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3A2 exam

  1. . What is the anagram for The National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors?
    NBBI
  2. The Alberta Boilers Safety Association (ABSA) is responsible for the administration of the legislation for _________ and _________.
    boilers, pressure vessels
  3. What designates the classification of the certificate of competency, required for the role of chief power engineer?
    kilowatt rating of the power plant.
  4. What is the role of the chief power engineer?
    inspect the operations
  5. What is the focus of the Engineers regulations
    state the minimum qualifications necessary to obtain each class of power engineer certification.
  6. . What standard regulates Boiler, Pressure Vessel, and Pressure Piping Code?
    CSA B51
  7. . What standard regulates Mechanical Refrigeration Code?
    CSA B52
  8. . What code regulates Rules For Construction of Power Boilers?
    ASME Section I
  9. . What code regulates Recommended Guidelines For The Care of Power Boilers?
    ASME Section VII
  10. What code regulates Chemical Plant and Petroleum Refinery Piping?
    B31.3
  11. . What is the main focus of the National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors (NBBI) ?
    to establish uniform qualifications for inspectors and acceptance of standard code requirements.
  12. .   What information will be found in the Boilers and Related Components of the B-51 code?
    This section identifies the standards used in the design, construction, installation, inspection, testing, and repair, along with water gauges, low water cut off, fusible plugs, boiler installation, inspection openings, outlet dampers, blowoff tanks, and cast iron steam and hot water boilers.
  13. . What tables are found in the tables section of the B-51 code?
    Categories of fittings. Minimum dimensions of blowoff vessels. Minimum dimensions of blowoff vessels for coil-tube boilers. Steam Tables Refrigeration Tables . 1, 2, 3
  14. . What are the two main purposes of the CSA B-52 code?
    To provide for the safe design, construction, installation, operation and repair of refrigerating and air conditioning equipment and systems, and related equipment.To promote uniform requirements among the provinces and territories.
  15. The most common thread used in North America on fasteners such as bolts, is the:
    B. Unified National
  16. . Specific gravity is the ratio between the mass of a volume of oil, and is generally measured with a __________.
    hydrometer
  17. The viscosity is the time, in __________, for 60 cm3 of oil to run through a __________ size orifice, at 38°C.
    seconds
  18. . The heating value of natural gas will vary according to its __________.
    constituents
  19. .   The catalytic removal system requires injection of __________ in the presence of a __________.
    ammonia, catalyst
  20. .  The most frequently used materials for power piping systems are:
    2.alloy steels 3.low carbon steels 5.Austenitic stainless steels
  21. .  PVC pipe is commonly used for:
    potable water applications
  22. .  ABS pipe is commonly used for:
    potable water systems and pressurized liquid lines for salt water, or crude oil
  23. .    Flexible Non-Metallic Pipe or Tubing is commonly used for
    instrumentation tubing
  24. . PVC pipe is commonly used for:
    potable water applications
  25. . ABS pipe is commonly used for:
    potable water systems and pressurized liquid lines for salt water, or crude oil
  26. . Flexible Non-Metallic Pipe or Tubing is commonly used for:
    b.instrumentation tubing
  27. . The use of expansion bends for high pressure service is preferred as:
    no maintenance involved and little likelihood of leaks developing
  28. . List the trap selection criteria for the application?Condensate capacity, under start-up Condensate capacity, under normal operating Condensate temperature the trap will have to handleSteam header temperaturePressure differential across the trap The location of the trap
    1,2,3,4,5,6
  29. Orthographic projection means:
    view of a cutting plane
  30. visual communications includes
    • 1.exhibitions
    • 2.films
  31. A205040300.   Describe three tasks done on a yearly trap inspection.
    • 1.the trap body and operating parts should be examined for corrosion, erosion,machanical wear
    • 2.
  32. preventative maintenance can be separated into two classifications
    • 1.paper work
    • 2.machanical work
  33. .   List three purposes of insulation.
    • retains the heat in the hot lines.
    • to prevents the temperature inside the power plant building from becoming uncomfortably high. insulating of hot pipelines will prevent injury to personnel due to contact with the bare surfaces of the pipe.
  34. What type of insulation will most likely be used for HP steam piping?
    calcium silicate
  35. .     Piping insulation is normally fabricated in half-cylindrical sections for fitting over the pipe. It is held together by __________ or _______, and then ________ with ______ _____, ___________ or galvanized steel
    metal wire, bands,covered, sheet metal, aluminum
  36. A205100300. List the key points that will help to maintain the integrity and maximize the life of insulation:
    • 1.It must not get wet, as wet insulation loses its insulating ability
    • 2.The insulation should not be cracked or broken, as this will greatly reduce its effectiveness
    • 3.The cladding must not be removed from the insulation, as the cladding holds the insulation in place, thereby protecting it from damage
    • 4.Do not walk on the pipe and equipment, as this will damage the insulation Be sure that all insulated boxes, covers and blankets are in place. Be sure that any damaged insulation is replaced as soon as possible; this prevents the      loss of heat and allows moisture in to promote corrosion to the piping
    • 5.Replace any missing insulation as soon as possible as personnel working in the      area could be burned from the hot process fluids in the piping
  37. .   In valve selection an examination of the fluid to be handled is made to determine its ___________ and __________.
    properties, characteristics
  38. . The gate valve, consists of a gate-like ______, actuated by a screwed stem and hand wheel, which moves up and down at _________ ________ to the flow.
    disc, right angles
  39. Valve sizes are selected in accordance with the _______ needed and permissible fluid-friction _______.
    b.capacity, losses
  40. .   Valve sizes are selected in accordance with the _______ needed and permissible fluid-friction _______.
    capacity, losses
  41. .   List factors involved in valve selection
    economics,corrosion,Valve lifespan,Process reliability
  42. .   The valve trim refers to the valve _____ and ______.
    c.Disc, seat
  43. .   Variables effecting material selection are:
    the process fluid and its temperature,the pressure range that the system will operate in.If the process fluid is very corrosive
  44. . All valves must be properly identified as to the material of construction and the service conditions for which they are designed, the following basic information
    Manufacturer’s name or trademark. Type of weather proof insulation required.Material designation, for example, steel or cast iron, and ASTM Number
  45. .   ________ valve bodies in general can be used on water service up to temperatures of about 250°C.
    Cast-iron
  46. . Name 3 types of gate design:
    c.solid, flexible, hinged
  47. . A V-shaped insert type of valve would be used as a control valve as flow characteristics are usually more __________ .
    linear
  48. . A valve that the handwheel and stem rise as the handwheel is turned is called a:
    c.raising stem
  49. .   List 4 methods of attaching a bonnet to a valve body:
    Welded,Union,Flanged,Threaded
  50. .   Globe valves are used for:
    throttling, controlling fluid flow
  51. .   The conventional globe valve is fairly ________ and popular in low-pressure service where severe __________ is not required
    a.cheap, throttling
  52. .   The plug type globe valve is the best of the three types for ________ and ______ service.
    throttling, hard
  53. .     Describe an Angle-style valve
    always single-ported. Single-ported means they have only one port and one plug. They are commonly used in boiler feedwater and in heater drain service.
  54. .     High-pressure single-ported globe bodies, or plug type, are often used in production of _____ and _____.
    Oil, gas
  55. .   The single seated balance valve, has a _______ _______ moving inside a removable cage, which holds down a seating ring.
    b.valve plug
  56. .   Describe the double seated balance valve:
    c.can pass up to twice as much fluid as a single port valve. It generally divides the flow in half through two control ports.
  57. .   In a balance plug design, downstream __________ acts on both the top and bottom of the valve plug, there by __________ most of the forces
    pressure, equalizing
  58. .   Plug Valves consist of a tapered or straight vertical cylinder _________ into a valve body.
    incerted
  59. .     The plug turns with the help of a _______ or is ______ operated.
    b.wrench, gear
  60. .     List plug valve gland types:
    screwed gland,single gland,bolted gland,
  61. . The eccentric plug valve, is specially designed for:
    severe rotarty applications, as it features tight shut off with globe style seating
  62. . The purpose of the bolted jackets are
    d.apply heat to the valve body
  63. . The mixing valve, is designed with two ______ and one __________ for blending two fluids.
    inlets, discharge
  64. The diverting valve is a three-way valve, with _____ inlet and _____ outlets
    c.one, two
  65. . Describe diverter valve operation
    b.The inlet pressure acts equally on both valve plugs, reducing the force needed to move the valve stem. An unbalanced force will be produced if one discharge line has a higher pressure than the other discharge line.
  66. . Describe Diaphram Valve applications
    flow control service when handling corrosive and toxic fluids.used extensively in raw water treatment plants, in sulfuric acid applications. generally in services where bubble-tight or drip-tight closure is mandatory
  67. . Diaphragm valves have three basic parts: the valve _____, the valve _____ assembly, and the flexible disc or _________ .
    b.body, bonnet, diaphram
  68. . Diaphragms are made of any of materials resistant to the particular fluids being transported. Choose four:
    rubber,neoprene,stainless steel,polyethylene
  69. .   List advantages of diaphram valves:
    1.the diaphragm is separated from the fluid and no packing material is required as in conventional valves.the bonnet assembly, can be removed for cleaning or lubricating without shutting off the fluid in the line
  70. . The butterfly valve is often used as a final control element in ____ or large ______ piping systems.
    air, water
  71. List the two ways butterfly valves are installed into a piping system
    Wafer,Glues
  72. . List the three subcategories of butterfly valves:
    wing-through,Lined,High performance
  73. . Match the valve type to the descripter:
    high performance-with flangeless or lugged (flanged) connections, and carbon steel or stainless steel bodies. With their very tight shutoff, heavy-duty construction, and tight linkages, these valves are suitable for as many process applications as their sliding stem counterparts.lined-design is this used with corrosive fluids.-Swing Through- they are handicapped by lack of tight shutoff.
  74. Gears provide a mechanical advantage permitting _____ _____ to operate the valve, where ____ might otherwise be needed.
    one person, two
  75. .   Solenoid valves are used in:
    small size systems where on and off operation is required..fuel gas systems as the latching valve
  76. .   Select the advantages of electrical valve operators:
    1.can be set up for operation from several different locations – remotely operated.2.Remote indicating devices can be installed to show the position of the valve at any operating station.3.Valve operating speeds (to close the valve) from two seconds for some units, to four minutes can be reached.4.Valves can be operated without personnel having to climb ladders or enter dangerous locations.
  77. .   Which best describes a spring-loaded diaphragm actuator
    has a diaphragm and a diaphragm plate connected to an actuator stem.
  78. .   Resistance:
    Limits current flow, Depends on material, Depends on temperature, Depends on dimensions.
  79. Conductive materials:
    Gain resistance while temperature rises while others lose resistance. Can vary resistance directly or inversely with temperature
  80. . Free valence electrons flow from _______ when connected to an electrical supply.
    Negative to positive
  81. . The free valence electrons of a conductor, when connected to the poles of a battery will move towards:
    The positive pole
  82. . An electrical source could be in the form of a
    1.             Battery& Generator
  83. . The practical unit used to represent load is:
    Ohm
  84. Electric current flow depends on the number of charges:
    c.In motion
  85. The power source must maintain a potential difference
    Between two points
  86. . Factors determining the resistance of a conductor are
    b.Type of material, length, diameter and temperature
  87. . A conductor's resistance to current flow is dependent on the following factors:
    Type of material, length, diameter and temperature
  88. . In a magnetic circuit, the magnetic flux is the equivalent of electric _____________ in an electric circuit.
    Current
  89. .   When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the field produced by the conductor __________ the magnetic field between the poles.
    c.Distorts
  90. .   When a loop of current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the wire loop will:
    c.Have a torque produced on it
  91. If a conductor is moved relative to a magnetic field so as to "cut" the magnetic flux then an _______________ will be induced in the conductor
    emf
  92. A magnetic field is always considered to travel from:
    e.North to south
  93. .   In a generator, the direction of the induced emf can be determined by applying Fleming's ________ Hand Rule.
    right
  94. When a current carrying conductor forming a loop is placed inside an external magnetic field, then the external field will cause the loop to:
    Produce a torque
  95. . The magnetomotive force in a magnetic circuit has its equivalent in an electric circuit which is the
    Voltage
  96. . The airgaps between the poles and the armature are:
    d.Kept comparatively small
  97. . The yoke in a DC machine is usually made of:
    Steel
  98. . The end shields hold:
    The bearing housings
  99. The armature core is made of:
    d.Soft iron laminations
  100. The assembled armature core:
    Has axial slots around its periphery
  101. . The displacement between the centers of adjacent poles in an armature is:
    One pole pitch
  102. . The displacement between the centers of adjacent poles in an armature
    180 electrical degrees
  103. . Neutral axis refers to:
    A position of the brushes causing minimum sparking
  104. . The torque produced by the armature conductors in a generator
    Increases with load ,Opposes the driving torque, Is load torque
  105. . The emf induced in a moving conductor depends on
    The speed of the moving conductor
  106. . Armature reaction _______________ the main field.
    Distorts
  107. . Interpoles carry _______________ current.
    d.Armature
  108. . Interpoles are connected in series with the ___________:
    Armature
  109. .  A way of overcoming armature reaction is by:
    c.Inserting interpoles between the main poles
  110. . The separately excited generator has a _______________ load characteristic:
    c.Falling
  111. The manner in which the terminal voltage varies with a varying load current is called the:
    Percentage voltage regulation
  112. The shunt generator has a no-load characteristic similar to that of the _________________ generator.
    Separately-excited
  113. . A DC generator is a DC machine driven by an:
    Prime mover
  114. . The three basic ways in which a self-excited generator can be connected are classified as:
    Shunt generator, Compound generator, Series generator
  115. . In a series generator, the load current and generated voltage increase in inverse ratio to the load resistance until:
    Magnetic saturation of the poles is reached
  116. . For DC generators the nearer to zero the percentage voltage regulation is then:
    The better the voltage regulation
  117. . Excitation of the shunt field is controlled by:
    A regulating rheostat
  118. . Another name for the no-load characteristic is the:
    Internal characteristic
  119. The behaviour of the separately excited generator with regard to its load characteristic is that as load increases, its delivery voltage:
    Remains constant
  120. .  In a shunt motor, if the field becomes disconnected during operation the motor will:
    A small current at no-load conditions- The danger of overspeed as the load is removed -The load current equals the excitation current
  121. . Speed control is usually restricted to ________ motors:
    -Shunt-  Compounded
  122. .  Where high starting torques are required but the running load may be small the DC motor to use would be:
    c.Compound
  123. .  In a shunt motor torque is proportional to:
    Armature current
  124. . When high starting torque is desired a _____________ DC motor is best.
    Series
  125. . DC motors are restricted to a starting current of about _______ percent of full load current
    150
  126. .  The three-point starter for DC motors has connections for:
    -Line - field- Armature
  127. . Where approximate constant speed is to be maintained between no-load and full-load the DC motor to use would be:
    b.Shunt
  128. . Where a large starting torque is of prime importance the DC motor to use would be:
    a.Series
  129. . As the flux of a shunt motor remains constant its torque is:
    Proportional to armature current
  130. .  The voltage drop at the armature of a shunt DC motor is a percentage that normally does not exceed:
    5.0 %
  131. The most common type of industrial electrical generation is:
    Three phase
  132. .   When you are synchronizing an electrical generator and the synchronizing lamps are dark, you
    a.Should have higher voltage ratings than the line system
  133. .   An alternator is a:
    d.AC generator
  134. . Alternators:
    c.Have a rotating armature on which a DC excitation winding is placed
  135. .   Salient pole rotors:
    b.Are used on alternators not exceeding 1800 rpm
  136. .   The most common frequency of AC generators in North America is:
    60 hertz
  137. The best method of synchronizing an alternator to a system is:
    a.The synchroscope
  138. . Paralleling alternators require the following conditions
    -It must be in phase with the system- The incoming alternator must be the same voltage as the system- Its phase sequence must be the same as the system- Alternator frequency and system frequency must be the same
  139. .   For paralleling alternators, the incoming alternator must be the same ___________ as the system voltage
    voltage
  140. Wound rotor induction motors:
    e.Are used to control speed
  141. .   Synchronous motors:
    d.Can be run at a leading power factor
  142. .   Synchronous motors
    b.Can be run as an alternator or a motor
  143. .   Synchronous motors:
    Require DC power supply to the rotor
  144. .   Synchronous motors:
    d.Can be used to help correct power factor
  145. .   The synchronous motor is:
    Not self starting
  146. .     Starting methods and devices used on electric motors are used to
    Reduce voltage during start up
  147. .   Line impedance starters:
    Use resistors or inductors in series with each phase in order to reduce the starting current
  148. .   Star-delta starting
    Is used on motors designed to run as delta connected machines
  149. .     Auto-transformer starter:
    b.Is used on motors designed to run as delta connected machines
  150. Auto-transformer starter
    Expensive method but capable of giving better starting torque
  151. Synchronous motors are started by:
    a.The Amortisseur winding
  152. .     Line impedance starters:
    Give a lower starting torque per starting kVA
  153. .   Induction motor starting when directly connected to the source:
    Requires up to six times its full-load current when starting
  154. 29.    Wound-rotor motor starters:
    Enable external resistance to be inserted into the rotor circuit during starting and gradually taken out as the motor accelerates
  155. .     Transformers are used for:
    -Stepping up AC voltage -Stepping down AC voltage - Rectifying DC voltage to AC voltage
  156. .   Transformers function on the principle of
    Mutual inductance
  157. .   Auto-transformers:
    a.Can use less copper
  158. .   Current transformers are
    e.Voltage step-up transformers
  159. Three phase systems often use banks of _______ ________ transformer to replace three-phase transformers
    single phase
  160. .   If the number of secondary turns is such that the secondary voltage is smaller than the primary voltage, then the transformer is a __________ ___________
    step down
  161. .   Single-phase transformers:
    Use two common forms of construction known as the core type and the shell type
  162. . A dual supply system is one in which two independent power lines are used to __________ the same load.
    Supply
  163. . Under normal operation, both incoming breakers, are ______ and the tiebreaker is ______.
    closed, open
  164. Gantt charts are used to plan
    • 1. shift schedules
    • 2.large and long overalls
    • 3.holiday schedule
  165. . Describe Kilowatt hours meter
    This is a meter that measures and records the amount of power produced by the generator.
  166. .   Describe exciter field voltage meter
    This gives an indication of the DC voltage that is being supplied to the generators field windings.
  167. Describe exciter field current meter
    This gives an indication of the DC current that is being supplied to the generators field windings.
  168. Describe AC kilowatts meter
    This is an indication of the AC kilowatts the generator is producing.
  169. .   Describe A, B & C Phase meter
    These are an indication of the AC current, expressed in amps, being produced by the three-phase generator.
  170. . Describe the purpose of the voltage adjust
    This is to adjust the generator excitation voltage
  171. . Describe the purpose of the frequency meter
    c.This is a measurement of the reactive power being generated by the AC generation   system
  172. .   Describe the purpose of the power factor meter
    This is a meter to check the power factor of the generating system.
  173. .   Describe the purpose of the AC volt meter
    This is an indication of the AC voltage, expressed in volts, which is being produced by the three-phase generator.
  174. .   Describe the purpose of the AC kilovars meter.
    This is a measurement of the reactive power being generated by the AC generation system.
  175. Describe the purpose of the voltmeter selector.
    This is used to check and verify the voltage on each phase of the generator.
  176. .   Cartridge fuses are used on circuits with voltage ratings up to ____ volts, the standard voltage ratings of these fuses being ____ and ____ volts.
    b.600, 250, 600
  177. Time lag fuses have two parts, a _______ cutout part and a _____ link.
    thermal, fuse
  178. .   A Safety switch is a device for:
    isolating parts of an electric circuit
  179. .   A circuit breaker is an automatic device that:
    a.indicates circuit status  b.opens under abnormally high current conditions.
  180. .   Relay systems may cause circuit breakers to open due to changes in ________, ________ or ________.
    frequency, voltage, current
  181. .   When a ___________ generator loses excitation, the rotor accelerates and it operates as an induction generator, running above __________ speed.
    synchronous, synchronous
  182. .   Over excitation most often occurs:
    1.during start up / shutdown2.operating at reduced frequency3.complete load rejestion4.a failure in the excitation system
  183. .   Generator over voltage may occur during:
    1.load rejection 4.excitation control failure
  184. .   If a dead generator is accidentally energized, while on turning gear, it will start and behave as an ________ _______induction motor.
    Induction motor
  185. .   Excess power results in an _______ _______ condition with a possible overvoltage from reduced load demands
    b.over frequency
  186. .   A second ground fault will cause extensive damage by:
    1.Shorting out parts of the field winding2.Causing high unit vibrations3.Causing rotor heating from unbalanced currents
  187. An uninterruptible power supply is required for plant systems that cannot tolerate a momentary loss of ________ and/or ________.
    voltage , frequency
  188. .   The rectifier unit converts 600V, 3 phase AC power to 220V DC, which provides power to charge the ________ and also supply the ________.
    batteries, inverter
  189. The classes of fastening devices are:
    permanent and removable
  190. .   Consider all circuits to be alive unless one is certain that they are _____ and cannot, by some human error, be made _____.
    dead, live
  191. Requirements for the provincial boiler an pressure vessels act and regulations, as far as record keeping goes, the folowing must be adhered too
    • 1.A log book is kept in all plants
    • 2.log book must be availble to the inspector and is a legal document
    • 3.the boiler registration and inspection certificates are kept in a safe place
    • 4.the chief inspector is kept informed of all accidents and casuallties
  192. . Ohm's Law can be used to:
    - Calculate current flow if the applied emf and resistance are knowna.-Calculate the required emf to cause a required current to flow through a known resistance-Calculate the required circuit resistance if the voltage and current flow are known
  193. The kind of resistors called "composition resistors" are made of:
    a mixture of conducting and non conducting materials
  194. The greatest instantaneous value of AC is:
    Amplitude
  195. . According to Ohm's Law:
    If you raise E, I will go up
  196. . If a light bulb in a circuit has a resistance of 100 ohms and 1 ampere of current flows in the circuit when the switch is closed, what is the voltage output of the battery?
    100 volts
  197. If the resistance in a circuit was kept constant and the applied voltage was increased, there would be
    A corresponding increase in current
  198. The quantity of current flow depends on:
    The intensity of the emf
  199. . If the resistance of a circuit is decreased to 1/4 of its original value, what happens to the current if the supply voltage is unchanged?
    Current is 4 times original
  200. . If the resistance of a circuit is decreased to 1/4 of its original value, what circuit change can be made to maintain the original circuit current?
    The voltage would be 1/4 of original
  201. .  A simple electric circuit consists of:
    Conductor, load, source
  202. . Doubling both the voltage and resistance in a circuit has what effect on the current?
    Current remains the same
  203. in a steam plant a chief engineer has a dual responsibility which can lead to:
    A conflict of interest
  204. . For a parallel circuit
    1.The same voltage is applied across all resistors 3. The total resistance of the parallel is always less than the smallest parallel resistance 4.The sum of the currents flowing in each path is equal to the supply current
  205. in an ammeter circuit, the movement current times the movement resistance equals the shunt resistance times
    "by-pass" or shunt current
  206. isdictional Question) In Alberta, Boiler and Pressure Vessel Safety is regulated by:
    the Safety Codes Act
  207. Safety valves shall be designed to attain full lift at a pressure above set pressure but not exceeding:
    6%
  208. The measuring instrument used with a Wheatstone bridge circuit is:
    Galvanometer
  209. . When a Wheatstone bridge is balanced, the meter will read:
    Zero
  210. . The Wheatstone bridge accurately measures:
    Resistances
  211. Which of the following equation(s) is/are correct for complete combustion?
    2H2 + O2 = 2H2O
  212. .   The power used by an electric heater drawing 5 amps at 110 volts is:
    550 watts
  213. The formation of carbon monoxide in the furnace is undesirable because it is:
    1. explosive2. poisonous4. inefficient
  214. The advantages of oil over coal as a boiler fuel are:
    1. reduced storage problems 3. less handling equipment 4. less labour required
  215. Complete combustion will take place only when:
    1. the temperature of the fuel-air mixture will be at least equal to the ignition temperature.2. there is sufficient oxygen present for combustion.3. the oxygen is in intimate contact with the fuel.
  216. The swing check valve:
    offers little resistance to flow
  217. . In the formula for work, W = EIT, the W equals:
    Watt seconds
  218. . One-watt hour equals:
    3.6 kJ
  219. Steam separators:
    1. cause the steam to suddenly change its direction 2. impart a whirling motion to the steam . 3. use baffles to cause the steam flow to change direction 5. are sometimes called steam purifiers
  220. a repulsion motor is a type of
    dc motor
  221. . The greatest instantaneous value of AC is:
    Voltage peaks before the current
  222. . For an AC circuit to be purely resistive, we must have:
    -No inductance -Current and voltage in phase -No capacitance -No lagging or leading current
  223. . In a purely inductive AC circuit the current:
    Lags voltage by 90 degrees
  224. .   In a purely capacitive AC circuit the current:
    Leads the voltage by 90 degrees
  225. . If an ac voltage is applied to a circuit it will produce an ac current flow. If the voltage and the current reach their maximum values at the same time they are said to be ________.
    in phase
  226. wound-rotor motor starters
    enable external resistance to be inserted into the rotor circuit during starting and gradually taken out as the motor accelerates
  227. Excitation of the shunt field is controlled by
    a regulating rheostat
  228. .   The root-mean-square value is:
    -70.7% of the amplitude -70.7% of the maximum instantaneous current- Termed the effective value -The amount of AC which will produce the same as a given amount of DC
  229. wound-rotor induction motors
    are used to control speed
  230. .   RMS current is 35 amps. The peak-to-peak value is:
    99   amps
  231. induction motor field current rotate
    faster than the rotor
  232. induction motor lightly loaded
    decrease power factor
  233. in order to retain the advantages of the capacitor-start motor beyond the starting period
    the two valve capacitor motor is used
  234. poly-phase induction motors
    require very little maintenance
  235. As the temperature of carbon conductors rises, the electrical resistance generally:
    . Decreases
  236. .   A coil has an inductance 20 mH. The inductive reactance is 100 Ω. Find the line frequency.
    796 Hz
  237. The resistance of a conductor does not depend on its:
    mass
  238. The total currents away from a point equal:
    sum of currents into the point
  239. The power factor of an AC circuit is equal to
    the cosine of the phase angle
  240. What type of electrical supply is used by electrostatic precipitators?
    . D.C
  241. .   Inductive reactance opposes:
    Current flow
  242. .   Impedance is:
    The combined effect of reactance and resistance
  243. The main opposition to current flow in a motor is:
    counter emf
  244. For DC generators, the nearer to zero the percentage voltage regulation is then:
    the better the voltage regulation
  245. .Which of the following methods is not a means used to start a 3 phase induction motor?
    Armature reaction starting
  246. There are two possible methods of connecting up three‑phase generator windings. These are known as the _____ and the ______ connections.
    b.star, delta
  247. .   The control loop is made up of four basic functional blocks
    1.Process 3.Measurement4.Automatic controller5.The final control element
  248. .   For purposes of control theory, a process can be defined as an action in which material and/or ________ is modified to a different form
    energy
  249. .   Flow rate is often measured with:
    orifice plate
  250. .   List the four types of final actuators
    1.conveyor belt 4.a louver5.motor’s variable speed drive6.a compressor’s inlet guide vanes
  251. . Pneumatic systems can operate on
    1.compressed air 3.nitrogen 5.methane
  252. Transmitters convert a process physical quantity such as level, pressure, flow, or temperature into a representative pneumatic analog signal, usually ________.
    20 - 100 kPa
  253. . Pneumatic level switches are available for
    1.level2.pressure 4.temperature 6.flow
  254. List the three main elements of an Analog Instrumentation Loop.
    2.transmitter3.controller 5.final control element
  255. . __________ are used to convert physical quantities of flow, level, temperature, pressure, and weight into electrical signals that represent those quantities as accurately as possible.
    c.transmitters
  256. . Square root extractors are used to convert squared signals from __________ flowmeters to ________ flow signals.
    1.view and change the setpoint 3.view the process variable 5.view process history
  257. . The main devices used as final control elements are
    1.control valves2.variable speed motor drives (VSDs)4.speed governors6.damper positioners
  258. .   The term “digital” describes computer systems that use the binary number system of _____ and _____.
    ones, zeros
  259. . Large control rooms almost invariably contain a number of video ________ consoles attached to a large distributed control system data highway
    operator
  260. The smart transmitter is really a digital device, containing an on-board ___________ complete with memory
    microprocessor
  261. . The majority of final control elements are, and will continue to be:
    control valves
  262. . In on-off control, the controller signal to the final control element is either ______  positive or ________ negative
    100 %, 100 %
  263. . Most common three examples of on-off control are:
    5.The compressed air supply to a storage tank.1.temperature controlled exhaust fan in a compressor building.3.A thermostat controlled forced air furnace.
  264. . The percent of the process variable range that causes _____ change in controller output is often called the proportional band.
    100 %
  265. Integral control, often called reset, responds to both the _______ and ______ duration of the deviation.
    amount, time
  266. .  In a closed-loop control configuration, a measurement is made of the controlled variable, and this is compared with the desired ­­­­­­­­­­______ or ____
    value, setpoint
  267. . List two process conditions that can make the overall effectiveness of feedback control unsatisfactory.
    3.large disturbances4.large amounts of lag
  268. . Cascade control is achieved by the use of two controllers, but only one _________.
    Final control element
  269. . The Auto-Select loop control allows the automatic selection between one or more measured or controlled variables to produce a _______ output that is used as a controlled variable
    single
  270. .    Emergency ShutDown (ESD) devices are operated by
    1.air2.hydraulics5.electricity
  271. .   List the two most common ESD’s
    1.Shutdown and isolate rotating equipment3.Shutdown , isolate, and depressure
  272. An emergency shutdown could be activated __________ or __________.
    automatically, manually
  273. .   List five of the most common conditions monitored by a sensor and that activate shutdowns:
    1.High or low temperature2.Loss of lubricating oil3.Vibration 5.High or low level6.High or low pressure
  274. .  When a loop is not controlling properly, the operator may have to ___________ each component of that control loop.
    troubleshoot
  275. .    List the elements of a digital control panel:
    1.computer consoles3.keyboards4.printers6.strip charts
  276. The operator can change set points on the CRT using
    a.keyboard c.mouse b.trackball
  277. . Thermowells are:
    Used to protect the bulb from erosion, corrosion and impact
  278. Bimetal thermometers are sometimes wound in the form of a helix to
    Increase the accuracy of temperature reading
  279. . Filled thermal elements:
    May be filled with a liquid or gas
  280. . Increasing the number of corrugations in a bellows type element:
    Increases the travel of the bellows
  281. An absolute pressure gauge uses a/an _____ to sense the pressure.
    Bellows
  282. The universal series motor:
    will operate on DC or AC up to about 60 Hertz
  283. .   The orifice plate has the advantage over other types of metering restrictions because it:
    c.Is easy to install and replace
  284. The vena contracta is the point where the:
    Fluid has the smallest cross sectional area
  285. On the Bellows type of indicating mechanism used in conjunction with orifice plate, the bellows are filled with:
    e.Ethylene glycol and water
  286. Float-operated level measurement devices are:
    Direct type
  287. . The operator interface unit allows the operator to monitor process conditions and manipulate set points of the process operation. The operator interface unit is located in a central control room. From this location the operator can
    1.View information transmitted from the processing area on an output device such as a video monitor.3.Change control conditions from input devices such as a keyboard, mouse or touchscreen.
  288. The measurement and control components of the system are distributed at locations throughout the process area and perform two functions at each location:
    1.The measurement of analog and/or digital inputs.4.Generation of output signals to actuators that can change process conditions.
  289. In newer systems the panel boards and consoles of an older analog system are eliminated and the communications are over a shared cable. The shared cable arrangement is called a ________
    data highway
  290. List five components of a DCS system
    Transmitters, Final control elements,  Operators console, Controllers, Input/output cards
  291. .   programmed algorithms are called function blocks and include proportional, integral, and __________ functionality.
    c.Derivative
  292. The three principle components of the operator station are
    1.video monitor 3.keyboard 5.mouse/trackball
  293. . From a graphic display, an operator may have the ability to:
    1.start or stop a boiler2.change the setpoint of the boiler master or drum level.4.place any loop in manual or automatic mode
  294. The faceplate displays ____ ___ when a particular process loop is addressed on the graphic display.
    b.pop up
  295. Trend displays are the DCS equivalents of ______
    chart recorders
  296. . It is the responsibility of the __________ to acknowledge the alarm, and decide on the appropriate course of action
    c.operator
  297. . An automatic shutdown is controlled by either the
    1.central computer system 3.programmable logic controller
  298. . List 4 DCS input devices:
    keyboard, mouse, track ball,touch screen
  299. Programmable logic controllers (PLCs) were originally designed to control processes that required a ____________ to be followed
    b.sequence of events
  300. A microprocessor is an integrated circuit that fits on a single chip. It contains :
    1.arithmetic unit2.control circuitry 4.memory registers
  301. The control relay is an ___________ or electromechanical device
    Electromagnetic
  302. Ladder logic is used extensively when __________ PLC’s
    programming
  303. . List the three main elements of SCADA:
    1.Remote termial unit (RTU)4.Master terminal unit (MTU)5.Modem
  304. . List the four main elements of a RTU
    1.microprocessor2.memory4.input/output terminals 5.data highway
  305. . List four action available via an RTU:
    2.download configurations3.upload a historical data5.change RTU parameters6.manipulate the process.
  306. .   Identify four communication paths for RTU’s:
    1.On dedicated wires which run directly from the RTU to the central computer.3.Through the telephone system, using modems 4.Using radio5.microwave signals
  307. .   The Occupational Health and Safety Act (OH&S Act), is the basis of health and safety law in ________.
    Alberta
  308. The Act is the legislation passed by the ________ government.
    provincial
  309. .   Not all workers are covered by provincial legislation. The typical major exceptions are
    a.domestic workers b.federal government employees c.workers in federally regulated industries d.agricultural workers.
  310. The Act and regulations can be obtained from which locations:
    1.the provincial government printers 2.libraries 4.employers 6.Internet web site
  311. The Occupational Health and Safety Act says that an employer, must do everything it reasonably can to protect the health and safety of your workers. This means:
    1.Equipment must be kept in safe working order2.Dangerous chemicals must be properly labeled and stored3.Safe work practices must be set up for workers and the employer must ensure these practices are followed4.The employer must ensure that the workers have the skills and training needed to do their jobs safely5.It is the employer’s responsibility to inform its workers of any dangers at the job site6.The employer must monitor workers who may be exposed to certain controlled products; in some cases, specific health examinations may be required
  312. As a worker, the Occupational Health and Safety Act requires you to work safely and ___________ with your employer by following the health and safety rules for the job.
    co-operate
  313. Injuries and accidents must be reported if they:
    a.Involve the collapse or failure of a necessary component of a building or structureb.Result in deathc.Cause a worker to be admitted to hospital for more than two daysd.Involve an unplanned or uncontrolled explosion, fire or flood that causes a serious injury, (or has the potential to cause a serious injury)e.Involve the collapse or upset of a crane, derrick or hoist
  314. The function of the Occupational Health and Safety Committee is to initiate and assist in the __________ of health and safety expectations and safe systems of work.
    development
  315. . Gamma rays will penetrate steel up to:
    15 cm thick
  316. . Conducting regular team safety meetings is an effective way for the team to achieve a safer and more productive workplace. The team meets to:
    1.Share information and safety concerns 3.Discuss safety issues and find solutions 5.Build on communication 6.Stimulate group discussion and interaction in regards to safety items
  317. Safety committees should be established with representatives from:
    Management and plant workers
  318. . Examples of Class A hazards are:
    a.Working under a suspended load b.Working in an excavation that is improperly shored or cut back c.Working in a confined space without proper protective equipment, or using proper procedures d.Working without a fall-arresting device when required
  319. .   Examples of Class B hazards are
    a.Working without protective equipment b.Working with inadequate lighting or ventilation c.A slippery oil condition on main aisle way d.A broken tread at bottom of office stairs
  320. .   Examples of Class C hazards are
    1.A carpenter handling rough lumber without gloves2.A strong rancid odor from cutting oil, circulating in the bed of a large lathe
  321. When conducting a safety inspection of a workplace, focus on things that can be seen or ________ such as unsafe conditions, or unsafe work practices.
    observed
  322. . Permits are used for ___________ and co-coordinating work to establish and maintain safe working conditions.
    controlling
  323. . The permit is an agreement between the issuer and the receiver that documents the:
    a.conditions                                                                                b.preparations c.precautions d.limitations
  324. The type of work permit required is determined by the nature of the work and the _________ that must be eliminated or controlled.
    Hazards
  325. List work permit types are most commonly used.
    a.Work Clearance b.Hot Work Permits c.Cold Work Permits d.Confined Space Entry Permits
  326. .   The permit issuer must be sure that the work situation identified on the permit is as described, and the permit issuer ______ the work or operation with the worker before work starts.
    review
  327. .   In a Hot Work Permit situation, possible examples of sources of ignition are:
    1.welding2.burning3.cutting4.grinding5.drilling6.internal combustion engines
  328. . Lock Out is a system of locks, which secures devices that control hazardous energy from release. Control devices, which are secured by locks include
    1.main disconnect switches2.circuit breakers3.valves4.clutches
  329. Lockout is required when machinery or equipment is shut down for maintenance; no work may be done until the following conditions have been met:
    The energy isolating devices have been locked out.a.All parts and attachments have been secured against inadvertent movement.c.Where the work will expose workers to energy sources, the hazard has been effectively controlled.
  330. Combination locks __________ be used for lockout.
    must not
  331. . Before commencing work, a ________ must verify that all energy sources have been effectively locked out.
    worker
  332. Each worker who works on machinery or equipment requiring lockout is responsible for:
    a.Locking out the energy isolating devices before starting work, except as provided in Group Lockout Procedures b.Removing personal locks on the completion of his or her work c.Maintaining immediate control of the key(s) to personal locks throughout the duration of the work
  333. . Confined Space means an area, other than an underground working, that:
    a.Is enclosed or partially enclosed b.Is not designed or intended for continuous human occupancy c.Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit that may complicate the provision of first aid, evacuation, rescue or other emergency response serviced.Is large enough and so configured that a worker could enter to perform assigned work
  334. A confined space-testing program must consider
    a.Qualifications of testing personnel b.Test equipment which must be accurate and reliable
  335. .   Cleaning procedures include:
    a.steam b.water cleaning c.neutralization d.descaling e.special solvent application
  336. An __________ is any cut, cavity, trench or depression in the earth's surface where rock or soils are removed.
    excavation
  337. . A __________ is an excavation less than 3.7 m wide at the bottom, over 1.2 m deep, and of any length.
    trench
  338. The two most common types of trenching used are ________ cut with shoring and __________ cut with proper slopes on the side to protect the workers in the trench.
    straight, open
  339. .   Where the open cut method is used, walls shall be a minimum of ___ degrees in hard or compact soil and ____ degrees in loose or spoiled material
    b.30, 45
  340. .   The key elements of a successful emergency response plan are:
    a.Identification of the most probable emergencies b.Notification process (who and when)c.Determining the immediate personnel actions to be taken d.Minimization of adverse effects on personnel, property, and environment
  341. .   Identification of potential emergencies involves a ___________ exercise using a comprehensive understanding of facility processes
    Risk assessment
  342. What is the role of the on site commander (OSC)?
    b.This is an individual who is normally on site and familiar with the operations at the facility. It might be the shop supervisor or operations foreman.
  343. .   What is the role of Communications officer?
    a.is responsible for activating all communication systems and maintaining a communications log. It could be a senior secretary or administrative assistant.
  344. What is the role of the response operation supervisor?
    c.is responsible for carrying out the response actions at the emergency, under the direction of the OSC.
  345. . What is the role of the security officer?
    d.is responsible for ensuring security of the site and safety of personnel.
  346. .   WHMIS is a system of information delivery with three key elements:
    a.Labels on hazardous materials and their containersb.Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) - Technical bulletins that provide detailed hazard and precautionary information on the productc.Worker Education programs which provide instruction on hazards and training in the workplace
  347. .   A WHMIS label on a controlled product is designed to _____ employers and workers to the hazards of the product and the precautions to be taken with it.
    alert
  348. . You must use a workplace label when:
    a.If you decant (pour) a controlled product from its original container into another container for use in the workplaceb.If you transfer a controlled product, that is stored in bulk into another container for use in the workplacec.If the supplier label is illegible, damaged or lost, it must be replaced with a workplace label or a supplier label
  349. .   Workplace labels must contain the following information
    a.Product Identifierb.Information for Safe Handlingc.This section may contain hazard symbols, first aid measures, safe handling and storage procedures, personal protective equipment, and so ond.Reference to the MSDS
  350. .   A MSDS is a technical document, which provides detailed and comprehensive information on a controlled product related to
    a.Health effects of overexposure to the productb.Hazard evaluation related to the product's handling, storage and usec.Measures to protect workers at risk of overexposured.Emergency procedures
  351. Incidents can be divided into two categories: _____________ and ___________.
    near miss event, accidents
  352. . Hazardsare identified and indirect causes of the incident are examined. Some of the unsafe conditions that have the potential to cause an injury are: Name four
    1.Inadequate guards or barriers2.Inadequate or improper protective equipment3.Defective tools, equipement,or materials 7.Poor housekeeping and a disorderly workplace
  353. Unsafe acts are the actions taken by the worker at the time of the incident, name five:
    1.Operating equipment without authority 3.Failure to secure equipment4.Failing to use personal protective equipment5.Using improper procedures for loading, placement, or lifting 7.Engaging in horseplay, or working under the influence of alcohol and/or drugs
  354. .  An accident is defined as a/an:
    Unexpected occurrence
  355. Which of the following is a Class C fire? A fire in
    Generator coils
  356. . Which of the following is a Class B fire? A fire in:
    Paint storage
  357. Which of the following is a Class A fire? A fire in:
    c.Coal storage
  358. .    Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used to combat a Class "C" fire?
    1.             Carbon dioxide   3.   Dry chemical
  359. Which of the following is a Class D fire?
    c.magnesium
  360. . Dry chemical fire extinguishing agents:
    b.stop the chemical chain reaction sequence associated with fire
  361. . Formulations based upon potassium bicarbonate (Purple K) are found to be about _______ as effective as those based on sodium bicarbonate.
    Twice
  362. . Referred to as __________ dry chemical, it is based upon mixtures of ammonium phosphates or ammonium phosphates and sulphates
    mulit-purpose
  363. . Aqueous Film Forming Foam (_____) was developed at the U.S. Naval Research Laboratory primarily to provide very rapid fire extinguishment, or knockdown capabilities.
    c.AFFF
  364. _______ is often the first indicator of fire, so a system of automatic detectors should be used.
    b.Smoke
  365. Heat detectors are generally located on or near:
    c.the ceiling
  366. As it is heated, a _______ _____ deforms in the direction of the contact point.
    bimetal strip
  367. The width of the gap between the contacts of a bimetal strip determines the operating temperature; the wider the gap the ______ the operating point
    higher
  368. . A smoke detector will detect most fires much more ______ than a heat detector.
    rapidly
  369. Standpipe systems are used in buildings over ________ in height, since that is the practical limit for firefighters to couple hose together from the pumper truck at street level up the stairways to the fire floor.
    3 stories (14 metres)
  370. Why are the connections on the floor below the fire used most frequently?
    a.This allows the use of the connections on the fire floor as wellb.The fire is approached from below rather than above. c.If the fire were approached from above with the stair doors open and the heat of the fire rising, it would be similar to approaching the fire through a chimney.
  371. .   List applications of wetpipe systems:
    a.office buildingsb.storesc.manufacturing facilitiesd.hotelse.health care facilities
  372. .   Dry Pipe Systems are found in environments where the temperature is maintained below?
    4 0 C
  373. .   Preaction systems applications are typically:
    a.computer equipmentb.communication equipmentc.museums
  374. Deluge systems are intended to deliver _____ quantities of water over a ______ area in a relatively short period of time
    b.large, large
  375. .   Two general ways in which a sprinkler system may be pressurized is by:
    1. Air4.     Water
  376. .    Sprinkler systems consist of a pressure or gravity tank to maintain the correct water pressure, control valves for each section, and lengths of piping fitted with _________ _________(two words).
    sprinkler heads
  377. List the main elements of a fire protection system for an industrial site.
    a.fire pumpb.main water piping loopsc.sectional control valvesd.hydrants
  378. For average conditions, hydrants normally are placed about ______ from buildings
    12.2 m
  379. A safe rule to follow is to bury the top of the pipe not less than _____ below the lowest frost line for the locality
    0.3 m
  380. There are two types of fire hydrants in general use today
    dry barrel, wet barrel
  381. .   Ways to detect freezing in a hydrant include
    b.Lowering a weight on a stout string into the hydrant. It may strike ice or come up wet, showing water in the barrel.
  382. The most satisfactory method of thawing a hydrant is by means of a __________.
    Steam hose
  383. .   Fixed ______ sprays are designed specifically to provide optimum control, extinguishment, or exposure protection for special fire protection problems
    water
  384. .   The piping system is connected to a water supply through a ________ valve that can be actuated both automatically and manually to initiate the flow of water.
    deluge
  385. .   Automatic system actuation valves for spray systems can be actuated electrically by the operation of automatic detection equipment, such as:
    a.heat detectorsb.relay circuitsc.gas detectorsd.mechanically
  386. .   Foam systems are used where flammable liquid fire protection is required for permanently installed hazards, such as fuel storage tanks or dip tanks containing flammable or combustible liquids, ___________ and distributing devices are installed internally in the tank.
    air-foam-generating
  387. Fire protection of large outdoor fuel tanks requires that several foam chambers with foam-makers be installed at equally spaced positions slightly below the _______ of the tanks.
    top rim
  388. Central Foam Distributing Systems consist of an enclosure housing a foam concentrate supply tank and a ____________ device
    proportioning
  389. There is always a risk of an emergency, no matter how complete the
    safety program
  390. In large industrial settings, workers on shift will be trained in specific __________ to follow in the event of an emergency, including fire.
    assignments
  391. Emergency response procedures are developed to instruct first responders in the event of a fire. A typical procedure would consist of the following:
    a.Sound the fire alarmb.Complete a risk assessment of the situationc.Attempt to extinguish, or control the fire. If the fire escalates, back away. Never turn your back on a fire.
  392. As soon as you notice a fire, your first reaction should be to
    Sound an alarm
  393. .  In case of a fire the third step in the proper procedure for fighting the fire is to:
    Fight the fire
  394. Gantt charts used in planning techniques are used for showing
    • 1.total time scheduled for a job
    • 2.work done compared with work scheduled
    • 3.work completed
    • 4.start of work
  395. The generator is generally of an open type construction so that it
    has easy access for observation and cleaning
  396. In a growler test a ______emf is supplied to the growler coil
    alternation current
  397. shorted or open circuits coils usually require the armature to be
    rewounded
  398. The main sources of loss in DC machines are losses due to:
    • 1. heating of the armature and field conductors
    • 2.Hysteresis and eddy current losses
    • 3.losses due to friction at bearings and brushes
    • 4.windage and friction losses
  399. With reference to an electrical machine, neutral axis has the meaning of:
    A position where the brushes cause minimum sparking
  400. In the over compounded generator:
    Full-load voltage is higher than no-load voltage
  401. In DC machines, constant losses are independent of _________ and consist          of excitation copper losses, iron losses, and windage and friction losses.
    load
  402. Two tests often used to detect problems in the armature winding are the:
    • Bar to bar test
    • Grower test
  403. There are two main types of armature winding; the _______ winding and the _______winding.
    lap, wave
  404. Magnetomotive force (M.M.F.) is the product of flux and:
    Reluctance
  405. Most faults that occur in DC machines tend to be associated with the:
    d.  Armature winding
  406. The manner in which the terminal voltage varies with a varying load current is called the:
    b.  External characteristic
  407. In a shunt motor torque is proportional to:
    Armature current
  408. In DC machines the total losses are the sum of the          ________________________ and           _________________________ losses.
    constant and variable
  409. The unit of magnetic flux is the:
    Weber
  410. In a magnetic circuit, the magnetic flux is the equivalent of          electric _____________ in an electric circuit.
    c.  Current
  411. The spring compression, for carbon brushes in industrial electrical machines should be:
    15.0 kpa
  412. The operating principle of the galvanometer depends upon
    The interaction of the magnetic field
  413. Current flowing through the coil of a galvanometer will:
    d.  Cause movement of the pointer
  414. Ohmmeters can be calibrated before measuring unknown resistance by:
    Holding the leads together and adjusting the meter              to zero
  415. Ohmmeters:
    Require their own power supply
  416. The magnetic vane attraction meter:
    b.  Has a soft iron vane or plunger that projects partially into a stationary field coil
  417. Multimeters use a movement often called:
    D'arsonval movement
  418. The photocell when used in flame failure detection:
    b.  The cell resistance will decrease when the boiler flame is detected
  419. Electrical relays are:
    Switching devices
  420. Rotating equipment should be:
    Adequately covered by guards
  421. When removing fuses from live circuits:
    Break contact with the line first
  422. Electrical measuring instruments are required for
    .  Testing electrical devices and performing electrical maintenance
  423. Most high-grade panel and portable meters have a built in magnetic shield because:
    Meters must be adequately shielded from outside magnetic fields
  424. Multimeters are sometimes protected by:
    Circuit overload protection
  425. The magnetic vane attraction meter:
    Has a soft iron vane or plunger that projects partially into a stationary field coil
  426. Manufacturers furnish diagrams of electrical systems:
    .  So the circuits and electrical equipment can be properly assembled and maintained
  427. Photoconductivity devices usually:
    Vary the resistance in the circuit when the cell is illuminated
  428. Standard electrical symbols are used to:
    Standardize electrical diagrams and blueprints
  429. Most modern potentiometer circuits use an electronic type of power supply called:
    A zener diode
  430. Electrical installations for motors and generators
    Should be installed in such a way that no live parts are exposed
  431. When a light circuit containing several lights in parallel fails consistently, the fault might be:
    The circuit is overloaded
  432. . If the base of a container is one square metre and it is filled with          water to a height of 3 metres what pressure is exerted on the base?
    29.430 kPa
  433. . Optical pyrometers:
    Are used to measure temperature
  434. . Pressure is equal to:
    b.  Force divided by area
  435. Standard atmosphere is equal to _____ mm hg.
    760
  436. . Barometers are provided with a fixed scale divided into
    mm of mercury
  437. . Float cage units are used:
    To locate float in a more practical location
  438. Glass thermometers with a mercury fill are sometimes pressurized with nitrogen so it:
    Increases the temperature range
  439. Float type manometers:
    May be used for level and flow measurement
  440. . Limp diaphragms are sometimes made of:
    Leather
  441. Gas filled electronic tubes pass current by a movement of:
    .  Ions
  442. The force of attraction between positive charge and negative          charge of the electron opposes the escape of the electron from the:
    Cathode
  443. When using field emission electron tubes the anode charge is:
    Positive
  444. The function of a sweep generator is:
    .  Coarse and fine frequency control
  445. Transistor circuits are constructed of what material?
    Silicon
  446. Flow of current in any electrical circuit is a movement of:
    Electrons
  447. An electric conductor has:
    Free electrons
  448. A diode electron tube consists of a cathode and a plate. The cathode is often referred to as the:
    Filament
  449. Arsenic and antimony provide ________________ in semi-conductors.
    Free electrons
  450. Total currents away from a point equal:
    Sum of currents to the point
  451. Sixty hertz means
    c.  60 sine waves per second
  452. Some examples of electric load are:
    motor, solenoid
  453. In reference to electrical pressure the term used is:
    Potential difference               2.  Voltage 3.EMF
  454. We obtain greater range of current measurement with an ammeter by
    c.  Changing shunt resistance
  455. Electric current flow depends on the number of charges
    .  In motion
  456. When doing series/parallel calculations we should:
    • Reduce parallel runs to equivalent resistance
    • 4.  Reduce the series strings to their equivalent resistance
  457. Some advantages of AC over DC systems are:
    1.Voltage valves are more easily changed if AC 2.AC motors are more simple
  458. The Wheatstone bridge accurately measures:
    Resistances
  459. The power source must maintain a potential difference:
    Between two points
  460. A photoelectric cell can produce
    a.  An electromotive force
  461. Total currents away from a point equal
    Sum of currents to the point
  462. Inductive reactance opposes
    .  Capacitance
  463. In a purely capacitive AC circuit the current:
    Leads the voltage by 90 degrees
  464. . Impedance is
    .  The combined effect of reactance and resistance
  465. . Foundation bolts installed through a pipe:
    Prevent breakage of the bolts due to vibration
  466. A centrifugal switch used with an AC motor:
    changes from starting conditions to running conditions
  467. Magnetic fields do not interact with:
    stationary electric charges
  468. . Ohmmeters are for:
    A. continuity measurements C. direct resistance measurement
  469. The photocell, when used in flame failure detection:
    will decrease cell resistance when the boiler flame is detected
  470. . A example of an image tube whose function is the generation and display of a light image from an electrical input signal is:
    1. cathode ray oscilloscope 2. picture tube
  471. In Alberta, good housekeeping in a power plant is the responbility of the Chief Engineer as implied by the:
    2. Safety Codes Act 3. Workers Compensation Act
  472. The devices which are used to change pneumatic signals to computer signals are known as:
    analog to digital converters
  473. The rotameter is capable of measuring flow using a constant pressure differential and a variable:
    B. area
  474. Power for operating mechanical cleaning tools used in removing scale or slag from firetube boilers shall be generated:
    outside of the boiler being cleaned
  475. The factors that determine the severity of electrical shock are:
    1. time of current flow through the body 2. the path taken 4. the quantity of the current
  476. The purpose of the recovery of the L.P.G. and gasoline process, used in a natural gas treatment plant is to:
    1. remove gasoline constituents 3. remove liquefiable hydrocarbons
  477. A surge tower used in hydro electric generation stations is for
    stability of operation
  478. Natural gas treatment plants remove which of the following from the gas?
    1. hydrocarbon condensate 2. sulfurous compounds 3. non-combustible gases 4. water vapour
Author
kstobbe
ID
321658
Card Set
3A2 exam
Description
3A2 Exam
Updated

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