 Tank). Any pressure within the manifold exceeding 55 psi will relieve into the centre section tank.
  13. What flow rate will each fuelling connector at the SPR panel provide? At what pressure?
    2 connectors at 300 Gallons per min each, for a total of 600gpm. Fuelled at 55psi.
  14. Which tanks can fuel be dumped from?
    Only tank 5
  15. What rate does fuel dump when selected?
    1000 lbs/min
  16. How many capacitance type fuel probes are there in each tank?
    • Outboard tanks – 5 probes
    • Inboard tanks – 3 probes
    • No. 5 Tank – 3 probes. 2 in centre, 1 in fuselage.
  17. What is the purpose of the compensator attached to the deepest fuel probe in each tank?
    Their capacitance varies with density of the fuel, which is dependant on fuel type and temperature. Allows for correction of density.
  18. What are 3 alternative means of fuel measurement?
    • Hydrostatic gauge – A hand-held bottle with a gauge that measures the hydrostatic pressure of the fuel at the lowest point in the tanks, to provide an estimate of quantity.
    • Sight Gauge – Tank No. 5 only, extends down from the centre tank and provides an indication of quantity.
    • Dipstick
  19. When does the PRESS LOW light come on?
    When fuel pressure falls below 4psi
  20. What are the lateral fuel balance limits?
    • Tanks 1 & 4 – Takeoff 1400lbs, Landing 4389lbs (with other tanks in balance)
    • Tanks 2 & 3 – Takeoff 5025lbs, Landing no limit.
  21. What is the purpose of the Primary and Secondary pilot valve check during refuelling?
    To check the operation of both the primary and secondary pilot valve automatic shutoff systems.
  22. What are the G limits exceeding ZFW?
    2.1 to -1.0
  23. If there is fuel in the No. 5 tank that is unusable (generally through poor fuel management), what action must be taken?
    The unusable fuel weight must be added to the Zero Fuel Weight.
  24. Why is the No. 5 tank generally left with at least 1000lbs of fuel in it?
    To keep the bladder type Fuselage tank wet and prevent cracking from the bladder drying out.
  25. How can fuel boost pump pressure be checked?
    Ensure boost pump is on, and the crossfeed switches are in the correct position to allow flow to the pressure gauge (located in No. 5 manifold)
  26. In order to prevent structural damage when refuelling, what are two things that are important to verify?
    • Positive tank venting
    • Fuelling pressure not exceeding 55psi
  27. What are the maximum altitudes imposed for air starting when using alternate fuels?
    • JP4 – 35,000ft
    • JP5/JP8 – 25,000ft
  28. During a refuel, how is the flow to individual fuel tanks automatically shut off when they are full?
    Each tank has a Primary and Secondary pilot valve assembly designed to detect when a tank is full, and close off the incoming fuel. The valve assemblies contain a float that when lifts when the tank is full, and stops fuel flowing up to the pilot valve. This then moves the respective (Pri/Sec) poppet in the Fuelling/Transfer valve, which will stop the flow of fuel. Both poppets are mounted in series, and as such either poppet closure will stop the flow of fuel (provides redundancy). Checkable by a Test function, and switchable (ie. On/Off) through a control solenoid valve.
  29. What are the pumps in each hydraulic system?
    • No 1 System – No. 1 AC Pump, No. 1A AC Pump, No. 1B DC Pump
    • No 2 System – No. 2 AC Pump
  30. What is the capacity of the No. 1 Hydraulic reservoir?
    • 5.6 US Gallons (discharged accumulator)
    • 5.0 US Gallons (charged accumulator)
  31. What is the No. 1 system accumulator quantity?
    0.6 USG
  32. What quantity of hyd fluid is required to raise the landing gear?
    1 US Gallon
  33. When is the hydraulic fluid in No. 1 system replenished?
    • 0.8 US Gallons low
    • Equates to 3.2 USG in flight – 0.8 for the low tolerance, 1.0 in the gear up actuators, and 0.6 in the accumulator.
  34. What is the capacity of the No. 2 Hydraulic reservoir? When must it be replenished?
    1.0 US Gallons. Replenised at 0.75 US Gallons.
  35. What are the specifications of the 3 AC Hydraulic pumps?
    • 3000 psi up to 6 USG/min
    • 115V 3 phase AC
  36. What are the hydraulic system pressure limits?
    2960-3200 psi
  37. How are the hydraulic pumps cooled?
    Liquid cooled by its own hydraulic fluid.
  38. How is the hydraulic fluid cooled?
    Each hydraulic system has oil to fuel heat exchangers located in their adjacent inboard fuel tanks to cool the oil (No. 1 system No. 2 tank, No. 2 system No. 3 tank).
  39. What are some of the precautions related to turning on/off the AC hydraulic pumps?
    • - The pumps should be switched on one at a time with a 5 second delay between each, due to the large current draw created as they are switched on. Advisable to warn the electronics operators as the power surge can cause the aircraft system to crash.
    • - Leave pumps running for a minimum of 1 minute before switching off.
    • - Confirm service selections match position indicators
    • - Control surfaces are clear
    • - Hyd fluid quantity sufficient
    • - Consider using system 1 and 2 together to minimise fluid transfer
  40. What is the purpose of the No. 1B hydraulic pump? Where is it powered from?
    Provides hydraulic pressure for ground operation of the brakes. Powered from Ground Operating Bus
  41. What are the pressure limits for cycling of the No. 1B pump when in use?
    On at 2200psi, off at 2900psi
  42. How long does No. 1B pump take to charge the accumulator?
    3 minutes
  43. How does the hydraulic system dampen ‘noise’ in the system?
    Quincke tubes are mounted downstream of the pumps and remove pressure ripples to dampen noise.
  44. What is the minimum quantity of fuel required to ensure adequate cooling of the hydraulic fluid?
    1000 lbs in each fuel tank containing the systems onside oil to fuel heat exchanger
  45. When does the HYD PRESS low pressure caution light come on?
    Comes on with pressure <1800 psi. Turns off as pressure rises >2200 psi
  46. Which services utilise the No. 1 Hydraulic System?
    • Brakes
    • Windshield Wipers
    • NLG actuation and Steering
    • MLG actuation and Inflight Brakes
    • Autopilot
    • + Shared services (BB Doors, Aileron, Elevator, and Rudder Boosters, Wing Flap Motor)
  47. Which services utilise the no. 2 hydraulic system?
    • The shared services, ie.
    • Bomb Bay Doors
    • Aileron Booster
    • Elevator Booster
    • Rudder Booster
    • Wing Flap Motor
  48. Which services utilise both hydraulic systems?
    • Bomb Bay Doors
    • Aileron Booster
    • Elevator Booster
    • Rudder Booster
    • Wing Flap Motor
  49. Which system has its own hand pump and emergency reservoir?
    Bomb bay doors
  50. What is the procedure to be followed to ensure safe entry to the bomb bay?
    Verify the bomb bay safety pin is installed, and the cable connecting the safety pin and door actuator is taut.
  51. What is the procedure to be followed to open or close the bomb bay safely?
    • OPENING
    • Post a lookout
    • Signal to the lookout that you intend to open the bomb bay
    • Lookout returns the signal after verifying clear
    • Select bomb bay to open
    • Lookout to approach bomb bay and insert safety pin.
    • Lookout signals safety pin inserted
    • CLOSING
    • Lookout retrieves safety pin and holds up to show the operator
    • Operator gives closing signal
    • Lookout verifies the area is clear and returns the signal
    • Once doors closed, lookout stows safety pin.
  52. In the event of a No. 2 hydraulic system failure, only the left-hand bomb bay doors will close. TRUE/FALSE? Why is this the case?
    • FALSE.
    • The systems normally operate in unison using their onside actuators (No.1 Left, No. 2 Right), although a mechanical interconnect between the door mechanisms ensures both doors operate should only one system be available.
  53. How are the bomb bay doors held closed?
    Mechanical lock mechanism located on the forward bulkhead of the bomb bay, engaged in lock rollers on the doors themselves.
  54. How are the bomb bay doors held open?
    Under normal conditions the doors are held open by hydraulic pressure, however the door linkages do adopt a slight over centre position when open which prevents inadvertent closure should hydraulic pressure be removed.
  55. In manual operation of the bomb bay doors, which direction (open/close) is the bomb bay selector valve detented?
    Detented to open
  56. How does the bomb bay ground lock mechanism work? (ie. The safety pin)
    • Introduces an interference block under the valve spool which physically hold it in the open position, making it impossible to close the doors hydraulically.
    • Also - Control valve solenoids remain powered to open, valve spool detented open.
  57. Bomb bay emergency reservoir quantity?
    0.75 USG. Sufficient fluid for one complete cycle of the Bomb Bay doors. Acts upon left hand BB actuators
  58. When using the emergency manual operation of the bomb bay doors, what is important to note about the operation of the control valve spool when opening versus closing?
    When opening the doors, the handle is pulled up and retained by the spool detent. When closing, the handle must be held down for the complete procedure, making it a two person operation.
  59. What is the max bomb bay doors open speed?
    VNE
  60. What does the DOORS light mean wrt the bomb bay?
    Doors not in selected position
  61. What is the only hydraulic system that receives three hydraulic fluid sources?
    Bomb Bay – No. 1 System, No. 2 System, Emergency Hand Pump system
  62. When is the RUDDER POWER light illuminated?
    • Whenever #1 system falls below 1500 psi
    • With flaps less than 60% extended, #2 system pressure reaches the booster package
    • With flaps more than 60% extended, #2 system pressure does not reach the booster package
  63. What are the 3 functions of the Force Link Tab?
    • Increased longitudinal stick-free stability (ie. Airspeeds changes produce conventional pitching moments)
    • Augments Trim Tab (for wider ranges of C of G)
    • Prevents Mach Tuck (tendency to pitch down due to CP moving aft on wing)
  64. What are the 3 effects of pulling a Boost Off handle?
    • The pilots mechanical advantage is increased – Creates 2:1 ratio of control surface movement to input
    • Closes the dual shutoff and bypass valve – Provides runaround circuit for fluid
    • Latches the booster control valve in neutral – ensures integrity of direct mechanical link to flight controls
  65. What are the Airspeed limitations for Flap UP, Mnvre, Takeoff/Approach, Landing?
    • UP – VNE
    • MAN – 275
    • TO/App – 190
    • Land – 170
  66. What are the degree and travel percentages for the different flap settings?
    • UP 0°, 0%
    • MAN 10° 40%
    • TO/APP 18° 77%
    • LAND 40° 100%
  67. Can a flap brake applied by an asymmetry be reset airborne?
    No
  68. What type of flaps are employed?
    Lockheed-Fowler, one large panel each side.
  69. What occurs if a flap asymmetry is detected?
    • Stops the flap motors
    • Energises flap brakes to ON (prevents creep worsening asymmetry)
    • FLAP ASYM caution light illuminated
  70. What hydraulic system is the landing gear powered by?
    No. 1 Hyd System
  71. What are the gear tyre pressures?
    • NLG 155psi
    • MLG 110-175 psi weight dependant
  72. If electrical power is not available, what indication would you see on the dolls eyes if the gear was down?
    In transit - with electrical power removed, the dolls eyes give a gear in transit indication.
  73. When does the landing gear handle light illuminate?
    Whenever the gear is not locked in the selected position.
  74. When does the WHEELS light and horn come on?
    • 1/ Any pwr lever <48° co-ordinator, IAS <153kts, any gear not down & locked. Cancellable.
    • 2/ Any pwr lever <60° co-ordinator, IAS <142kts, any gear not down & locked. Not cancellable, must accelerate to >165kts with pwr levers above 60°
    • 3/ Flap extended beyond the takeoff/approach position
  75. Max gear extension speeds?
    • <1G: 300kts
    • >1G: 190kts
  76. Max gear retraction speed?
    190kts
  77. How is manual operation of the landing gear achieved?
    • Gear down – press and release button in HSC
    • Gear up – hold until gear up
    • Isolate electrical control by pulling LG Cont Valve CB
  78. How is the landing gear uplock achieved?
    A mechanical hook mounted on the upper surface of each wheel well engaged on a roller attached to the shock strut. Includes a double over-centre arrangement, assisted by springs, to hold it in both the locked and unlocked postions.
  79. Where are the emergency extension uplock release handles located?
    • NLG – In flight deck, adjacent to Boost Off Handles
    • MLG – In HSC
  80. What are the four types of brakes available in the P3?
    • Normal brakes
    • Park brakes
    • Emergency brakes
    • In-flight brakes
  81. What is the maximum time allowed for application of the park brakes?
    8hrs
  82. How many brake applications should the brake accumulator give in the event of total hydraulics failure?
    6 to 8 applications
  83. What is the minimum brake accumulator pre-charge for flight?
    800 psi
  84. What is the function of the brake fuses?
    Protect the system against fluid loss should a leak develop down stream.
  85. What is the function of the inflight braking system?
    Provides application of the brakes at a reduced pressure (90 to 105 psi), which is sufficient to gently stop the wheels rotating before they enter the wheel wells. Automatically activated during retraction.
  86. How many brake applications will the emergency brake provide?
    3 to 6 full applications
  87. Basic concept of emergency brakes?
    Pneumatically operated, progressively meters up to 1500psi (3000psi bottle) of air to the brakes and operates symmetrically to provide braking in an emergency.
  88. How is the nose wheel centred during retraction?
    A set of centring cams installed in the nose oleo ensure the wheels are aligned when the weight is off the gear.
  89. What other hydraulic system could prevent the wipers from operating?
    The left Bomb Bay door manual shutoff valve will shut off the system if pulled, as the hydraulic pressure is supplied through the No.1 bomb bay door system.
  90. What are the power supplies for the 4 hydraulic pumps?
    • No. 1 – Main AC Bus A
    • No. 1A – Main AC Bus B
    • No. 2 – Main AC Bus B
    • No. 1B – GOB
  91. Are the AC hydraulic pumps considered constant pressure, constant flow, or constant horsepower?
    Constant horsepower. Flow and pressure are variable based on demand.
  92. Does the PRESS LOW light illuminate with the applicable hydraulic pump off?
    No, only if the pump is selected ON at the time.
  93. When does the HYD OIL HOT light come on?
    When the hydraulic fluid reaches approx. 80 deg C
  94. What are some of the warnings associated with hydraulic leaks?
    • High pressure leaks can cause an atomised spray which can penetrate the skin leaving no apparent wound. This may cause tissue damage and/or blood poisoning.
    • Hydraulic fluid is highly flammable and can be highly explosive if finely divided.
    • In the event of a rupture, ensure hydraulic fluid is not mistaken for smoke.
    • If sufficient quantities of fluid or mist are found, electrical equipment in that area should be secured immediately. Electrical switching should be kept to an absolute minimum.
  95. What are some of the safety features of the AC hydraulic pumps?
    • 3 phase CB
    • 3 phase motor protector relay (cuts off power if current imbalance between the phases)
    • Thermal cutout on each pump end removes earth to the relay.
    • HYD OIL HOT and PRESS LOW annunciator lights.
  96. What are the different ways to manipulate the gear?
    • Normal Operation – Electrical/Hydraulic – EXT and RET
    • Manual Hydraulic Control in HSC – Hydraulic – EXT and RET
    • Emergency Extension – Mechanical – EXT
  97. What are the systems preventing gear retraction on the ground?
    • Automatic downlock (mechanical scissor system)
    • Drag Strut Overcentre
    • Jury Strut Overcentre and bungy
    • Gear Canted Aft (has to lift aircraft)
    • Maintenance Pins
    • Gear held down by Hydraulic Pressure
    • Landing Gear Selector Valve detented in Down position
  98. What are some flight deck indications of the gear position?
    • Dolls eyes
    • Handle lights
    • WHEELS lights and horn
    • Also aircraft performance and optics/observers on-board
  99. How can the brake accumulator pressure be checked?
    Pump brakes approx. 15 times to discharge the accumulator, then check the gauge to see Nitrogen pressure.
  100. When would the Rudder Boost Shutoff Valve CB be pulled? (pulling disables rudder boost shutoff)
    • Flapless landings
    • Dual Asymmetric approach (consideration for go-around as flap retraction would revert to single system operation otherwise)
  101. When is the highest chance for a flap asymmetry?
    During reverse thrust operation while motoring the flaps.
Author
mctwo
ID
325623
Card Set
P3K2 Fuel & Hyd
Description
fuel and hyd
Updated