ServSafe

  1. What is a foodborne illness?
    Disease transmitted to people by food
  2. When is a foodborne illness considered an outbreak?
    • When two or more people have the same symptoms after eating the same food
    • An investigation is conducted by the state and local regulatory authorities
    • The outbreak is confirmed by a laboratory analysis
  3. What are the three categories of contaminants?
    • Biological
    • Chemical
    • Physical
  4. What is the greatest threat to food safety? What does it include
    Pathogens include viruses, parasites, fungi, and bacteria
  5. What are chemical contaminants?
    They can include cleaners, sanitizers, and polishes
  6. What are the five most common food handling mistakes?
    • Purchasing food from unsafe sources
    • Failing to cook food correctly
    • Holding food at incorrect temperatures
    • Using contaminated equipment
    • Practicing poor personal hygiene
  7. What are the four main factors related to the five most common food handling mistakes?
    • Time-temperature abuse
    • Cross-contamination
    • Poor Personal hygiene
    • Poor cleaning and sanitizing
  8. What is the food most likely to become unsafe?
    TCS foods
  9. What are the three populations at high risk for foodborne illness?
    • Elderly people
    • Preschool-age children
    • People with compromised immune systems
  10. Who inspects all food except meat, poultry, and eggs?
    FDA
  11. Who issues the food code?
    FDA
  12. Who inspects and regulates meat,  poultry, and eggs?
    USDA
  13. Which two agencies conduct research into the causes of foodborne illness outbreaks and assists in investigating outbreaks?
    • CDC
    • PHS public health service
  14. What does TCS stand for?
    Temperature Control for Safety
  15. What is the name for harmful microorganisms?
    Pathogens
  16. What are the big six bacteria, viruses, parasites and molds that cause severe illness?
    • Shigella
    • Salmonela typhi
    • Nontyphoidal salmonela
    • E. Coli
    • Hep A
    • Norovirus
  17. What are the 6 most common symptoms of foodborne illness?
    • Diarrhea
    • Vomiting
    • Fever
    • Nausea
    • Abdominal Cramps
    • Jaundice
  18. What is the range of onset time for foodboorne illness?
    30 minutes to 6 weeks
  19. What is Fat Tom(six conditions bacteria need to grow)?
    • Food
    • Acidity
    • Temperature
    • Time
    • Oxygen
    • Moisture
  20. What type of food best supports growth of bacteria?
    TCS
  21. What is the range of acidity?
    0-14
  22. What is the best acidity range for bacteria to grow?
    4-7(mildly acidic to neutral)
  23. What is the best temperature for rapid bacteria growth?
    41-135
  24. What is the temperature danger zone?
    70-125
  25. What are the four most contagious bacteria that can cause the most severe illness?
    • Salmonella Typhi
    • Nontyphoidal Salmonella
    • Shigella
    • E. Coli
  26. Who caries Salmonella Typhi?
    Humans
  27. Who caries nontyphoidal salmonella?
    Farm animals
  28. What bacteria is found only in human feces of humans with the illness and can be transferred by flies?
    Shigella
  29. What bacteria is found in the intestines of cattle?
    E. Coli
  30. What food is linked with E. Coli?
    • Ground beef
    • Contaminated produce
  31. What food is linked with salmonella typhi?
    • Ready to eat food
    • Beverages
  32. What food is related with nontyphoidal salmonella?
    • Poultry and eggs
    • Meat
    • Milk and dairy
    • Produce
  33. What are the two main sources of Hep A?
    • Feces of people infected
    • Shellfish from contaminated water
  34. Where can norovirus be found?
    • Feces of those infected
    • Contaminated water
  35. What two foods are linked with the two main viruses(Hep A, Norovirus)?
    • Ready-to-eat food
    • Shellfish from contaminated water
  36. What are the sources for parasites?
    • seafood
    • wild game
    • food processed with contaminated water, like produce
  37. What is the most important way to prevent foodborne illness from parasites?
    Purchase food from approved, reputable buyers
  38. What is included with fungi?
    • yeasts
    • molds
    • mushrooms
  39. Where can the ciguatera toxin be found?
    • barracuda
    • snapper
    • grouper
    • amberjack
    • shellfish
  40. What is the food defense program created by the FDA?
    A.L.E.R.T.
  41. What does ALERT stand for?
    • Assure
    • Look
    • Employees
    • Reports
    • Threat
  42. What is the name for a protein in a food or ingredient that some people are sensitive to?
    Allergen
  43. What are symptoms of an allergic reaction?
    • Nausea
    • Wheezing or shortness of breath
    • Hives/itchy rashes
    • Swelling of various body parts including face, eyes, hands, or feet
    • Vomiting/diarrhea
    • Abdominal pain
  44. What are the big eight food allergies?
    • Milk
    • Eggs
    • Fish(bass, flounder, cod)
    • Wheat
    • Soy
    • Peanuts
    • Crustacean shellfish(crab, lobster, shrimp)
    • Tree nuts(walnuts, pecans)
  45. ____ Americans have a food allergy, resulting in ____ emergency room visits per year.
    • 15 million
    • 200,000
  46. What is the most important way to prevent a foodborne illness from viruses?
    Practice good personal hygeine
  47. A guest complaining about a reversal of hot and cold sensations would most likely be what?
    Toxin
  48. What is carried by 30-50% of people in their nose and 20-35% on their skin?
    Staph
  49. What is the hand washing process?
    • Wet hands and arms
    • Apply soap
    • Scrub hands and arms vigorously(10-15 seconds)
    • Rinse hands and arms thoroughly
    • Dry hands and arms
  50. How long should the hand washing process take?
    20 seconds
  51. Where can you wash your hands?
    In a sink designated for hand washing
  52. When do you use hand antiseptics?
    After washing, never in the place of
  53. When should you never handle ready to eat foods with bare hands?
    When you primarily serve high-risk population
  54. When can you handle ready to eat foods with bare hands?
    • Food will be added as an ingredient to a dish that does not contain raw meat, seafood, or poultry, but will be cooked at at least 145
    • When food will be added as ingredient to a dish containing raw foods, but food will be cooked to required minimum temperature of raw items
  55. What is the only jewelry a food handler can wear on their hands/arms?
    plain band ring
  56. When can you not eat, drink, smoke, or chew gum/tobacco?
    • When prepping or serving food
    • When working in prep areas
    • When working in areas used to clean utensils and equipment
  57. If a food handler has been vomiting and diarrhea, how long must they be symptom free before returning to work?
    24 hours
  58. When must food handlers have a written release from a medical provider?
    • Vomiting and diarrhea
    • Jaundice
  59. What thermometer would you use during the flow of food?
    Bimetallic Stemmed thermometer
  60. What range is a bimetallic stemmed thermometer good for?
    0-220
  61. What thermometer would you use for thick foods and why?
    bimetallic stemmed thermometer because it must be inserted up to the dimple
  62. What would you use to check the temperature of thin foods and why?
    Thermocouples and thermistors, the sensor is on the tip
  63. What would you use to check the temperature of liquids?(soups, sauces, and frying oils)
    Immersion probes
  64. What would you use to check the temperature of flat cooking equipment(by touching it)?
    Surface probes
  65. What would you use to check the internal temperature of food?
    Penetration probes
  66. What would you use to check the temperature of coolers and ovens?
    Air probes
  67. What would you use to check the temperature of a surface without touching it?
    IR Thermometer
  68. When must you re calibrate your thermometer?
    When it has been bumped, dropped, or extreme temperature changes
  69. A food thermometer must be accurate to within ____ degrees
    +/-2
  70. An air temp thermometer must be accurate to within ____ degrees
    +/- 3
  71. How long must must the stem of a bimettallic stemmed thermometer be inserted into the food?
    15 seconds
  72. Receiving food after hours is known as _____
    key drop delivery
  73. What is ROP food?
    • Reduced Oxygen Packaging
    • Vacuum-packed food
  74. Cold food should be received at temperatures of ___ or lower
    41
  75. Live shellfish should be received at an air temp of ___ and internal temp no greater than ___.
    • 45
    • 50
  76. Once received shellfish must be cooled to ___ within ___ hours.
    • 41
    • 4
  77. Shucked shellfish must be received below ___ and cooled to _____ within __ hours.
    • 45
    • 41
    • 5
  78. Milk should be received at ____ and cooled to ___ in ___ hours.
    • 45
    • 41
    • 4
  79. Shell eggs should be received at ___ or lower.
    45
  80. Hot food (TCS) should be received at ____ or higher.
    135
  81. What are two reasons to reject frozen food?
    • Fluids or water stains in case bottom or on packaging
    • Ice crystals or frozen liquids on the food or packaging
  82. How long can Ready to Eat TCS foods be stored if it is held at 41 degrees or lower?
    Seven days, day one being the day it was made
  83. Storage units must have at least __ air temp measuring device/s.
    1
  84. If other foods must be stored with Ready to Eat foods, how would you do so properly?
    Store the ready to eat foods on top
  85. In a mixed cooler, what order would you store the following?
    Whole cuts of beef or pork
    Ready to eat food
    ground meat/fish
    Whole and ground poultry
    Seafood
    • RTE
    • Seafood
    • Whole cuts
    • Ground
    • Poultry
  86. You should never use ______ in produce that will be eaten raw, or sell produce that was treated with ____.
    • Sulfates
    • sulfates
  87. What are the four ways to thaw TCS Food?
    • Refrigeration at 41 or lower
    • Running water 70 or lower
    • Microwave
    • Cooking
  88. When thawing, never let the temperature of the food go above 41 degrees for more than ___ hours.
    4
  89. Raw seed sprouts should not be served if you primarily serve ______.
    High-risk populations
  90. What type of eggs should you use when prepping egg dishes that need little or no cooking?
    Pasteurized shell eggs
  91. What is the minimum internal temp/time for Poultry
    Stuffing
    Stuffed meat
    Dishes including previously cooked TCS ingredients
    • 165
    • 15 seconds
  92. What is the min time/temp for:
    Ground meat
    Injected meat
    Mechanically tenderized meat
    Ratites(ostrich/emu)
    Ground seafood
    Shell Eggs
    • 155
    • 15 seconds
  93. What is the min time/temp for:
    Seafood
    Steaks
    Commercially raised game
    Shell eggs served immediately
    • 145
    • 15 seconds
  94. What is the minimum time/temp for Roasts?
    • 145
    • 4 minutes
  95. What is the min temp for:
    Fruits
    Vegetables
    Grains
    Legumes
    hot-held for service
    135
  96. When cooking meat, seafood, poultry, and eggs in a microwave, the temp must be ____, and checked in ___ places to make sure it was cooked evenly.
    • 165
    • 2
  97. What are the first two steps for partial cooking food during prep?
    • Do not cook longer than 60 minutes
    • Cool immediatley
  98. What are the requirements for cooling food?
    • 1st cool from 135 to 70 within two hours
    • 2nd cool from 70 to 41 in the next 4 hours
  99. If you're cooling food and it has not reached 70 degrees in two hours, what must you do?
    Reheat, then cool again
  100. How often should you check temps when holding food?
    Every two hours
  101. What must you do to hold cold food without temp control for up to six hours?
    • Must be at or below 41 for 6+ hours
    • Must be labeled
    • Must not exceed 70 degrees
  102. You can hold hot food for up to four hours if:
    • Held at 135 or higher prior to removing from temp control
    • Labeled for four hours
  103. Sneeze guards should go __ inches about the counter and extend __ inches beyond the food.
    • 14
    • 7
  104. What would you use to identify significant biological, chemical, or physical hazards at specific points within a product's flow?
    Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point HACCP
  105. What are the seven steps to HACCP?
    • Conduct a hazard analysis
    • Determine Critical Control Points
    • Establish Critical Limits
    • Establish monitoring procedures
    • Identify corrective actions
    • Verify the the system works
    • Establish procedures for record keeping and documentation
  106. Floor mounted equipment must be __ inches off the floor.
    6
  107. Table top equipment must be __ inches off the table top or _____.
    • 4
    • sealed to the countertop
  108. What five things must be at a hand washing station?
    • Hot and Cold running water
    • Soap
    • A way to dry hands
    • Garbage container
    • Signage
  109. What are the time/temp requirements for sanitizing in hot water?
    • 171 degrees
    • 30 seconds
  110. What are the three types of chemical sanitizers?
    • Chlorine
    • Iodine
    • Quaternary ammonium compounds (quats)
  111. What is the sanitizer contact time for chlorine?
    7 seconds
  112. What is the sanitizer contact time for iodine and quats?
    30 seconds
  113. What are the steps to clean and sanitize?
    • Scrape or remove food bits from surface
    • Wash surface
    • Rinse surface
    • Sanitize surface
    • Allow surface to air-dry
  114. If in constant use, how often should a food contact surface be cleaned and sanitized?
    4 hours
  115. What temp do you need for the final sanitizing rinse in a high-temp machine?
    180
  116. What temp do you need for a stationary rack, single temp machine?
    165
  117. In a three compartment sink, the first sink, full of detergent and water, must be at least ___ degrees
    110
Author
Ryat8801
ID
321495
Card Set
ServSafe
Description
servsafe manager
Updated