2016 CQT Study Guide

  1. What is normal A system pressure?
    3000 psi
  2. What does the Rudder Pressure Reducer do and why?
    • Reduces system A pressure to the rudder PCU above 1000' RA to give the pilot more time to react to large rudder deflections.
    • NOTE: The NG's have a Rudder Pressure Limiter that performs a similar function by reducing both A and B pressure by 25% to limit full rudder authority in flight.
  3. What does the Force Fight Monitor System do?
    Detects opposing pressure between main rudder PCU A and B actuators. If opposing force is detected, the FFM automatically turns on the Standby Hydraulic Pump and powers the standby rudder PCU to provide the pilot with adequate rudder control.
  4. What causes the Standby Hydraulic System to automatically activate?
    • 1. During critical phases of flight (flaps extended, and either in flight, or on the ground with wheel speed greater than 60 KIAS), it will activate if low pressure is detected in hydraulic systems A and/or B. 
    • Note: Auto operation does not deactivate the flight control low pressure light.
    • Note: When airborne and the flaps are up, the standby pump shuts off and the Standby Rudder Shutoff valve closes. (Standby Rudder ON light extinguishes)

    2. Force Fight Monitor is triggered.
  5. What happens when you move the associated Flight Control switch to STBY RUD, as directed by the QRH?
    The associated hydraulic system will no longer power the flight controls. The Standby Rudder pump and PCU will power the rudder.
  6. With a loss of the A hydraulic system, what major aircraft system will be affected, and what additional procedure will you eventually have to accomplish?
    • Landing Gear!
    • Manual Gear extension.
  7. With the loss of System A hydraulics, will the following systems be available on landing? 

    Thrust Reverse
    Nose Wheel Steering
    Ground Spoilers
    Flight Spoilers
    • Braking: Yes, via normal brakes powered by system B.
    • Thrust Reverse: Yes, at a lower rate due to being powered by the Standby system.
    • Nose Wheel Steering: Yes, via alternate steering powered by System B (as equipped)
    • Ground Spoilers: No.
    • Flight Spoilers: Yes, 2 (NG) / 1 (CL) on each wing via System A
  8. What would Hydraulic System A quantity indicate with a leak in the engine driven pump or it's associated lines?
    20% (due to the standpipe)
  9. With a loss of System A, what does the "A - Flight Control LOW PRESSURE" light indicate?
    A - Flight control LOW PRESSURE: Indicates hydraulic pressure to the primary flight controls (Aileron, Elevator, Rudder) is low due to the complete loss of system A fluid.
  10. With a loss of system A, what does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicate?
    There is excessive differential pressure sensed in the elevator feel computer between hydraulic systems A and B.
  11. Is the Alternate Nose Wheel Steering automatic?
    No. (Switch on the captains forward instrument panel)
  12. Is the selection of the Alternate Nose Wheel Steering directed by the QRH?
  13. Where is the Alternate Nose Wheel Steering switch located?
    Captains forward instrument panel.
  14. If the Alternate Nose Wheel Steering switch is set to ALT, can you tow the aircraft?
    No. The switch must be returned to NORM prior to towing the aircraft.
  15. Where can you find the maximum speed for landing gear extension?
    Placard, forward panel, near the gear handle.
  16. What is normal System B pressure?
    3000 psi
  17. With a loss of the B system, what major aircraft system will affected, and what additional procedure will you eventually have to accomplish?
    The trailing edge flaps. They will have to be extended electrically via the Alternate Flap Extension Procedure.
  18. With the loss of system B hydraulics, will the following systems be available upon landing?

    Thrust Reverse
    Nose Wheel Steering
    Ground Spoilers
    Flight Spoilers
    • Braking: Yes, via alternate brakes powered by the A system.
    • Thrust Reverse: Yes, at a slower rate due to being powered the the Standby system.
    • Nose Wheel Steering: Yes, via normal steering powered by System A.
    • Ground Spoilers: Yes, via System A
    • Flight Spoilers: Yes, 2 (NG) / 1 (CL) on each wing via the System A hydraulics.
  19. What would Hydraulic System B quantity indicate with a leak in the engine driven pump or its associated lines?
  20. With a loss of system B, what does the B - flight control LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
    Hydraulic pressure to the primary flight controls (Aileron, Elevator, Rudder) is low due to complete loss System B fluid.
  21. With a loss of system B, what does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicate?
    Indicates excessive differential pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer between hydraulic systems A and B.
  22. With a loss of system B, does the YAW DAMPER light illuminate?
    Even though the yaw damper is inoperative, the YAW DAMPER light will not illuminate until the B FLIGHT CONTROL switch is placed to OFF or STBY RUD.
  23. Why is any residual B fluid retained when the B quantity indicates zero?
    • Due to the standpipe, a small amount of fluid is retained for operation of the Autoslats via the PTU.
    • Note: Hydraulic system A powers a pump that uses B fluid to move the slats to the full extend position if required. (Autoslats)
  24. With a loss of system B in the NG, can the Yaw Damper be cycled OFF then ON to regain the system?
    No. The Standby Yaw Damper can only be engaged if BOTH Flight Control switches are placed to STBY RUDDER and the Yaw Damper switch is then placed back to ON.
  25. What happens when you position the Alternate Flaps Master Switch to ARM?
    • Allows the flaps to be controlled electrically by: 
    • 1. Activates the Standby Hydraulic pump.
    • 2. Closes the Trailing Edge Flap bypass valve.
    • 3. Arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch.
  26. What happens when you move the Alternate Flaps Position Switch to DOWN?
    • 1. The LED's (flaps and slats) are immediately driven to the full extend position via the Standby Hydraulic system.
    • 2. TEF's are electrically extended as long as the switch is held down.
  27. Once extended by the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, can the trailing edge flaps be raised?
    Yes. (electrically)
  28. Is there asymmetry protection while extending/retracting the trailing edge flaps electrically?
  29. Once manually extended, can the leading edge devices be raised?
  30. Is there a limitation regarding electrically moving the trailing edge flaps?
    • Yes!
    • Alternate flap duty cycle in flight is one complete cycle, then 5 minutes off. A complete cycle is movement from 0 to 15 and back to 0.
    • The alternate flap switch must be OFF for 15 seconds before reversing direction.
  31. Are any additional OPC selections required prior to landing?
    • Yes.
    • Loss of System B: FLAPS 15
  32. Where would you find the maximum speed that an Alternate Flap Extension can be initiated?
    • Placard on the forward instrument panel.
    • NG: 230 KIAS
    • CL: 230 KIAS
  33. What conditions must be met for the speed brakes to automatically deploy on landing? 
    • 1. Speed Brake lever in the armed position.
    • 2. Speed Brake Armed light illuminated
    • 3. RA less than 10'.
    • 4. Landing gear strut compression or wheel spin up.
    • 5. Both thrust levers at idle.
  34. What does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicate when airborne with the flaps up?
    A fault occurs in the auto speed brake system or wing load alleviation system (as installed).
  35. Say this occurs during an approach. Are any OPC adjustments required?
    Yes. You must go to the MEL button and select Auto Speed Brakes Inoperative.
  36. How does the SPEED BRAKES EXTENDED light help protect you from landing with the speed brakes extended?
    The light illuminates descending through 800 RA with the flaps beyond 10.
  37. Are there any limitations associated with Speed Brake usage?
    • 1. Do not use below 1000' AGL.
    • 2. In flight, do not use with flaps extended.
    • 3. In flight, do not extend beyond the flight detent.
  38. What is the purpose of the wing load alleviation system?
    • Protects the wing from exceeding design load margins with the flight spoilers deployed under certain high gross weight and airspeed conditions. 
    • If the system is activated, it will automatically move the speed brake handle to the 50% position.
    • Movement past the 50% point is restricted but can be overridden in an emergency.
  39. What types of LED's are installed on the 737 and what are their normal positions?
    • LE Flaps that are either UP or Full Extend.
    • LE Slats that can be UP, Extend, or Full Extend.
  40. When to the LE Slats move to the Full Extend position in the:
    • Flap lever moved beyond:
    • 5  (-300/500)
    • 5  (-700)
    • 25 (-800)
  41. What does the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light indicate?
    LED's are not in the commanded position, or a leading edge asymmetry is detected.
  42. What is the maximum altitude to extend the flaps?
  43. What are the indications of a flap asymmetry?
    • Uncommanded roll when the flaps change position.
    • The left and right flap indications disagree.
  44. Will the flaps move when a new position is selected?
  45. What is the difference between the Classic and NG flap asymmetry detection?
    The NG has an FSEU, the Classic has a comparitor in the indicator.
  46. What does the Trailing Edge Flap Load Relief function do?
    Protects the flaps from excessive air loads by retracting the trailing edge flaps one setting until airspeed decreases.
  47. When is the Trailing Edge Flap Load Relief function operative in the:
    • When the trailing edge flaps are in position:
    • 40  (-300/500)
    • 30 and 40 (-700)
    • 10, 15, 25, 30, 40 (-800)
  48. (PF) If a go-around is conducted after experiencing a flap asymmetry, what is your initial callout?
    "Go Around"
  49. (PM) What are the Pilot Monitoring actions when the PF calls "Go Around?"
    • 1. Verify TO/GA on the FMA.
    • 2. Reply, "Go Around".
    • 3. Adjust thrust levers as necessary.
    • 4. Verify go-around pitch attitude (initially 15°)
  50. What will happen when you position the landing gear lever UP?
    • The landing gear will retract.
    • The landing config warning horn will sound and cannot be silenced if any flap is extended beyond 15°.
  51. Should you consider maintaining your current configuration?
    Yes, in order to minimize distractions.
  52. When manually flying the aircraft, can the stab trim wheel move automatically?
    • Yes.
    • The Speed Trim System will move the stab trim in conditions such as takeoff, climb, and go-around.
  53. What conditions have to exist for the system to operate?
    If the aircraft has a low gross weight, aft CG, and high thrust setting with the autopilot off.
  54. What does the Mach Trim system do?
    The system provides automatic repositioning of the elevators as a function of Mach number to prevent Mach tuck (the control column will move).
  55. Where can you find the max speeds to operate with the Mach Trim inoperative?
    • AOM Ch. 3 (Limitations)
    • QRH Section 9
    • Mach System MEL
    • NG: 280/.82
    • CL: .74
  56. What does the Auto Slat system do?
    Provides stall protection by moving the LE slats from the EXT to the FULL EXT position prior to stick shaker to improve stall characteristics at high angles of attack.
  57. Does the Auto Slat system work if the aircraft is clean?
    • No.
    • The trailing edge flaps must be at positions 1, 2, or 5.
    • (and positions 10, 15 and 25 for the -800)
  58. What are the primary and backup sources of power for the Auto Slats?
    • Primary source is System B hydraulics.
    • Backup is System A powering the PTU, which uses residual system B fluid (standpipe).
  59. How is the Horizontal Stabilizer positioned?
    A single electric trim motor, operated by the stab trim switches on the control column or through the autopilot trim circuit.
  60. What is the purpose of the STAB TRIM MAIN ELECT and the STAB TRIM AUTOPILOT cutout switch located on the control stand?
    To allow the autopilot or main electric trim inputs to be disconnected from the stabilizer trim motor.
  61. Is there another way to stop operation of the main electric and autopilot trim?
    • Yes.
    • The control column actuated cutout switches stop the main electric and autopilot trim when the control column movement opposes trim direction.
  62. What does the stabilizer trim wheel do?
    • Manually positions the stabilizer.
    • Manual rotation of the trim wheel can be used to override autopilot or main electric trim.
  63. What is the purpose of the STAB TRIM OVERRIDE switch on the center pedestal?
    When the switch is positioned to OVERRIDE, electric trim can be used regardless of control column position.
  64. What does the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM light indicate if it illuminates while arming the system for landing?
    A malfunction exists in the Auto Brake system.
  65. When is the use of flaps 40 recommended?
    • 1. Negative [bracketed] OPC stopping margin under Min(2) for flaps 30
    • 2. Reported braking action less that GOOD
    • 3. Weather at or near minimums for the approach to be flown.
    • Also, a flaps 40 landing is preferred when operating with Anti-Skid inop.
  66. In order to meet AUTOBRAKE MAX OPC generated approximate stopping margins, Max manual braking must be initiated at what point?
    Nose wheel touchdown.
  67. Is landing authorized on a runway that has brackets around the Max stopping margin for a given flap setting?
    No. Choose another flap setting or runway that provides a positive stopping margin.
  68. Can you safely initiate a rejected landing after reverse thrust deployment?
    No. A go-around is not an option after the reverse thrust levers are raised.
  69. What is the purpose of the landing gear lever lock solenoid?
    It prevents the Landing Gear lever from being raised when on the ground.
  70. During landing gear retraction, what stops the wheels from spinning?
    Main wheels are stopped by the brakes, nose wheels are stopped by snubbers.
  71. What happens when the landing gear lever is placed in the OFF position?
    Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system.
  72. Where can you find the max landing gear retraction speed?
    Placard on the forward panel near the gear handle. (235 KIAS)
  73. What would cause the landing gear handle to not move UP after takeoff?
    • Failure of the air/ground safety sensor
    • Failure of the landing gear lever lock solenoid.
  74. If the air/ground safety senser has failed in the ground position, what indications might you have?
    • CDU will still display the Takeoff Ref page
    • The intermittant warning horn will sound and/or the Takeoff Configuration warning light will illuminate when TE flaps are retracted.
  75. What is the purpose of the override trigger on the Landing Gear lever?
    The trigger bypasses the landing gear lever lock.
  76. How does the Manual Gear Extension Access Door affect operation of the landing gear in the NG?
    If the access door is open, normal gear EXTENSION is possible (if system A pressure is available). Gear RETRACTION is disabled.
  77. If the Manual Gear Extension Access Door is open in an NG, will the landing gear lever move to the UP position?
    Yes. The gear lever will move to the UP position, but all three landing gear will remain down and locked. In addition, all three RED gear lights will be illuminated.
  78. How does the Classic differ?
    The Manual Gear Extension Access Door does not affect landing gear operation.
  79. If a main wheel tire is damaged during takeoff roll, braking of the main gear during retraction may be affected. What protection is provided to prevent damage to components in the wheel well? (NG only)
    A fitting is provided in the wheel well ring opening. If a spinning tire with loose tread impacts the fitting, the affected gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position.
  80. In the Classic, how can you verify the landing gear is down and locked?
    The WHEEL WELL light switch should be placed ON. For a main gear, use the viewer in the main cabin, located adjacent to the third window behind the aft overwing exit and one foot left of center. Lift the carpet to sight through the viewer.
  81. What visual indications are you looking for?
    The red paint stripes aligned on the down lock and the side struts.
  82. How can you verify landing gear position in the NG?
    The landing gear indicator lights on the overhead panel provide a verification of landing gear position.
  83. How can the gear be manually extended?
    By pulling the manual gear release handles on the floor of the flight deck.
  84. What happens when the gear handles are pulled?
    This releases the uplocks which allow the gear to free-fall to the down and locked position.
  85. Is the gear warning horn still available after a manual gear extension attempt?
    Yes. The landing gear warning horn is deactivated only after all gear are down and locked.
  86. Is normal braking available after manual gear extension?
  87. Is nose wheel steering available after manual gear extension?
    Yes, unless the gear lever is stuck in the OFF position.
  88. Where can you find the maximum landing gear extension speed?
    Placard on the forward panel near the gear handle. (270 KIAS)
  89. Are there any immediate action items for Wheel Well Fire?
  90. Is Wheel Well Fire on the QRC?
  91. Could a Wheel Well Fire indication be coming from a fire in the nose wheel well?
  92. Is the Wheel Well Fire detection a single or dual loop?
    Single loop.
  93. Does the main wheel well have a fire extinguishing system?
  94. Where can you find the maximum speed with the landing gear extended?
    Placard on the forward panel near the gear handle. (320 KIAS/.82Mach)
  95. If the Wheel Well Fire light does not extinguish with the landing gear extended, what are some considerations?
    • Land at the nearest suitable airport.
    • Consider range/fuel burn.
    • Possible passenger evacuation.
  96. Where is the EVACUATION checklist located?
    • Yoke clipboard
    • Back cover of the QRH
  97. Where can you find more detailed information regarding a planned passenger evacuation?
    AOM Ch. 5
  98. If time allows, what are some of the items the captain should brief the Flight Attendants on prior to a planned evacuation?
    • Type of emergency
    • Time available
    • Who will order the evacuation
    • Exits to be used
    • Possible adverse conditions
  99. Is full completion of the Evacuation checklist mandatory?
    No. Use good judgement and evaluation of the situation.
  100. How does an inoperative Radio Altimeter affect approach minimums?
    • Approaches are not authorized below 4000 RVR or 3/4 SM because the associated flight director will not be available. If the Captain's Radio Altimeter is inoperative, the flight director will disappear at glideslope capture on an ILS approach.
    • Approaches below 4000 RVR or 3/4 SM require both flight directors be operative and used for the approach.
  101. How does this affect the decision to divert to an alternate?
    The weather at an alternate will need to be at or above 4000 RVR or 3/4 miles.
  102. If the C/B associated with a failed radio altimeter was found to be popped, should you consider a reset?
    • A reset should NOT be considered if a safe diversion to an alternate can be made.
    • Limitation: The in-flight reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be accomplished when directed by the QRH. Allow 2 minutes cooling before resetting.
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2016 CQT Study Guide