IFS Stage 1 Exam!

  1. A controller may issue a safety alert to an aircraft under his control when that aircraft is


    C)
  2. A controller may issue a safety alert to an aircraft under his control when that aircraft is


    A)
  3. A controller may issue a safety alert to an aircraft under his control when that aircraft is


    B)
  4. A turn coordinator provides an indication of the


    A)
  5. What action, if any, is required when you are departing a satellite airport that does not have an operating control tower that is within Class C airspace?


    C)
  6. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with


    A)
  7. What is the primary force that causes an airplane to turn?


    B)
  8. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only


    C)
  9. If the engine magneto switch is turned to the “OFF” position, but the engine continues to run, the probable cause is


    B)
  10. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?


    C)
  11. When in radar contact, who is primarily responsible for VFR aircraft separation?


    A)
  12. At nontower airports without an FSS or UNICOM, the CTAF usually is


    B)
  13. On a sectional chart, what does the notation “NO SVFR” above the airport name indicate?


    A)
  14. Penetration of active warning areas by nonparticipating aircraft should be avoided because of


    A)
  15. What is the minimum ceiling requirement for VFR operations in the airspace represented in C?


    B)
  16. When you use the words “PAN-PAN” in a radio message, it indicates you have


    B)
  17. (Area 3) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?


    B)
  18. What requirements must be met before you enter the airspace represented in D?


    A)
  19. What are the control characteristics of an aircraft with the CG forward of limits?


    B)
  20. The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately


    B)
  21. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on


    B)
  22. A power loss occurs when you apply carburetor heat because


    A)
  23. The VHF emergency frequency monitored by most ground facilities is


    B)
  24. The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that


    C)
  25. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?


    C)
  26. The three pressure instruments connected to the pitot-static system are the


    C)
  27. The attitude indicator reflects the airplane’s movement about the


    A)
  28. What is the primary force that causes an airplane to turn?


    B)
  29. The length of the longest runway at Portland International Airport is


    B)
  30. The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as


    C)
  31. After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?


    C)
  32. The most practical way to compensate for blind spots in aircraft design while climbing or descending is to make


    A)
  33. What are the characteristics of a monocoque airplane structure?


    B)
  34. Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the


    C)
  35. P-factor is one of the forces that causes the airplane to


    B)
  36. (Area 2) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is


    C)
  37. The purpose of a displaced threshold is to


    C)
  38. Image Upload 1
    Refer to the illustration and determine the appropriate landing runway and traffic pattern direction.


    B)
  39. An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would


    C)
  40. An airport beacon with two white flashes and one green flash indicates


    B)
  41. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?


    B)
  42. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?


    B)
  43. The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is


    B)
  44. In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?


    A)
  45. (Area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are


    C)
  46. What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?


    A)
  47. Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?


    B)
  48. The recommended method of scanning for other aircraft during the day is to use


    C)
  49. What causes the separation of air over the wing during a stall?


    B)
  50. Image Upload 2
    If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on


    C)
  51. Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, when you fly over congested areas, you must maintain an altitude of at least 1,000 feet


    B)
  52. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting


    B)
  53. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the


    B)
  54. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the


    B)
  55. Excessively high engine temperatures will


    B)
  56. Penetration of active warning areas by nonparticipating aircraft should be avoided because of


    C)
  57. Image Upload 3
    According to the markings on the accompanying airspeed indicator, what is the maximum speed with flaps fully extended?


    A)
  58. One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for


    A)
  59. Assume that you land at an airport with the altimeter set to 29.92 instead of the current setting of 30.00. What will the altimeter read if the field elevation is 2,000 feet MSL?


    B)
  60. What frequency should you use to announce your position during an approach for a landing at Taos Municipal?


    C)
  61. When departing Portland International Airport to the north, the proper frequency for departure control is


    B)
  62. Image Upload 4
    This symbol is used on sectional charts to represent an airport which has


    A)
  63. When using two-bar VASI lights, what will you see when you are on the proper glide slope?


    C)
  64. Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at


    B)
  65. When approaching an airport with an operating control tower, you must contact the tower before entering the


    A)
  66. During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?


    C)
  67. How are the lift and drag components of the wing affected when you lower the flaps?


    A)
  68. After departing runway 36, you make a left turn to a heading of 180°. If the magnetic compass initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction, you should know that this reaction is


    C)
  69. Image Upload 5
    What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?


    A)
  70. How often should you check the heading indicator and align it with the magnetic compass?


    B)
  71. Image Upload 6
    How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?


    B)
  72. If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?


    C)
  73. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to


    B)
  74. An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates


    B)
  75. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs.


    C)
  76. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the


    A)
  77. Wingtip vortices contribute to the production of


    B)
  78. Image Upload 7
    What information concerning Greater Cincinnati Airport in Covington, Kentucky, is contained in the accompanying NOTAM excerpt?


    C)
  79. What are the special VFR weather minimums for flight within Class D airspace?


    C)
  80. Dihedral is used to stabilize the airplane about the


    C)
  81. FAA Advisory Circulars provide what type of information?


    A)
  82. An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is


    B)
  83. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?


    C)
  84. What are the basic VFR weather minimums, if any, for flight at 6,500 feet MSL in the airspace shown by A?


    B)
  85. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the


    A)
  86. The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area


    C)
  87. What condition must be present for carburetor icing to occur?


    A)
  88. In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate


    C)
  89. Detonation can be described as


    C)
  90. A large letter “X” placed near the runway threshold indicates the


    A)
  91. TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides


    C)
  92. What VFR weather minimums are required to take off from Salina Airport?


    C)
  93. What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?


    B)
  94. Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?


    B)
  95. Which control surfaces are usually located on the empennage?


    A)
  96. When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to


    B)
  97. The turn coordinator provides a direct indication of aircraft


    C)
  98. Excessive cylinder head and engine oil temperatures can be caused by


    C)
  99. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight- and-level flight?


    B)
  100. Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be


    B)
  101. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?


    B)
  102. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is


    C)
Author
dundane
ID
321179
Card Set
IFS Stage 1 Exam!
Description
Stage 1
Updated