IFS Stage 2 Exam!

The elevation at Denver (KDEN) is 5,400 feet. According to the accompanying aviation routine weather report (METAR), how far below the ceiling will you be if you are flying at 7,500 feet MSL over Denver?
A) 8,400 feet
B) 2,100 feet
C) 900 feet

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
A) Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
B) Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
C) Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

While heading north, you find that you are on a converging course with another airplane headed west at the same altitude. What action should you take?
A) Remain on course, since you have the right-ofway.
B) Alter course to the left, to pass behind the other airplane.
C) Alter course to the right, to pass behind the other airplane.

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
A) heat exchange.
B) pressure differential.
C) movement of air.

An example of a category classification with respect to pilot certification is
A) normal
B) airplane
C) single-engine land

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
A) Maximum growth rate of the clouds.
B) Precipitation beginning to fall.
C) The appearance of an anvil top.

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
A) Yes, ADs are only voluntary.
B) Yes, under VFR conditions only.
C) Yes, if allowed by the AD.

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A) 8 hours.
B) 12 hours.
C) 24 hours.

What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
A) 230° magnetic at 25 knots.
B) 230° true at 32 knots.
C) 230° true at 25 knots

What type of information/service is provided by EFAS?
A) Standard weather briefings
B) In-flight weather briefings and flight plan filing
C) Pertinent enroute weather briefings and distribution of PIREPs

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
A) type of precipitation.
B) stability of the air mass.
C) wind direction.

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A) 1829
B) 1929
C) 1859

A private pilot had a flight review on September 2 of last year. When is the next flight review required?
A) September 2, next year
B) September 2, this year
C) September 30, next year

At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
A) 12,000 feet.
B) 8,000 feet.
C) 4,000 feet.

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on
A) July 15, 2 years later.
B) July 31, 2 years later.
C) July 31, 1 year later.

According to NTSB Part 830, when is the operator of an aircraft required to notify the NTSB?
A) When an aircraft is involved in any incident, regardless of the damage received
B) If an aircraft experiences a flight control system malfunction or failure
C) When the damage to an airplane exceeds $300

With regard to safety belts, the pilot of a small airplane must ensure that all passengers
A) under the age of two are secured in FAAapproved child safety seats during the flight.
B) wear safety belts at all times, from the time the airplane first moves for the purpose of flight until it stops.
C) are briefed on how to fasten and unfasten their safety belts and shoulder harnesses.

What is the major motivating force behind atmospheric circulation?
A) Rotation of the earth
B) High and low pressure belts
C) Uneven heating of the earth's surface

Who has the final responsibility for the safe operation of an aircraft?
A) Person who occupies the left seat
B) Pilot with the highest rating
C) Pilot in command

Preflight activities for a cross-country flight should include a careful study of weather reports and forecasts, fuel and runway requirements, and an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned. Such preflight action is
A) not required by regulation, but is a good operating practice.
B) required by regulation and is a good operating practice.
C) required by regulation only if passengers are carried for hire.

Under what circumstances is a private pilot permitted to carry a passenger who is clearly under the influence of drugs?
A) A passenger under the influence of drugs may be carried in an emergency.
B) When the passenger is a medical patient under proper care, and the pilot carries a logbook endorsement for the transportation of medical patients.
C) Carrying any passenger who is intoxicated or under the influence of drugs is prohibited.

Use the accompanying winds and temperatures aloft forecasts to determine the wind direction, velocity and air temperature expected at 11,000 feet MSL over Glasgow (GGW).
A) 297° true at 19 knots, -11°C
B) 300° true at 17 m.p.h., -10°F
C) 305° magnetic at 14 m.p.h., -11°C

What action should you take if you receive a clearance that will cause you to deviate from an FAR?
A) Refuse the clearance, and request an amended clearance.
B) Accept the clearance, but do not comply with that portion of the clearance that would cause you to violate a regulation.
C) Accept the clearance, because ATC has assumed responsibility for the deviation.

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
A) High wind velocities aloft and a small temperature/ dewpoint spread
B) Unstable air, a lifting force, and high moisture content
C) The close proximity of a high pressure system to a steep pressure gradient

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
A) when requested.
B) within 10 days.
C) within 7 days.

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
A) Supersaturation and evaporation.
B) Evaporation and sublimation.
C) Heating and condensation.

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
A) A supplemental briefing.
B) An outlook briefing.
C) An abbreviated briefing.

To carry passengers on a pleasure trip in an airplane with a tricycle landing gear, what recent experience requirements must you meet before departure?
A) Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop in an aircraft of the same category and class within the preceding 90 days
B) A flight review within the preceding 24 months and three takeoffs and landings in an aircraft of the same category and class within the preceding 90 days
C) Five takeoffs and landings to a full stop in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type within the preceding 90 days

With the approach and passage of a frontal system in the United States, what pressure and wind direction changes take place?
A) The pressure falls as the front approaches and rises after its passage, while the wind direction shifts to the left after frontal passage.
B) The pressure rises as the front approaches and falls after its passage, while the wind direction shifts to the left after frontal passage.
C) The pressure falls as the front approaches and rises after its passage, while the wind direction shifts to the right after frontal passage.

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
A) not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.
B) not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
C) be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.

According to the accompanying terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF), by 0500Z the visibility and ceiling at Philadelphia (KPHL) are expected to be
A) greater than six miles and a few clouds at 2,000 feet.
B) four miles and 4,000 overcast.
C) six miles and 2,000 broken.

During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
A) Greater than 6 statute miles.
B) Not forecasted.
C) Possibly 6 statute miles.

According to NTSB Part 830, which of the following occurrences would require immediate notification of the NTSB?
A) Injury to any person or property, regardless of the extent involved
B) A near miss
C) Damage in excess of $25,000 to property other than the aircraft

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
A) Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
B) No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
C) Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

The aircraft papers required by the FAA to be carried aboard an airplane include the
A) airworthiness certificate, certificate of registration, and weight and balance data.
B) airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, and title of ownership.
C) airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, and aircraft and engine logbooks.

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
A) cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
B) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
C) stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.

What is meant by the term "dewpoint"?
A) The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
B) The temperature at which dew will always form.
C) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

A small or converging temperature/dewpoint spread usually results in
A) fog and low clouds.
B) low visibility and gusty winds.
C) strong surface winds.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A) Gyroplane.
B) Airship.
C) Aircraft towing other aircraft.

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
A) The owner or operator.
B) The pilot in command.
C) A certificated aircraft mechanic.

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have
A) passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
B) received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
C) an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.

If a third class medical certificate was issued to a 35-year-old pilot on March 26 of this year, when will it expire?
A) March 26, 3 years later
B) March 31, 2 years later
C) March 31, 5 years later

What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?
A) 111° at 2 knots, peak gusts 18 knots.
B) Calm.
C) 110° at 12 knots, peak gusts 18 knots.

Thunderstorms and squall lines are generally associated with what type of front?
A) Stationary
B) Fast-moving cold
C) Slow-moving cold

How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected?
A) Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.
B) Call EFAS on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings.
C) Call flight assistance on 122.5 for advisory service pertaining to severe weather.

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
A) Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
B) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
C) Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

If the departure time for your flight is six or more hours away, what type of weather briefing is appropriate?
A) Outlook briefing
B) Standard briefing
C) Abbreviated briefing

The scalloped lines on the low-level prognostic chart enclose areas
A) with ceilings below 1,000 feet and/or visibility below three statute miles.
B) where thunderstorms are expected to develop.
C) with ceilings from 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility from three to five statute miles.