AMTC General 2016

  1. How long are you grounded for after donating 300cc of blood?
    Aircrew personnel shall be grounded for a period of 3 days (72 hours) after a donation of 200 cc or more of blood.
  2. After what amount of blood can you NOT fly above 35k feet?
    500cc ; Aircrew personnel should not be permitted to engage in-flights above 35,000 feet, night flying, or other demanding flights for a period of one week after blood donation.
  3. What amount of blood given for 7 days no fly?
    Aircrew personnel shall be grounded for a period of 7 days after donation of 500cc or more of blood. (The standard unit of donated blood is less than 500cc).
  4. What are the responsibilities of CG 711 and CG 41?
    Commandant (CG-711) in coordination with Commandant (CG-41) and Commandant (CG-113) shall plan, coordinate and provision CG aircraft for insured flight safety, global mobility, interoperability and access to sovereign airspace.
  5. How is Deadheading calculated?
    An aircrew member being transported to or from a staging area. One half of the number of flight hours spent deadheading shall count as crew mission time. Deadheading time shall not count as part of an off duty period. One half of the number of flight hours spent deadheading shall count as crew mission time. Deadheading shall not be calculated as part of crew rest time.
  6. How long are standardization check sheets kept for?
    All completed syllabi and standardization check sheets will be retained for a minimum of four years following completion.
  7. How often are aircrew training records updated/reviewed?
    Each individual’s record must be updated annually, preferably just before the unit’s Standardization Visit.
  8. How long do you keep flight training records?
    It will be maintained throughout an individual’s career as a Coast Guard flight crew member.
  9. How many years minimum must aircrew syllabi be held?
    All completed syllabi and standardization check sheets shall be retained for a minimum of four years following completion.
  10. How often are flight records reviewed?
    A responsibility of the Flight Services Officer is to review the unit’s Flight Records for completeness and accuracy. Flight Records should also be reviewed at least weekly.
  11. What is the training record form number?
    CG Form 5285 United States Coast Guard Training Record
  12. The following operations and emergency bills shall be promulgated as appropriate:
    • Fire
    • Field Crash
    • Water Crash
    • Search and Rescue
    • Disaster Control
    • Communications
    • Hurricane or Destructive Storm Evacuation Plan
    • Pre-mishap Plan
    • Recovery and Salvage Plan
  13. Who pays for an Unscheduled Depot Level Maintenance transfer?
    Unscheduled Depot Level Maintenance (UDLM): The operating unit will fund aircraft transfers in support of UDLM.
  14. Who pays for an Acquisition, Construction and Improvement (AC&I)transfer?
    Acquisition, Construction, and Improvement (AC&I): AC&I projects will fund aircraft transfers in support of their particular AC&I project.
  15. Who pays for an operational transfer?
    Operational Transfers: The directing operational authority will fund aircraft transfers in support of operational projects or relocation.
  16. Who directs the transfer of aircraft between units?
    COMDT CG-711 will direct the transfer of all aircraft.
  17. Who gives the final review of class A and B mishaps?
    COMDT(G-CCS) Provides a Final Decision Letter and Message Released. Derived from Mishap Analysis Board’s Mishap Analysis Report, which is reviewed by the Commandant Safety Board who sends a Determination Letter to COMDT(G-CCS).
  18. When do you need blood and urine samples for mishaps?
    Survivors shall be treated/examined at the first opportunity. Blood and urine tests are required for all class A and B mishaps, and for class C and D mishaps if human physiological factors are suspected. Samples shall be taken from military members as soon as possible after the mishap. All personnel involved in class A and class B mishaps shall receive a complete physical examination by a military medical officer prior to returning to full duty.
  19. When do Aviation specific class C, D and E mishaps need to be reported?
    Class C Aviation messages shall be submitted within 14 days; Class D and Class E Aviation messages shall be submitted within 21 days.
  20. Human Factors account for what percent of aviation mishaps?
    Cockpit Resource Management (CRM) Training. Human error mishaps account for approximately 80% of aviation mishap losses in the Coast Guard. CRM training is a valuable tool aimed at reducing human error mishaps by improving individual and crew performance.
  21. What form do you document discreps generated at PDM after receipt from ALC?
    Upon receipt of an aircraft from PDM, the new reporting custodian will prepare a Standard Form 368 (Product Quality Deficiency Report) or post PDM report as stipulated in Chapter 3.
  22. What is the Deficiency report process for an aircraft from initial delivery from manufacturer?
    Standard Form 368. DOD has adopted this Quality Deficiency Report as a standard form for use in reporting quality deficiencies on all DOD owned materiel (i.e., components, engines, and aircraft). A memorandum report will be used for reporting deficiencies discovered on new aircraft delivered to operating units. The report shall be submitted as described in Chapter 3, paragraph E., no later than 30 calendar days after acceptance at the receiving unit.
  23. What report shall be used to document any unusual work required for aircraft that are scheduled for programmed depot maintenance at military or commercial activities?
    • Aircraft Missile Condition Report, AFTO Form 103 (HC-130 only): This report shall be used to document any unusual work required for aircraft which are scheduled for PDM at military or commercial activities. Items such as extensive corrosion repair or rework of temporary structure repairs should be documented. The form shall be prepared in accordance with AFTO 00-25-4 and routed as directed by the preinduction notice.
    • NOTE: Field units should document depot-deferred maintenance utilizing the CFD function in EAL. ALC product line will generate the AFTO 103 and deliver to the DoD facility
  24. How often should aircraft logbooks be checked for accuracy?
    Monthly (by the EO or designated representative) PG-85-00-110
  25. No modifications or changes on aircraft will be made without the authorization from ____?
    COMDT CG-41 M13020.1 Series
  26. How many categories are there in MSR?
    • 7;
    • Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE),
    • Avionics Support (AS),
    • Ground Support (GS),
    • Support Equipment (SE)
    • Pubs Audit (PA)
    • Rescue & Assistance (RA)
    • Damage Control (DS)
  27. Who has the final review authority for a Board of Survey for aeronautical material/equipment?
    COMDT CG-41, M13020.1
  28. Who is the program manager for aviation?
    COMDT CG-41, M13020.1
  29. What will continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force cause on a compressor?
    • Growth or Blade elongation.
    • A&P power plant V2, Pg 10-49
  30. A term used to describe damage to surfaces evidenced by discoloration or, in severe cases, by flow of material.
    • Burning; caused by excessive heat
    • FAA-H-8083-32-V2.pdf AMT Handbook-Powerplant
  31. Which funds are used to purchase GSE parts?
    GSE parts will be purchased with unit or district AFC-30 funds.
  32. Who is responsible for funding GSE equipment by means of a Planning for, Budgeting and procuring major SE?
    Commanding Officer of ALC.
  33. Instructions for purchasing tools is found in what manual?
    Simplified Acquisitions Procedures Handbook M4200.13
  34. Instructions for purchasing aeronautical tools is found in what manual?
    The Supply Policy and Procedures Manual, COMDINST M4400.19, addresses the aviation tool control program and provides guidance for the pruchase of tools from commercial sources to satisfy SAE Aerospace standards.
  35. What percentage of wear on a cable will constitute replacement?
    • Any cable assembly that has one broken or loose wire in the critical fatigue area must be replaced.
    • When wear on outer wires is beyond 50%, cables should be replaced.
    • When wear on outer wires is 40% - 50%, cable should be replaced at next convenient occasion.
    • When wear on outer wires is less that 30%, cable does not require replacement.
    • Corrosion on the interior strands of the cable constitutes failure and the cable must be replaced.
  36. What is the percentage of a grounding wire that can be broken before it needs to be replaced?
    Replace the cable if more than one-third of the cable wires are broken.
  37. What is the normal level of icing inhibitor in fuel tanks?
    Fuel system icing inhibitor in turbine fuel should be 0.08 - 0.20. NOTE: Introduction of this additive will lower the flash point of JP-5 by four (4) degrees Fahrenheit and will inhibit the growth of bacteria.
  38. Who approves the installation of prototype electronic equipment?
    Installation of prototypes requires completion of EMI/EMC testing and feasibility. As such, no aircraft modifications or changes will bemade without specific authorization from Commandant (CG-41) and (CG-711) and no in-flight testing will be conducted without specific authorization from Commandant (CG-711).
  39. What is the ACCB?
    Aircraft Configuration Control Board.
  40. What maintenance level function is Component repair?
    Class C-Level maintenance is devoted to the repair (not overhaul), test, and return to serviceable status of unserviceable aeronautical components and equipment.
  41. Shops with Class C-level component repair can perform what type of inspections and work?
    Component repair maintenance involves preservation, inspection, examination, specified bench test, correction of discrepancies, calibration, repair and or replacement, and emergency manufacture of parts requiring light installed equipment.
  42. What constitutes class C-level repairs?
    Repairs at the component level categorized under the DOD Intermediate Maintenance Level and is devoted to repair (not overhaul), test and return.
  43. What is the order of precedence of directives and TOs?
    ACMS, CGTO, AFTO, NAVIAR, and Commercial Pubs.
  44. What is the new ATA chapter system the Coast Guard is changing to?
    The Coast Guard is migrating technical publications chapter format to the S1000D international standard using Chapter 8.3.2, 1808-based SNS example.
  45. What manual has Aerial Gunnery (AG) information for Airborne Use of Force?
    A Precision Marksman – Aviation (PM-A) mission qualification authorizes an aircrew member to employ airborne use of force during AUF profiles described in Maritime Security and Response Operations (MSRO) Manual, COMDTINST M16600.6 (series).
  46. What must be included in a title block of a drawing?
    • Although title blocks do not follow a standard form insofar as layout is concerned, all of them present essentially the following information:
    • A drawing number to identify the print for filing purposes and to prevent confusing it with any other print.
    • The name of the part or assembly.
    • The scale to which it is drawn.
    • The date.
    • The name of the firm.
    • The name of the draftsmen, the checker, and the person approving the drawing.
  47. Who assists in the development and review of technical courses of instruction at ATTC and commercially developed schools?
    • AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING RESOURCE MANAGEMENT DIVISION, COMMANDANT (CG-412). Under the direction and supervision of the Chief, Aeronautical Engineering Resource Management Division, the Chief, Aeronautical Engineering Resource Management Division.
    • M13020.1 Aeronautical Engineering Maintenance Management Manual
  48. How is an “NAS” bolt with a drilled shank identified?
    • A bolt without an “A” or an “H” after the dash number indicates a drilled shank bolt.
    • Example: NAS1003-8
  49. How is an “NAS” bolt with a drilled head identified?
    • A bolt with an “H” after the dash number will indicate a drilled head.
    • Example: NAS1003-8H
  50. How is an “NAS” bolt with no drilled holes identified?
    • A bolt with an “A” after the dash number will indicate a bolt with no drilled holes.
    • Example: NAS1003-8A
  51. What is the symbol for an “NAS” close tolerance bolt?
    Close tolerance NAS bolts are marked with either a raised or recessed triangle.
  52. How is an “AN” bolt with a drilled head identified?
    • A bolt with an “H and an “A” will identify the bolt with a drilled head only.
    • Example: AN6DDH10A
  53. How is an “AN” bolt with a drilled shank only identified?
    • A bolt with no “H” or “A” in it will identify it as a bolt with a drilled shank only.
    • Example: AN6-10
  54. How is an “AN” bolt with no drilled holes identified?
    • A bolt with an “A” at the end will identify the bolt as having no drilled holes.
    • Example: AN6C10A
  55. How is an “AN” bolt with a drilled head and shank identified?
    • A bolt with only an “H” in the part number will identify it as having both a drilled head and shank.
    • Example: AN6DDH10
  56. What is Ohm's Law?
    In most cases, the greater the circuit resistance, the less the current. If the resistance is reduced, then the current will increase. This relation is linear in nature.
  57. What is Newton's first Law?
    Objects at rest tend to remain at rest and objects in motion tend to remain in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, unless acted on by an external force.
  58. What is Newton's second Law?
    When a force acts upon a body, the momentum of that body is changed. The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the applied force.
  59. What is Newton's third Law?
    For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  60. What is Boyle's Law?
    “The volume of an enclosed dry gas varies inversely with its absolute pressure, provided the temperature remains constant.”
  61. What is Charles' Law?
    All gases expand and contract in direct proportion to the change in the absolute temperature, provided the pressure is held constant.
  62. What is Dalton's Law?
    “A mixture of several gases which do not react chemically exerts a pressure equal to the sum of the pressures which the several gases would exert separately if each were allowed to occupy the entire space alone at the given temperature.”
  63. What is Pascal's Law?
    States that when there is an increase in pressure at any point in a confined fluid, there is an equal increase at every other point in the container.
  64. What is Bernoulli’s Principle?
    States that as the speed of a moving fluid (liquid or gas) increases, the pressure within the fluid decreases.
  65. What are backup rings made of?
    MS28782 backup rings are made of Teflon.

    • What is the torque range of nuts, bolts, studs, and screws used for?
    • To distribute the loads safely throughout a structure, it is necessary that proper torque be applied to all nuts, bolts, studs, and screws. Using the proper torque allows the structure to develop its designed strength and greatly reduces the possibility of failure due to fatigue.
  66. What is the proper way to apply torque to a nut and bolt assembly?
    Always tighten by rotating the nut first if possible. When space considerations make it necessary to tighten by rotating the bolt head, approach the high side of the indicated torque range. Do not exceed the maximum allowable torque value.
  67. When is it okay to go to the maximum of the torque range?
    Maximum torque ranges should be used only when materials and surfaces being joined are of sufficient thickness, area, and strength to resist breaking, warping, or other damage.
  68. What types of nuts (material) use the same torque ranges as shear type nuts?
    For corrosion resisting steel nuts, use torque values given for shear type nuts.
  69. What is the property of metal which permits it to be permanently drawn, bent, or twisted into various
    • shapes without breaking?
    • Ductility
    • FAA-H-8083-30 AMT Handbook
  70. What is the property of metal which can be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking, breaking, or leaving some other detrimental effect?
    • Malleability
    • FAA-H-8083-30 AMT Handbook
  71. What is the property that enables a metal to return to its original size and shape when the force which causes the change of shape is removed?
    • Elasticity
    • FAA-H-8083-30 AMT Handbook
  72. What is the property of a metal which allows little bending or deformation without shattering. A brittle
    • metal is apt to break or crack without change of shape.
    • Brittleness
    • FAA-H-8083-30 AMT Handbook
  73. What is the property which enables a metal to carry heat or electricity.
    • Conductivity
    • FAA-H-8083-30 AMT Handbook
  74. When would you use paint to identify lines on an engine?
    Paint is used on lines in engine compartments, where there is the possibility of tapes, decals, or tags being drawn into the engine induction system.
  75. What is the preferred method to remove gas vapor from a fuel tank?
    Air Purge is the process of supplying fresh air to or exhausting air from a fuel tank to reduce fuel vapor concentration. The preferred method of air purge is a combination of exhaust and blow purge.
  76. What types of integral fuel tank repairs are there?
    Temporary and permanent

    • What section, of a vapor-cycle air-conditioner, absorbs heat and changes the liquid to a gas?
    • A refrigerant is pumped into the evaporator coil, located in the compartment to be cooled, where the low pressure causes the refrigerant to evaporate into a vapor, taking heat with it.
    • At the opposite side of the cycle is the condenser, which is located outside of the cooled compartment, where the refrigerant vapor is compressed and forced through another heat exchange coil, condensing the refrigerant into a liquid, thus releasing the heat previously absorbed from the cooled space
  77. At what tire pressure must slippage marks be applied?
    Tires that are equipped with inner tubes, and operate with less than 150 psi, and all helicopter tube tires must use tire slippage marks. The slippage mark is a red paint strip 1 inch wide and 2 inches long.
  78. What System number is pneumatics?
    • 28 FUEL
    • 35 OXYGEN
    • 36 PNEUMATIC
  79. How to determine rivet types, breakdown for MS20426AD3-4?
    • MS 20 - Specification - MS Military Standard
    • AN 20 - Army/Navy
    • NAS 20 - National Aerospace Standard
    • 426 - Head shape - countersunk
    • AD - Material or alloy - 2117-T4
    • 3 - Diameter in thirty-seconds of an inch (3/32)
    • 4 - length in sixteenths of an inch (4/16 = 1/4)
  80. What is the rivet diameter of MS20470AD3-4?
    • MS20470AD3-3 3/32 3/16
    • MS20470AD3-4 3/32 1/4
    • MS20470AD3-6 3/32 3/8
    • MS20470AD3-8 3/32 1/2
    • MS20470AD4-3 1/8 3/16
    • MS20470AD4-4 1/8 1/4
    • MS20470AD4-6 1/8 3/8
    • MS20470AD4-8 1/8 1/2
  81. What is the proper edge distance for rivets in a repair?
    • Edge distance, also called edge margin by some manufacturers, is the distance from the center of the first rivet to the edge of the sheet. It should not be less than 2 or more than 4 rivet diameters and the recommended edge distance is about 21⁄2 rivet diameters.
    • FAA-H-8083-31-V1 AMT Handbook
  82. What is the minimum edge distance for a universal rivet?
    • The minimum edge distance for universal rivets is 2 times the diameter of the rivet.
    • FAA-H-8083-31-V1 AMT Handbook
  83. What is the minimum edge distance for a countersunk rivet?
    • the minimum edge distance for countersunk rivets is 21⁄2 times the diameter of the rivet.
    • FAA-H-8083-31-V1 AMT Handbook
  84. What is the minimum spacing for rivets in a repair?
    • Rivet spacing is measured between the centerlines of rivets in the same row. The minimum spacing between protruding head rivets shall not be less than 31⁄2 times the rivet diameter. The minimum spacing between flush head rivets shall not be less than 4 times the diameter of the rivet.
    • FAA-H-8083-31-V1 AMT Handbook
  85. How do you determine the proper length of a rivet for a skin repair?
    • Multiply the skins thickness by 3. Example: if the skin is 0.040 inch thick, multiply 0.040 by 3 to get 0.120 inch and use the next larger size of rivet, 1⁄8-inch (0.125 inch).
    • FAA-H-8083-31-V1 AMT Handbook
  86. What should the rivet diameter be for a skin repair?
    • As a general rule, the rivet diameter should be at least two and a half to three times the thickness of the thicker sheet. Rivets most commonly chosen in the assembly and repair of aircraft range from 3⁄32-inch to 3⁄8-inch in diameter. Ordinarily, rivets smaller than 3⁄32- inch in diameter are never used on any structural parts that carry stresses.
    • FAA-H8083-31-V1 AMT Handbook
  87. What is the common degree of countersunk rivet heads?
    • The countersunk head angle can vary from 60° to 120°, but the 100° has been adopted as standard because this head style provides the best possible compromise between tension/ shear strength and flushness requirements.
    • AMT Handbook FAA-H-8083-31-V1 4-31
  88. On an axial-flow compressor, how is the air compressed?
    • From inlet to exit, the air flows along an axial path and is compressed at a ratio of approximately 1.25:1 per stage. The action of the rotor increases the compression of the air at each stage and accelerates it rearward through several stages. With this increased velocity, energy is transferred from the compressor to the air in the form of velocity energy.
    • FAA-H-8083-32-V1 AMT Powerplant
  89. What is the primary purpose of the compressor section of an engine?
    • Its primary function is to supply air in sufficient quantity to satisfy the requirements of the combustion burners. Specifically, to fulfill its purpose, the compressor must increase the pressure of the mass of air received from the air inlet duct, and then, discharge it to the burners in the quantity and at the pressures required.
    • FAA-H-8083-32-V1 AMT Powerplant
  90. What is the purpose of the combustion section of an engine?
    • The primary function of the combustion section is, of course, to burn the fuel/air mixture, thereby adding heat energy to the air.
    • FAA-H-8083-32-V1 AMT Powerplant
  91. What is the purpose of the turbine section?
    • The turbine transforms a portion of the kinetic (velocity) energy of the exhaust gases into mechanical energy to drive the gas generator compressor and accessories. The sole purpose of the gas generator turbine is to absorb approximately 60 to 70 percent of the total pressure energy from the exhaust gases.
    • FAA-H-8083-32-V1 AMT Powerplant
  92. What is the purpose of the accessory drive?
    • The primary function is to provide space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of the engine.
    • FAA-H-8083-32-V1 AMT Powerplant
  93. What are the three classifications of the Material Deficiency Evaluations (MDE)?
    • Engineering Investigation (EI)
    • Disassembly Inspection Report (DIR),
    • Condition Exception Report (CER).
  94. If there is not a fire resistance barrier, oxygen cylinders storage shall be separated from combustable gas cylinders and materials by how many feet?
    Oxygen cylinders, full or empty, shall never be stored in the same vicinity as flammable gases. The proper storage of oxygen cylinders required a minimum or 20 feet between flammable gas cylinders or the areas need to be separated, at a minimum, by a firewall 5 feet high with a fire rating of at least one hour.
  95. What ACMS code do hangar doors fall under?
    Special Requirements (SR)
  96. What is the height of hangar door buttons?
    • 4ft from the floor, 3-4ft from the leading edge.
    • Ref. NAVAIR 11000.11A
  97. Who initiates a parts pool process within AMMIS?
    • The decision to parts pool rests with the unit that has the initial request (requesting unit).
    • PG85-00-110
  98. How many types of aircraft fuselage construction are there, what are they?
    • 4
    • Truss structure
    • Geodesic construction
    • Monocoque shell
    • Semi-monocoque
  99. What form of corrosion is a particularly damaging form of corrosive attack that occurs when two mating surfaces, normally at rest with respect to one another, are subject to slight relative motion. It is characterized by pitting of the surfaces and the generation of considerable quantities of finely divided debris?
  100. The inter-granular or trans-granular cracking of a metal caused by the combined effects of constant tensile stress and a corrosive environment is called?
    Stress Corrosion.
  101. What is a series of deep scratches caused by foreign particles between moving parts or careless assembly or disassembly techniques?
  102. What is severe rubbing in which metal is transferred from one surface to another?
  103. What is a Thomas Coupling?
    A flexible stainless steel discs stacked together to join drive shaft sections.
  104. What are the two filter types used on gearboxes?
    Replaceable cartridge and reusable wafer stacks.
  105. What temperature should the water be when washing aircraft?
    It is highly recommended wash racks have hot water (120 - 140) available for aircraft washing. Studies have shown that hot water can decrease washing time as much as 20%
  106. What is the maximum wind velocity for jacking an aircraft outside of a hangar?
    15 MPH
  107. What are the four occasions for a test flight?
    • After extended aircraft storage
    • After completions of a major structural rework, including PDM
    • As indicated by MPCs and Tech Manuals
    • Prior to delivery to PDM
  108. Process guides
    • PG 85-00-10 ACMS User’s Guide
    • PG 85-00-20 CG-22
    • PG 85-00-30 Reliability Centered Maintenance
    • PG 85-00-40 TCTO Guidelines
    • PG 85-00-50 TIMOS Guide
    • PG 85-00-60 Corrosion Control Program Guide
    • PG 85-00-70 ACCB Guide
    • PG 85-00-90 Project Officer Management
    • PG 85-00-100 Power By the Hour
    • PG 85-00-110 Aeronautical Engineering Maintenance Management Manual
    • PG 85-00-120 U.S. Coast Guard Acceptable Terms, Acronyms and Abbreviations
    • PG 85-00-130 Unsatisfactory Report Guide
    • PG 85-00-140 Coast Guard Aviation Supply
    • PG 85-00-150 Support Equipment
    • PG 85-00-160 Aircraft Transfer Guide
    • PG 85-00-170 Aviation Fuel handling Guide
    • PG 85-00-180 Weight and Balance Guide
  109. Who approves modifications to aircraft?
    No modifications or changes (including temporarily installed sound systems) will be made without authorization from the Commandant (CG-41).
  110. What is the accepted PH in water used for washing aircraft?
    pH (acidity) is allowable between 6 and 8
  111. Who is responsible for overseeing the safety program?
    • (CG-113) is responsible for developing, coordination, reviewing and implementing the policies,
    • procedures and standards for the Aviation Safety Program. The Division shall also monitor and evaluate unit program implementation. Oversee, coordinated and track safety training for commanding officers, FSOs and other aviation personnel.
  112. Cylinder Colors:
    • Yellow Flammable materials
    • Brown Toxic and poisonous
    • Blue Anesthetics and harmful
    • Green Oxidizing
    • Gray Physically dangerous
    • Red Fire Protection
  113. Aviators Oxygen cylinders are labeled how?
    • The cylinder’s are green in color and have a 3” wide white band around the upper circumference of the cylinder which can readily identify Aviator’s breathing oxygen supply cylinders.
    • “OXYGEN AVIATOR’S” shall be stenciled in white, parallel to the longitudinal axis, and on diametrically opposed sides in letters 2 inches high.
    • Ref. M13520.1 (ALSE)
  114. What is the Primary source to get MSDS forms from?
    The DOD Hazardous Materials Information System (HMIS), which currently contains over 60,000 MSDSs, shall be the primary source for obtaining this information.
  115. When aircraft brakes are overheated, it may take how long to reach peak temperature?
    Peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly from approximately 1 to 5 minutes and in the wheel and tire assembly from approximately 20 to 30 minutes after maximum braking operation.
  116. How long should you allow an overheated brake and tire assembly to cool before inspecting for damage?
    If wheel/tire damage is known or suspected, allow the assembly to cool for a minimum of 3 hours prior to any inspection or maintenance action.
  117. What is done to an aircraft for level 1 aircraft preservation?
    Level 1 is the most basic preservation where systems are kept clean and free of water, and fluids are maintained full. The barrier system used is Tape and Barrier. Short term preservation procedures are usually found in the MPCs for each model aircraft.
  118. What is done for level 2 aircraft preservation?
    Level II is similar to level 1. Aircraft systems are kept clean and free of water, and fluids are maintained full. In addition, selected systems are drained of operational fluid, protected with a coating of preservation fluid, and statically dehumidified. Of all the selected systems, preservation of the fuel system and power plant system are the most significant. Level II barrier systems include strippable coatings, T&B, and top covers.
  119. What is done for Level III aircraft preservation?
    Level III adds static or dynamic dehumidification, of the entire aircraft or removed system components, to Level II requirements. Level III barrier systems include portable shelters, drop shrouds and flexible bags.
  120. How many days/months is Level 1 preservation?
    This is the preservation level recommended for short term protection of 90 days or less and is the baseline for all subsequent preservation levels. This level is used for maintenance work in process, work awaiting parts, and any other short term condition on aircraft remaining idle.
  121. How many days/ months is Level II preservation?
    This level removes selected systems from operational condition and preserves them for a storage period up to 1 year. This level is also used for aircraft shipment, Level II preservation requires the static dehumidification of selected systems
  122. How many days/ months is Level III preservation?
    This is the highest level of aircraft and system preservation. It affords the best protection for an indefinite period of time. Level III preservation requires the dehumidification of the entire aircraft or removed system/component.
  123. When preservation has expired, what must be done next?
    For Level I and Level II, upon completion of the preservation cycle the aircraft must be depreserved. If required, the aircraft may be re-preserved at the same level or placed into another level of preservation.
  124. What chemical is used for fuel cell preservation?
    The preservative used for all types of fuel systems shall be MIL-PRF-6081 Grade 1010 oil.
  125. Who is responsible for testing a tool before coast guard can accept it?
    ALC provides policy and procedures to manage the introduction of new materials and processes into Coast Guard aviation. It establishes a standard set of guidelines for the introduction of new materials and processes to ensure maximum benefit at minimum risk to the Coast Guard.
  126. What form do you use when sending an oil sample?
    DD 2026 Oil Analysis Request NAVAIR 17-15-50 (series)
  127. What form do you use for special oil analysis?
    DD 2027 Oil Analysis Record NAVAIR 17-15-50 (series)
  128. A program of disciplined logic to realize the inherent reliability capabilities of equipment being maintained is called what?
    RELIABILITY-CENTERED MAINTENANCE (RCM) The term RCM refers to a program of disciplined logic to realize the inherent reliability capabilities of equipment being maintained.
  129. When you are fueling, how far is the power cart kept from the aircraft?
    At least 50FT (FSSZ) and 25FT from vents.
  130. What is the primary purpose for grounding the aircraft and fuel truck during fueling operations?
    To equalize the static potential between the incoming fuel and the fuel in the aircraft.
  131. What are the three types of aircraft transfers?
    • 1. Unscheduled Depot Level Maintenance (UDLM)
    • 2. Temporary Aircraft Transfer
    • 3. Permanent Aircraft Transfer
  132. What are the four contaminants of fuel?
    particulates, water, microbes, and surfactants.
  133. What is the limit for water in aircraft turbine fuels?
    The limit for water in aircraft turbine fuel is 10 ppm
  134. What do you reference to find the minimum fuel quality standards for aviation fuels?
    PG 85-00-170 Aviation fuel handling Process Guide
Card Set
AMTC General 2016