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Which of the following is NOT normally used in a vaccine?
A) Toxoid
B) Parts of bacterial cells
C) Live, attenuated bacteria
D) Inactivated viruses
E) Antibodies
Answer: E
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Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has
antibodies against influenza virus?
A) Agglutination
B) Hemagglutination
C) Complement fixation
D) Hemolysis
E) Hemagglutination- inhibition
Answer: E
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A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is false?
A) The patient may have the disease.
B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
C) The patient may have been vaccinated.
D) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
E) The patient was near someone who had the disease.
Answer: E
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In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up: tube #1 contained a 1:2
dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?
A) 6
B) 1:6
C) 64
D) 1:32
E) 32
Answer: C
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Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a live virus vaccine?
A) The live vaccine may revert to a more virulent form.
B) Exogenous protein contaminants may be present.
C) Antibody response is not as good as with inactivated viruses.
D) Live viruses generally require refrigeration.
E) All of the above are disadvantages of live virus vaccine.
Answer: C
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Which of the following CANNOT yield antibodies for serological testing?
A) Vaccinated humans
B) Vaccinated animals
C) Monoclonal antibodies
D) Viral cultures
E) All of the above may yield antibodies for serological testing.
Answer: D
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A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen- forming lattices is called a(n)
A) Agglutination reaction.
B) Complement fixation.
C) Immunofluorescence.
D) Neutralization reaction.
E) Precipitation reaction.
Answer: E
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A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)
A) Agglutination reaction.
B) Complement fixation.
C) Immunofluorescence.
D) Neutralization reaction.
E) Precipitation reaction.
Answer: A
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A reaction using red blood cells as the indicator and hemolysis indicates an antigen antibody reaction is called
a(n)
A) Agglutination reaction.
B) Complement fixation.
C) Immunofluorescence.
D) Neutralization reaction.
E) Precipitation reaction.
Answer: B
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An indirect version of which test using antihuman globulin may be used to detect patient's antibodies against
Treponema pallidum ?
A) Agglutination reaction
B) Complement fixation
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Neutralization reaction
E) Precipitation reaction
Answer: C
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Toxoid vaccines such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus elicit a(n)
A) TC cell response.
B) Immune complex.
C) Dendritic cell proliferation.
D) Antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
E) Antibody response against gram- positive bacteria.
Answer: D
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What type of vaccine is Streptococcus pyogenes capsule?
A) Conjugated vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Nucleic acid vaccine
D) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine
E) Toxoid vaccine
Answer: B
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What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?
A) Conjugated vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Nucleic acid vaccine
D) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine
E) Toxoid vaccine
Answer: C
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Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is a(n)
A) Conjugated vaccine.
B) Subunit vaccine.
C) Nucleic acid vaccine.
D) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.
Answer: B
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What type of vaccine is live measles virus?
A) Conjugated vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Nucleic acid vaccine
D) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine
E) Toxoid vaccine
Answer: D
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A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient is the
A) Direct fluorescent- antibody test.
B) Indirect fluorescent- antibody test.
C) Direct agglutination test.
D) Direct ELISA test.
E) Hemagglutination- inhibition test.
Answer: B
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A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient is the
A) Direct fluorescent- antibody test.
B) Indirect fluorescent- antibody test.
C) Hemagglutination.
D) Hemagglutination- inhibition.
E) Indirect ELISA.
Answer: A
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A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient is the
A) Direct fluorescent- antibody test.
B) Indirect fluorescent- antibody test.
Answer: B
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Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's urine using
anti- HCG and latex spheres?
A) Direct agglutination reaction
B) Passive agglutination reaction
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Neutralization reaction
E) Precipitation reaction
Answer: B
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Which of the following is a test to determine patient's blood type by mixing patient's red blood cells with
antisera?
A) Direct agglutination reaction
B) Passive agglutination reaction
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Neutralization reaction
E) Precipitation reaction
Answer: A
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Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in patient's saliva?
A) Direct agglutination reaction
B) Passive agglutination reaction
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Neutralization reaction
E) Precipitation reaction
Answer: E
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Patient's serum, Rickettsia, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti- sheep red blood cells are
mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has epidemic typhus?
A) Bacteria fluoresce.
B) Hemagglutination occurs.
C) Hemagglutination- inhibition occurs.
D) Hemolysis occurs.
E) Rickettsia grow.
Answer: E
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A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n)
A) Conjugated vaccine.
B) Subunit vaccine.
C) Nucleic acid vaccine.
D) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.
Answer: B
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Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)
A) Conjugated vaccine.
B) Subunit vaccine.
C) Nucleic acid vaccine.
D) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.
Answer: E
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Haemophilus influenzae b capsular polysaccharide with a protein is a(n)
A) Conjugated vaccine.
B) Subunit vaccine.
C) Nucleic acid vaccine.
D) Inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.
Answer: A
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In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease?
A) A and B
B) B and C
C) A and C
D) C and D
E) A and D
Answer: A
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In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer: D
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In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer: A
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In Figure 18.1, which component came from the patient in this ELISA test?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: B
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Which of the following tests is NOT correctly matched to its positive reaction?
A) Hemagglutination clumping of red blood cells
B) Complement fixation no hemolysis
C) Neutralization no tissue/animal death
D) ELISA enzyme- substrate reaction
E) Western blot agglutination
Answer: E
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To detect botulinum toxin in food, suspect food is injected into two guinea pigs. The guinea pig that was
vaccinated against botulism survives, but the one that was not vaccinated dies. This is an example of
A) Agglutination.
B) Neutralization.
C) Hemagglutination.
D) Fluorescent antibodies.
E) ELISA.
Answer: B
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The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step?
A) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies.
B) Culture the hybridoma.
C) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
D) Isolate antibody- producing B cells.
E) Vaccinate a mouse.
Answer: C
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Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. The antiviral drug is
A) A toxoid.
B) A monoclonal antibody.
C) A vaccine.
D) An immunosuppressive.
E) A nucleoside analog.
Answer: B
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Live polio virus can be used in a(n)
A) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) Conjugated vaccine.
D) Subunit vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.
Answer: B
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Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)
A) Inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) Attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) Conjugated vaccine.
D) Subunit vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.
Answer: C
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Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)
A) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) Conjugated vaccine.
D) Subunit vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.
Answer: A
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Hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n)
A) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) Conjugated vaccine.
D) Subunit vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.
Answer: D
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Which is the third step in a direct ELISA test?
A) Substrate for the enzyme
B) Antigen
C) Antihuman immune serum
D) Antibodies against the antigen
Answer: C
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Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?
A) Substrate for the enzyme
B) Antigen
C) Antihuman immune serum
D) Antibodies against the antigen
Answer: B
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Which of the following tests is most useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?
A) Agglutination
B) Complement fixation
C) Neutralization
D) Indirect ELISA
E) Direct fluorescent- antibody
Answer: D
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Which of the following uses fluorescent- labeled antibodies?
A) Agglutination
B) Complement fixation
C) Precipitation
D) Flow cytometry
E) Neutralization
Answer: D
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Which of the following uses red blood cells as the indicator?
A) Agglutination
B) Complement fixation
C) Precipitation
D) Flow cytometry
E) Neutralization
Answer: B
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x In Situation 18.1, what is in the second well?
A) Antibodies
B) A fungal antigen
C) Fungal cells
D) Mycelia
E) Red blood cells
Answer: B
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The immunodiffusion test described in Situation 18.1 is
A) An agglutination reaction.
B) A precipitation reaction.
C) A complement- fixation test.
D) An ELISA test.
E) A direct test.
Answer: B
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Which one of the following statements about measles is true?
A) It is not a serious disease.
B) It is endemic in the United States.
C) Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide.
D) It is not preventable.
E) All children should get the disease.
Answer: C
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