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Biology is the study of
B. Life
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What process do the calls of multicellular organisms undergo that distinguishes them from unicellular organisms?
a.differentation
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A major theme of biology is the ability of all organisms to mantain a stable internal inviorment.
this ability is called
c. Homeostasis
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Basic unit of life
D. Cell
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Heredity information is in the form of a large molecule called
C. DNA
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Organisms that obtain their food by making their own food are called
B. autotrophs
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The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
B. cells
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living things
D. all of the above
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all organisms are composed of
C. cells
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all living things maintain a balance within their cells and the enviorment through the process of
D. evolution
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In most multicellular calls are organized according to their
C. function
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all living things use energy through a process called
B. metabolism
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an educated guess or _____ may be tested by an expeirement
D. hypothesis
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Scientific hypothesis are most often tested by the process of
D. experimenting
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Most scientist begin their investigation by making an
C. observation
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Which of the following objects produces the most highly magnified images
C. TEM
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A light microscope that has an objective lens of x 10 and an ocular lens of x 60 has a magnification of
C. x 600
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"the boy shot up 5 inches in only one year"
A. growth
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"our cat had a litter of kittens yesterday"
B. reproduction
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"My dog has become much less clumsy now that he is 1 year old"
C. development
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"eat a good breakfast and you'll be able to run longer"
D. energy
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"your body normally maintains a temp. of 98.6 degress F"
E. homeostasis
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your mouth watering at the sight of food on a plate
A. response
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A sudden drop in air temp.
B. Stimulus
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a flu virus entering your body
B. stimulus
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Getting "butterflies" in your stomach before giving a speech
A. response
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The recess bell ringing in an elementry school
B. stimulus
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an apple on a tree
B. living
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-
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rust eating a hole in a metal bucket
A. nonliving
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Which of the following statements is true?
D. matter is anything that occupies space and has mass
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Which of the following best describes the difference between an atom and an element?
a. An atom is the smallest piece of matter that cannot be broken down chemically into simpler kinds of matter. An element is a pure substance made of one type of atom.
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Which of the following correctly describes an atom
a. An atom consists of a central core made of positive protons and neutral neutrons. Moving around the core at high speeds are tiny, negatively charged electrons.
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Which of the following statements is true
c. Different types of atoms have different numbers of protons
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Which of the following best describes the difference between a compound and a molecule?
a) A molecule consists of two or more compounds; a compound consists of two or more atoms
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Which of the following is the simplest example of a molecule
B. H2
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An example of a compound is
a) H2O
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The atomic number of Neon is 10. Therefore, the number of protons in a Neon atom equals
B. 10
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The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
C. Carbon Atom
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Which of the following is an example of an atom
A. H
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The stability of an atom is determined by the
c) number of electrons in the outer energy level.
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If an atom is made up of 6 protons, 7 neutrons, and 6 electrons, this type of atom is called a(n)
B. isotope
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Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
b) their outer orbital's become filled when they form compounds
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The maximum number of electrons that can be held in an atom’s first (k) energy level is
A. 2
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All matter in the universe is composed of
C. Atoms
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One of the kinds of particles found in the nucleus of an atom is the
B. Proton
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What is the difference between ionic bonds and covalent bonds?
c) In ionic bonding, an ion with a positive charge is attracted to an ion with a negative charge. In covalent bonding, atoms share electron pairs to fill their outer electron levels
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Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
b) results in the formation of a compound
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Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond
c) Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond
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If an atom gains or loses electrons it becomes charged, this atom is called a
D. ion
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Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape
c. solid
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The amount of energy required for a chemical reaction to begin is called
d. activation energy
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In the chemical reaction CO2 H2O ------> H2CO3, what is(are) the reactant(s)?
c) CO2 and H2O
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A reaction in which the reactants have enough free energy to fuel the reaction, this type of reaction is called
c) an exergonic reaction
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Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
d) is accomplished by the action of catalysts
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Which of the following best describes a redox reaction
b) A redox reaction is a combined reduction-oxidation reaction. In reduction, a reactant loses an electron. This electron is added to the other reactant in an oxidation reaction
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When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
C. reduced
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What is an organic compound
c) a compound that contains covalently bonded chains or rings of carbon
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What are the 4 main elements that make up 95% of an organism
c) Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Carbon
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All organic compounds contain the element
a. C
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Carbon readily forms how many bonds with other atoms?
D. 4
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Which three elements are often found in organic compounds
a) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
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Carbon forms many different compounds because carbon
c) binds easily to hydrogen atoms
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A functional group is
a) a cluster of atoms attached to an organic compound that determine the characteristics of the compound
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Whenever carbon atoms bond to other carbon atoms they form 3 structural shapes which of the following is not one of the structural shapes formed
a. box chains
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In carbon compounds, the molecules are built up from smaller simpler molecules known as
c. monomers
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Large polymers linked together are called
c. macromolecules
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What is the difference between a condensation reaction and hydrolysis
b) In a condensation reaction, monomers bond together to form a polymer, which releases water. In hydrolysis, polymers are broken apart with the addition of water
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A monomer of carbohydrate is called a
c. monosaccharide
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Which of the following represents the proper carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen ratios of a six-carbon monosaccharide
d) C6H12O6
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Disaccharides are carbohydrates that are
a) composed of two monosaccharides
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Which of the following is a carbohydrate
d. sucrose
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Which organic molecule below is classified as a carbohydrate?
d. sugars
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Polysaccharides are
a. carbohydrates
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A complex molecule composed of 3 or more carbohydrate monomers is called a
c. polysaccharide
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Lipids are large, ___________ organic molecules that do not dissolve in water
b. nonpolar
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Fatty acids that are unsaturated have
d. a double carbon bond
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Lipids are distinguished from other organic molecules because they
b. do not dissolve in water
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All of the following are examples of lipids except
b. starch
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Two amino acids bond to form a
c. dipeptide
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Amino acids are monomers of
b. proteins
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Long chains of amnio acids are found in
c. proteins
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Amino acids become linked together by what type of bonds
b. peptide bonds
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Which of the following best describes the essential function of nucleic acids
b) to store hereditary information and make proteins
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DNA & RNA are polymers, composed of thousands of linked monomers called
d) nucleotides
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contains information that is essential for almost all cell activities
b. carbon
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Nucleic acids include
d) glucose and glycogen
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The smallest units of life in all living things are
a. cells
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One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that
c) prokaryotes have no membrane bound nucleus
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Which of the following is an example of parokaryotic cell
c. bacterium
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Only eukaryotic cells have
b. membrane bound organelles
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The cell membrane is described as selectively permeable because the membrane
b) allows some substances to pass through easily and prevents other substances from passing through
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Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
c) the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes
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Cells remain small because they must keep a
c) high surface-to-volume ratio
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The spherical organelles that are the site of protein synthesis in a cell are the
b. ribosomes
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The fluid portion of the cytoplasm is called the
d. cytosol
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A particularly active cell might contain large numbers of
c. mitochondria
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In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced
a. mitochondria
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Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, but it does have a cell membrane and a cell wall. You conclude that the cell is probably from a(n) . Choose the letter of the answer that best completes the sentence
c. prokaryote
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Viruses, bacteria, and old organelles that a cell ingests are broken down in
b. lysosomes
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The process in which cells become restricted to carrying out one or a few functions is called cell
c. specialization
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The nucleus of a cell contains all of the following EXCEPT
b. mitochondria
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The organs of an organism can be compared to the ____________ of a cell
d. organelles
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Which of the following organisms do not have membrane-covered organelles
a. bacteria
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What is the most notable feature found in eukaryotic cells but missing in prokaryotic cells
a. nucleous
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Energy from organic compounds is transferred to ATP in the
b. mitochondria
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Portions of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) called ____________ give the ER a rough appearance
c. ribosomes
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To travel from the nucleus to the cytosol, RNA molecules must
b. pass through nuclear pores
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Most nuclei contain at least one spherical area called the
d. nucleolous
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In most multicellular organisms, similar cells that perform a single function are grouped together to form
b. tissues
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The stomach is
d) an organ made up of muscle tissue, epithelial tissue, connective tissue, and nervous tissue
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Which of the following statements best describes the process of diffusion
d) If a solution contains a concentration gradient, the substance will move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration by diffusion
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What drives the process of diffusion?
c) The random movement of particles (natural kinetic energy) drives the process of diffusion
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How are osmosis and diffusion related
b) Osmosis is one type of diffusion
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When would water move into a cell by osmosis
b) when the fluid outside the cell is hypotonic to the cell
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Which of the following statements describes the process of facilitated diffusion
d) Special protein carriers move specific substances into the cell as the substances move down their concentration gradient
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As a result of dffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
b) eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane
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Diffusion takes place
b) from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentraton
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The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a. diffusion
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Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion
b) It moves substances against a concentration gradient
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Which of the following expends energy
d. all of the above
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The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
b. osmosis
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Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from vessicles at the cell surface is called
c. exocytosis
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Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
b. endocytosis
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What is the primary difference between passive transport and active transport
c) Active transport moves materials from a lower concentration to a higher concentration. Passive transport moves materials from a higher concentration to a lower concentration
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The sodium-potassium pump resembles which other cellular transport method
c. facilitated diffusion
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Which of the following descriptions explains how a sodium-potassium pump works
b) In a process that requires ATP, a carrier protein moves Na ions out of the cell and then the carrier protein moves K ions into the cell
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Which of the following is not example of active transport
d. facilitted diffusion
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The process of taking in large particles or entire cells by pinching off part of the cellular membrane is called
a. exocytosis
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How are endocytosis and exocytosis related
b) Endocytosis is the process in which cells ingest fluids or large particles for use inside the cell. Exocytosis is essentially the reverse of the endocytosis process
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If the concentration of a sugar solution is 1% outside the cell and 5% inside the cell, which of the following will happen by osmosis
b. water will move into the cell
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Cellular respiration is the
d) processes in which cells make ATP by breaking down organic compounds
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_______________________ is the first step in cellular respiration that begins releasing energy stored in glucose.
c. glycolysis
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If oxygen is not present, glycolysis is followed by
c. fermentation
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Glycolysis occurs in the
a. cytosol
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Since fermentation does not require oxygen it is said to be
b. anarobic
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Since glycolysis produces 4 ATP molecules, this results in a net gain of ATPs
b. 2
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The name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is
c. fermentation
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Muscle cramps occur when muscles are exercised extensively in the absence of sufficient oxygen, this is caused by
c. lactic acid fermentation
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Which stage of cellular respiration produces the most ATP
c. electron transport
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Which of the following is NOT part of cellular respiration
d. calvin cycle
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The process of eukaryotic nuclear division is called
b. mitosis
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The process of nuclear division that reduces the number of chromosomes in a cell by half
a. meisosis
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The cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides by a process called
c. cytokinesis
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During cell division, the DNA in a eukaryotic cell is tightly packed and coiled into structures called
d. chromosomes
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Between cell divisions, the DNA in a eukaryotic cell is uncoiled and spread out; in this form it is called
b. chromatin
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One of the first things that happens during mitosis is the
c) shortening and tight coiling of the DNA into rod-shaped chromosomes
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Chromatids are
d. joined strands of duplicated dna
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Sister chromatids are attached to each other at an area called the
a. centromere
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At the beginning of cell division, a chromosome consists of two
a. chromatids
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What is an autosome
d) any chromosome other than the sex chromosomes in humans or animals
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Which of the following sex chromosomes would a normal female male have
a. XX
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A typical human cell contains 46 chromosomes. After mitosis and cell division, each of the 2 new cells formed from the original cell
b) gets a complete set of 46 chromosomes
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A diploid cell is one that
d. all of the above
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The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human ovum (egg) is
c. 23
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Cells spend most of their time in
a) interphase
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The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called
d) metaphase
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A typical human cell contains 46 chromosomes. After mitosis and cell division, each of the two new cells formed from the original cell
c. gets a complete set of 46
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During mitosis, what helps ensure that each new cell receives all of the proper chromosomes
d) the kinetochore fibers
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Mitosis is a process by which
d) a cell's nucleus divides
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The process of cell division results in
b. 2 daughter cells
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The stage of meiosis during which homologues line up along the equator of the cell is called
metaphase I
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The difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that
c) chromatids do not separate at the centromere in anaphase I
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When crossing over takes place, chromosomes
d) exhange segments of DNA
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Crossing-over takes place in
a. prophase I
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During crossing-over, portions of chromatids
d) separate from each other and move to opposite poles of the cell
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Which of the following human cells is haploid
d. egg cell
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The cells resulting from meiosis in either males or females are called
d. gametes
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How many haploid cells does a single cell that undergoes the complete process of meiosis produce
c. 4
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Where in the human body can you find cells being produced by meiosis
c. testies and ovaries
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During oogenesis(meiosis in females), how many eggs develop from a diploid reproductive cell
a. one
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During spermatogenesis(meiosis in males), how many sperm cells develop from a diploid reproductive cell
d. four
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The area of the cell membrane that pinches in and eventually separates the dividing cell into two cells is called
D. cleavage furrow
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During meiosis, two successive divisions
c) are responsible for the formation of four haploid cells
-
The field of biology devoted to understanding how characteristics are transmitted from parents to offspring is called
a. genetics
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A genetic trait that masks the presence of another trait is called
b. dominant
-
The "father" of genetics was
C. Gregor Mendel
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Mendel obtained plants that were pure for particular traits by
a) allowing plants to self-pollinate for several generations
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When Mendel crossed a strain of tall pea plants with a strain of short pea plants, he observed that all of the plants in the F1 generation were tall. This suggests that
b) the tall trait was controlled by a dominant factor
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A cross between pure green-podded pea plants and pure yellow-podded pea plants
produces only green-podded plants. When the F1 generation is allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 generation consists of
d) about three-quarters green-podded plants and one-quarter yellow-podded plants
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Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
c) law of independent assortment
-
The transferring of pollen between plants in called
c. cross pollination
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The transmisson of characteristics from parents to offspring is called
a. heredity
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The term denotes plants that are pure for a specific trait
b. strain
-
A reproductive process in which fertilization occurs within a single plant is
c. self-pollination
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When Mendel crossed pure green-podded plants with pure yellow-podded plants, the first filial generation had
d. all green pods
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When Mendel allowed the first filial generation to self-pollinate, he found the offspring had
d) a ratio of three green-podded plants for every one yellow-podded plant
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A recessive trait is
D. not observable of dominant factor is present
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Which of the following best describes the relationship between an allele and a gene
c) An allele is one of two or more alternative forms of a gene
-
When a pair of factors is separated, during the formation of gamates, this is called the law of
c. segregation
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The study of the structure and function of chromosomes and genes is called
c. molecular genetics
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The principle that states that when both alleles for a gene are expresssed in a heterozygous offspring is the principle of
c. codominance
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If red is the dominant phenotype and white is the recessive phenotype, what is the phenotype of an individual with a heterozygous genotype
a. red
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Which of the following represents an individual that is homozygous dominant for a given trait
a. BB
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If a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant produces a pink-flowered plant, you can be fairly certain that the pink offspring is the result of
b. incomplete dominence
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If you were to predict the results of crossing two traits at the same time (a dihybrid cross), you would need to set up a Punnett square with ____________ boxes
c. 16
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An individual heterozygous for a trait and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait are crossed and produce many offspring that are
b. of 2 different phenotypes
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