Biology Review

  1. Biology is the study of
    B. Life
  2. What process do the calls of multicellular organisms undergo that distinguishes them from unicellular organisms?
  3. A major theme of biology is the ability of all organisms to mantain a stable internal inviorment.
    this ability is called
    c. Homeostasis
  4. Basic unit of life
    D. Cell
  5. Heredity information is in the form of a large molecule called
    C. DNA
  6. Organisms that obtain their food by making their own food are called
    B. autotrophs
  7. The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
    B. cells
  8. living things
    D. all of the above
  9. all organisms are composed of
    C. cells
  10. all living things maintain a balance within their cells and the enviorment through the process of
    D. evolution
  11. In most multicellular calls are organized according to their
    C. function
  12. all living things use energy through a process called
    B. metabolism
  13. an educated guess or _____ may be tested by an expeirement
    D. hypothesis
  14. Scientific hypothesis are most often tested by the process of
    D. experimenting
  15. Most scientist begin their investigation by making an
    C. observation
  16. Which of the following objects produces the most highly magnified images
    C. TEM
  17. A light microscope that has an objective lens of x 10 and an ocular lens of x 60 has a magnification of
    C. x 600
  18. "the boy shot up 5 inches in only one year"
    A. growth
  19. "our cat had a litter of kittens yesterday"
    B. reproduction
  20. "My dog has become much less clumsy now that he is 1 year old"
    C. development
  21. "eat a good breakfast and you'll be able to run longer"
    D. energy
  22. "your body normally maintains a temp. of 98.6 degress F"
    E. homeostasis
  23. your mouth watering at the sight of food on a plate
    A. response
  24. A sudden drop in air temp.
    B. Stimulus
  25. a flu virus entering your body
    B. stimulus
  26. Getting "butterflies" in your stomach before giving a speech
    A. response
  27. The recess bell ringing in an elementry school
    B. stimulus
  28. an apple on a tree
    B. living
  29. bacteria
    B. living
  30. a wasp
    B. living
  31. rust eating a hole in a metal bucket
    A. nonliving
  32. lightening
    A. nonliving
  33. Which of the following statements is true?
    D. matter is anything that occupies space and has mass
  34. Which of the following best describes the difference between an atom and an element?
    a. An atom is the smallest piece of matter that cannot be broken down chemically into simpler kinds of matter. An element is a pure substance made of one type of atom.
  35. Which of the following correctly describes an atom
    a. An atom consists of a central core made of positive protons and neutral neutrons. Moving around the core at high speeds are tiny, negatively charged electrons.
  36. Which of the following statements is true
    c. Different types of atoms have different numbers of protons
  37. Which of the following best describes the difference between a compound and a molecule?
    a) A molecule consists of two or more compounds; a compound consists of two or more atoms
  38. Which of the following is the simplest example of a molecule
    B. H2
  39. An example of a compound is
    a) H2O
  40. The atomic number of Neon is 10. Therefore, the number of protons in a Neon atom equals
    B. 10
  41. The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
    C. Carbon Atom
  42. Which of the following is an example of an atom
    A. H
  43. The stability of an atom is determined by the
    c) number of electrons in the outer energy level.
  44. If an atom is made up of 6 protons, 7 neutrons, and 6 electrons, this type of atom is called a(n)
    B. isotope
  45. Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
    b) their outer orbital's become filled when they form compounds
  46. The maximum number of electrons that can be held in an atom’s first (k) energy level is
    A. 2
  47. All matter in the universe is composed of
    C. Atoms
  48. One of the kinds of particles found in the nucleus of an atom is the
    B. Proton
  49. What is the difference between ionic bonds and covalent bonds?
    c) In ionic bonding, an ion with a positive charge is attracted to an ion with a negative charge. In covalent bonding, atoms share electron pairs to fill their outer electron levels
  50. Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
    b) results in the formation of a compound
  51. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond
    c) Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond
  52. If an atom gains or loses electrons it becomes charged, this atom is called a
    D. ion
  53. Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape
    c. solid
  54. The amount of energy required for a chemical reaction to begin is called
    d. activation energy
  55. In the chemical reaction CO2 H2O ------> H2CO3, what is(are) the reactant(s)?
    c) CO2 and H2O
  56. A reaction in which the reactants have enough free energy to fuel the reaction, this type of reaction is called
    c) an exergonic reaction
  57. Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
    d) is accomplished by the action of catalysts
  58. Which of the following best describes a redox reaction
    b) A redox reaction is a combined reduction-oxidation reaction. In reduction, a reactant loses an electron. This electron is added to the other reactant in an oxidation reaction
  59. When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
    C. reduced
  60. What is an organic compound
    c) a compound that contains covalently bonded chains or rings of carbon
  61. What are the 4 main elements that make up 95% of an organism
    c) Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Carbon
  62. All organic compounds contain the element
    a. C
  63. Carbon readily forms how many bonds with other atoms?
    D. 4
  64. Which three elements are often found in organic compounds
    a) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
  65. Carbon forms many different compounds because carbon
    c) binds easily to hydrogen atoms
  66. A functional group is
    a) a cluster of atoms attached to an organic compound that determine the characteristics of the compound
  67. Whenever carbon atoms bond to other carbon atoms they form 3 structural shapes which of the following is not one of the structural shapes formed
    a. box chains
  68. In carbon compounds, the molecules are built up from smaller simpler molecules known as
    c. monomers
  69. Large polymers linked together are called
    c. macromolecules
  70. What is the difference between a condensation reaction and hydrolysis
    b) In a condensation reaction, monomers bond together to form a polymer, which releases water. In hydrolysis, polymers are broken apart with the addition of water
  71. A monomer of carbohydrate is called a
    c. monosaccharide
  72. Which of the following represents the proper carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen ratios of a six-carbon monosaccharide
    d) C6H12O6
  73. Disaccharides are carbohydrates that are
    a) composed of two monosaccharides
  74. Which of the following is a carbohydrate
    d. sucrose
  75. Which organic molecule below is classified as a carbohydrate?
    d. sugars
  76. Polysaccharides are
    a. carbohydrates
  77. A complex molecule composed of 3 or more carbohydrate monomers is called a
    c. polysaccharide
  78. Lipids are large, ___________ organic molecules that do not dissolve in water
    b. nonpolar
  79. Fatty acids that are unsaturated have
    d. a double carbon bond
  80. Lipids are distinguished from other organic molecules because they
    b. do not dissolve in water
  81. All of the following are examples of lipids except
    b. starch
  82. Two amino acids bond to form a
    c. dipeptide
  83. Amino acids are monomers of
    b. proteins
  84. Long chains of amnio acids are found in
    c. proteins
  85. Amino acids become linked together by what type of bonds
    b. peptide bonds
  86. Which of the following best describes the essential function of nucleic acids
    b) to store hereditary information and make proteins
  87. DNA & RNA are polymers, composed of thousands of linked monomers called
    d) nucleotides
  88. contains information that is essential for almost all cell activities
    b. carbon
  89. Nucleic acids include
    d) glucose and glycogen
  90. The smallest units of life in all living things are
    a. cells
  91. One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that
    c) prokaryotes have no membrane bound nucleus
  92. Which of the following is an example of parokaryotic cell
    c. bacterium
  93. Only eukaryotic cells have
    b. membrane bound organelles
  94. The cell membrane is described as selectively permeable because the membrane
    b) allows some substances to pass through easily and prevents other substances from passing through
  95. Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
    c) the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes
  96. Cells remain small because they must keep a
    c) high surface-to-volume ratio
  97. The spherical organelles that are the site of protein synthesis in a cell are the
    b. ribosomes
  98. The fluid portion of the cytoplasm is called the
    d. cytosol
  99. A particularly active cell might contain large numbers of
    c. mitochondria
  100. In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced
    a. mitochondria
  101. Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, but it does have a cell membrane and a cell wall. You conclude that the cell is probably from a(n) . Choose the letter of the answer that best completes the sentence
    c. prokaryote
  102. Viruses, bacteria, and old organelles that a cell ingests are broken down in
    b. lysosomes
  103. The process in which cells become restricted to carrying out one or a few functions is called cell
    c. specialization
  104. The nucleus of a cell contains all of the following EXCEPT
    b. mitochondria
  105. The organs of an organism can be compared to the ____________ of a cell
    d. organelles
  106. Which of the following organisms do not have membrane-covered organelles
    a. bacteria
  107. What is the most notable feature found in eukaryotic cells but missing in prokaryotic cells
    a. nucleous
  108. Energy from organic compounds is transferred to ATP in the
    b. mitochondria
  109. Portions of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) called ____________ give the ER a rough appearance
    c. ribosomes
  110. To travel from the nucleus to the cytosol, RNA molecules must
    b. pass through nuclear pores
  111. Most nuclei contain at least one spherical area called the
    d. nucleolous
  112. In most multicellular organisms, similar cells that perform a single function are grouped together to form
    b. tissues
  113. The stomach is
    d) an organ made up of muscle tissue, epithelial tissue, connective tissue, and nervous tissue
  114. Which of the following statements best describes the process of diffusion
    d) If a solution contains a concentration gradient, the substance will move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration by diffusion
  115. What drives the process of diffusion?
    c) The random movement of particles (natural kinetic energy) drives the process of diffusion
  116. How are osmosis and diffusion related
    b) Osmosis is one type of diffusion
  117. When would water move into a cell by osmosis
    b) when the fluid outside the cell is hypotonic to the cell
  118. Which of the following statements describes the process of facilitated diffusion
    d) Special protein carriers move specific substances into the cell as the substances move down their concentration gradient
  119. As a result of dffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
    b) eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane
  120. Diffusion takes place
    b) from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentraton
  121. The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
    a. diffusion
  122. Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion
    b) It moves substances against a concentration gradient
  123. Which of the following expends energy
    d. all of the above
  124. The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
    b. osmosis
  125. Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from vessicles at the cell surface is called
    c. exocytosis
  126. Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
    b. endocytosis
  127. What is the primary difference between passive transport and active transport
    c) Active transport moves materials from a lower concentration to a higher concentration. Passive transport moves materials from a higher concentration to a lower concentration
  128. The sodium-potassium pump resembles which other cellular transport method
    c. facilitated diffusion
  129. Which of the following descriptions explains how a sodium-potassium pump works
    b) In a process that requires ATP, a carrier protein moves Na ions out of the cell and then the carrier protein moves K ions into the cell
  130. Which of the following is not example of active transport
    d. facilitted diffusion
  131. The process of taking in large particles or entire cells by pinching off part of the cellular membrane is called
    a. exocytosis
  132. How are endocytosis and exocytosis related
    b) Endocytosis is the process in which cells ingest fluids or large particles for use inside the cell. Exocytosis is essentially the reverse of the endocytosis process
  133. If the concentration of a sugar solution is 1% outside the cell and 5% inside the cell, which of the following will happen by osmosis
    b. water will move into the cell
  134. Cellular respiration is the
    d) processes in which cells make ATP by breaking down organic compounds
  135. _______________________ is the first step in cellular respiration that begins releasing energy stored in glucose.
    c. glycolysis
  136. If oxygen is not present, glycolysis is followed by
    c. fermentation
  137. Glycolysis occurs in the
    a. cytosol
  138. Since fermentation does not require oxygen it is said to be
    b. anarobic
  139. Since glycolysis produces 4 ATP molecules, this results in a net gain of ATPs
    b. 2
  140. The name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is
    c. fermentation
  141. Muscle cramps occur when muscles are exercised extensively in the absence of sufficient oxygen, this is caused by
    c. lactic acid fermentation
  142. Which stage of cellular respiration produces the most ATP
    c. electron transport
  143. Which of the following is NOT part of cellular respiration
    d. calvin cycle
  144. The process of eukaryotic nuclear division is called
    b. mitosis
  145. The process of nuclear division that reduces the number of chromosomes in a cell by half
    a. meisosis
  146. The cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides by a process called
    c. cytokinesis
  147. During cell division, the DNA in a eukaryotic cell is tightly packed and coiled into structures called
    d. chromosomes
  148. Between cell divisions, the DNA in a eukaryotic cell is uncoiled and spread out; in this form it is called
    b. chromatin
  149. One of the first things that happens during mitosis is the
    c) shortening and tight coiling of the DNA into rod-shaped chromosomes
  150. Chromatids are
    d. joined strands of duplicated dna
  151. Sister chromatids are attached to each other at an area called the
    a. centromere
  152. At the beginning of cell division, a chromosome consists of two
    a. chromatids
  153. What is an autosome
    d) any chromosome other than the sex chromosomes in humans or animals
  154. Which of the following sex chromosomes would a normal female male have
    a. XX
  155. A typical human cell contains 46 chromosomes. After mitosis and cell division, each of the 2 new cells formed from the original cell
    b) gets a complete set of 46 chromosomes
  156. A diploid cell is one that
    d. all of the above
  157. The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human ovum (egg) is
    c. 23
  158. Cells spend most of their time in
    a) interphase
  159. The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called
    d) metaphase
  160. A typical human cell contains 46 chromosomes. After mitosis and cell division, each of the two new cells formed from the original cell
    c. gets a complete set of 46
  161. During mitosis, what helps ensure that each new cell receives all of the proper chromosomes
    d) the kinetochore fibers
  162. Mitosis is a process by which
    d) a cell's nucleus divides
  163. The process of cell division results in
    b. 2 daughter cells
  164. The stage of meiosis during which homologues line up along the equator of the cell is called
    metaphase I
  165. The difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that
    c) chromatids do not separate at the centromere in anaphase I
  166. When crossing over takes place, chromosomes
    d) exhange segments of DNA
  167. Crossing-over takes place in
    a. prophase I
  168. During crossing-over, portions of chromatids
    d) separate from each other and move to opposite poles of the cell
  169. Which of the following human cells is haploid
    d. egg cell
  170. The cells resulting from meiosis in either males or females are called
    d. gametes
  171. How many haploid cells does a single cell that undergoes the complete process of meiosis produce
    c. 4
  172. Where in the human body can you find cells being produced by meiosis
    c. testies and ovaries
  173. During oogenesis(meiosis in females), how many eggs develop from a diploid reproductive cell
    a. one
  174. During spermatogenesis(meiosis in males), how many sperm cells develop from a diploid reproductive cell
    d. four
  175. The area of the cell membrane that pinches in and eventually separates the dividing cell into two cells is called
    D. cleavage furrow
  176. During meiosis, two successive divisions
    c) are responsible for the formation of four haploid cells
  177. The field of biology devoted to understanding how characteristics are transmitted from parents to offspring is called
    a. genetics
  178. A genetic trait that masks the presence of another trait is called
    b. dominant
  179. The "father" of genetics was
    C. Gregor Mendel
  180. Mendel obtained plants that were pure for particular traits by
    a) allowing plants to self-pollinate for several generations
  181. When Mendel crossed a strain of tall pea plants with a strain of short pea plants, he observed that all of the plants in the F1 generation were tall. This suggests that
    b) the tall trait was controlled by a dominant factor
  182. A cross between pure green-podded pea plants and pure yellow-podded pea plants
    produces only green-podded plants. When the F1 generation is allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 generation consists of
    d) about three-quarters green-podded plants and one-quarter yellow-podded plants
  183. Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
    c) law of independent assortment
  184. The transferring of pollen between plants in called
    c. cross pollination
  185. The transmisson of characteristics from parents to offspring is called
    a. heredity
  186. The term denotes plants that are pure for a specific trait
    b. strain
  187. A reproductive process in which fertilization occurs within a single plant is
    c. self-pollination
  188. When Mendel crossed pure green-podded plants with pure yellow-podded plants, the first filial generation had
    d. all green pods
  189. When Mendel allowed the first filial generation to self-pollinate, he found the offspring had
    d) a ratio of three green-podded plants for every one yellow-podded plant
  190. A recessive trait is
    D. not observable of dominant factor is present
  191. Which of the following best describes the relationship between an allele and a gene
    c) An allele is one of two or more alternative forms of a gene
  192. When a pair of factors is separated, during the formation of gamates, this is called the law of
    c. segregation
  193. The study of the structure and function of chromosomes and genes is called
    c. molecular genetics
  194. The principle that states that when both alleles for a gene are expresssed in a heterozygous offspring is the principle of
    c. codominance
  195. If red is the dominant phenotype and white is the recessive phenotype, what is the phenotype of an individual with a heterozygous genotype
    a. red
  196. Which of the following represents an individual that is homozygous dominant for a given trait
    a. BB
  197. If a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant produces a pink-flowered plant, you can be fairly certain that the pink offspring is the result of
    b. incomplete dominence
  198. If you were to predict the results of crossing two traits at the same time (a dihybrid cross), you would need to set up a Punnett square with ____________ boxes
    c. 16
  199. An individual heterozygous for a trait and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait are crossed and produce many offspring that are
    b. of 2 different phenotypes
Card Set
Biology Review
biology mid term