Microbiology final

  1. which of the following scientists demonstrated that a bacterium was the cause of tuberculosis?
    Koch
  2. Which of the following is NOT a modern scientific discipline that originated from microbiology?
    Zoology
  3. Which scientist played a major role in the birth of microbiology as a scientific field?
    Pasteur
  4. Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?
    Snow: boiled beef gravy in sealed flasks
  5. All of the following statements are true with respect to the bacteria and the archaea EXCEPT:
    They do not have cell walls.
  6. All of the following are examples of microorganisms EXCEPT:
    A tapeworm
  7. Which of the following is the first step in the scientific method?
    Observation of a phenomenon.
  8. Louis Pasteur was involved in research on all of the following problems EXCEPT:
    Chemotherapy
  9. The scientist who pioneered handwashing as a means of reducing disease transmission was _____.
    Semmelweis
  10. Life on Earth can be classified into three Domains.  These three Domains are:
    Bacteria, Archae, Eukarya
  11. Which of the following microbes is photosynthetic?
    Algae
  12. All of the following are events associated with the Golden Age of Microbiology EXCEPT:
    Discovery of the structure of DNA
  13. Microbiology is concerned with the study of all the following EXCEPT:
    Characterization of the tissues and organs of the human body.
  14. All of the following are activities associated with microorganisms EXCEPT:
    Production of butter from milk
  15. Fungal cell walls are composed of a complex polysaccharide called:
    Chitin
  16. Which of the following scientists was active during the Golden Age of microbiology?
    Koch
  17. Which of the following types of microbes is most similar to animals in terms of their cellular structure and metabolism?
    Protozoa
  18. All of the following types of microbes were viewed and described by Leeuwenhoek EXCEPT:
    Viruses
  19. One major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells involves the presence or absence of _____.
    a nucleus
  20. Which area of study is concerned with the distribution and spread of infectious disease?
    Epidemiology
  21. Which of the following microbes is generally the smallest?
    Viruses
  22. Which of the following scientists first provided experimental evidence that contradicted the spontaneous generation of microorganisms?
    Joblot
  23. Fungi can reproduce through all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:
    Binary fission
  24. Which of the following are acellular obligatory parasites?
    Viruses
  25. Mushrooms and yeast are examples of which of the following types of organisms?
    Fungi
  26. Which type of microscope utilizes a laser to illuminate the specimen?
    Confocal
  27. The limit of useful magnification for a light microscope is:
    2000X
  28. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?
    An electron beam
  29. Which of the following microscopes can produce image macromolecules?
    Scanning tunneling
  30. What type of microscope was used Leeuwenhoek to observe his "little animalcules"?
    Simple light microscope
  31. In microscopy, which of the following plays an important role in visualizing extremely small objects clearly?
    Answers A, B, and C are correct.
  32. In this chapter you learned about various kinds of microscopes used to view the smallest cells or parts of cells. Which of the following would require an electron microscope in order to be viewed?
    A ribosome
  33. The scientist who pioneered the use of the microscope to view various kinds of microbes was:
    Leeuwenhoek
  34. The bending of light waves as a result of their passage through a curved glass lens is known as:
    Refraction
  35. _____ involves the application of labeled antibodies to the specimen that is to be observed.
    Immunofluorescence
  36. All of the following are components of a bright-field compound microscope EXCEPT:
    Phase plate
  37. The term _____ describes the ability of a microscope to produce images in which very small adjacent objects appear as separate and distinct.
    Resolution
  38. Which of the following wavelengths of visible light occurs between yellow and blue?
    Green
  39. Which of the following is a type of electron microscope used to examine the surface structure of non-living specimens?
    SEM
  40. Which of the following types of microscope can magnify specimens more than 100,000,000X?
    Scanning tunneling
  41. All of the following types of microscopes can be used to view living specimens EXCEPT:
    Confocal microscope
  42. Which of the following combinations would give the best microscopic resolution?
    Large numerical aperture lens, short wavelength radiation
  43. Visible wavelengths of light are used to illuminate a specimen by all of the following microscopes EXCEPT:
    Confocal microscope
  44. Which of the following microscopes utilize ultraviolet light?
    Confocal microscope
  45. Which of the following microscopes is capable of producing a three-dimensional image?
    Both A and B are correct.
  46. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found in the cell's genetic material as well as within the cell's primary short-term energy and electron-carrying molecules?
    Adenine
  47. Solutions that resist changes in pH because they contain both a weak acid and its conjugate base are called:
    Buffers
  48. The atomic number of the elements oxygen is 8; this means it has
    8 protons in its nucleus.
  49. A term which refers to the sum of all the chemical reactions within an organism is:
    Metabolism
  50. All of the following are subatomic particles associated with the structure of an atom EXCEPT:
    Positrons
  51. Which of the following is NOT a carbohydrate produced by plants?
    Peptidoglycan
  52. Disulfide bridges are used in which level of protein structure?
    Tertiary
  53. -OH and -NH2 are examples of:
    Functional groups
  54. All of the following macromolecules are used as energy sources EXCEPT:
    DNA
  55. The smallest unit of an element which still retains all of the characteristic physical and chemical properties of the element is call a(n):
    Atom
  56. All of the following are principle roles of protein within cells EXCEPT:
    Energy storage
  57. Two atoms that have similar electronegativities (differing by less than 0.5 units) will form a(n):
    Nonpolar covalent bond
  58. Which of the following is an incorrect pair?
    Synthesis: catabolic
  59. Which of the following is an incorrect pair?
    Lipids: hexoses
  60. Which of following does NOT involve a chemical reaction?
    Water freezes to become ice.
  61. Which of the following nitrogenous bases in NOT a pyrimidine?
    Adenine
  62. Negatively charged subatomic particles which are important participants in chemical reactions are called:
    Electrons
  63. Which element is found in all proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids?
    Carbon
  64. ALL proteins have a minimum of how many levels of protein structure?
    Three
  65. A solution that has a pH of 5 has a hydrogen ion (H+) concentration that is _____ than a solution with a pH of 6.
    10-fold greater
  66. A series of amino acids covalently bonded together form a molecule called a:
    Polypeptide
  67. The two strands of the DNA double helix are held together by ____ bonds between complementary bases.
    Hydrogen
  68. Alpha-helices are associated with which level of protein structure?
    Secondary
  69. All of the following are true statements regarding hydrogen bonds EXCEPT:
    Hydrogen bonds are relatively strong as compared to covalent and ionic bonds.
  70. Water is important for life for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
    Water does not absorb heat energy.
  71. Passive transport of molecules that require specific carrier proteins is called:
    Facilitated diffusion
  72. The cell walls of bacteria are a polymer of short peptides and repeating chains of:
    NAM and NAG
  73. The endosymbiotic theory is a possible explanation of the origin of which of the following organelles?
    Mitochondria
  74. Which of the following types of lipids is the major component of all cytoplasmic membranes?
    phospholipids
  75. All of the following are true statements concerning fimbriae except:
    They are important for bacterial conjugation.
  76. Which of the following subcellular structures is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
    Ribosome
  77. Which of the following types of microbe is prokaryotic?
    Bacteria
  78. Which of the following organelles is involved in digestion of phagocytized cells, old organelles, and self-destruction of old cells?
    Lysosomes
  79. A bacterium that has a tuft of flagella at one end of the cell would be said to have a _____ flagellar arrangement.
    Lophotrichous
  80. The cytoplasmic membrane _____.
    Is composed primarily of phospholipids and proteins.
  81. Which of the following molecules is NOT found in eukaryotic cell walls?
    Peptidoglycan
  82. Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to phospholipid bilayers?
    They contain three fatty acid chains.
  83. Which of the following is a true statement concerning flagella?
    Prokaryotic flagella rotate instead of whipping back and forth.
  84. _____ is the most abundant complex polysaccharide on Earth, found in the cell walls of both plants and green algae.
    Cellulose
  85. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
    Gram-negative cell walls have an inner and an outer peptidoglycan layer.
  86. Which of the following organelles is involved in the production and transport of proteins throughout the cell?
    Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  87. Which of the following is a true statement concerning bacterial cell walls?
    The periplasmic space of Gram-negative cells is found between the plasma membrane and the LPS layer.
  88. All of the following eukaryotic cellular structures contain tubulin microtubules EXCEPT:
    Chloroplasts
  89. Which of the following could easily cross the cytoplasmic membrane by simple diffusion?
    O2
  90. Water moves across a semipermeable membrane in a process called:
    Osmosis
  91. Non-membrane-bound reserve deposits of valuable nutrients found in many cells are called:
    Inclusions
  92. Movement of a bacterium away from a toxic chemical substance is called:
    Negative chemotaxis
  93. The glycocalyx of prokaryotic cells has all of the following functions EXCEPT:
    Bonds the cells together to form tissues
  94. Polypeptides are assembled by special subcellular structures called:
    ribosomes
  95. Plasmolysis, the shriveling of cells due to loss of water, occurs when cells are placed in what type of environment?
    Hypertonic
  96. Which of the following stains is most useful for identifying Mycobacterium?
    Acid-fast stain
  97. All of the following are examples of differential stains EXCEPT:
    Simple stain
  98. What is the primary purpose of heat-fixing a bacterial smear?
    It attaches cells firmly to the slide's surface.
  99. _____ staining techniques are characterized by the use of multiple dyes and a decolorizing step.
    Differential
  100. The scientist who provided evidence supporting the existence of three major "domains" of life, Eukarya, Bacteria and the Archaea, was:
    Woese
  101. The use of binomial nomenclature for the naming and classification of organisms was started by:
    Linnaeus
  102. Which type of classification scheme attempts to accurately group organisms on the basis of evolutionary lines of descent?
    Phylogenetic
  103. Which of the following scientists was responsible for developing a widely-used staining procedure?
    Gram
  104. In the Gram stain, the mordant is:
    Iodine
  105. In the Linnean classification system, the taxonomic group that lies between division and order is:
    Class
  106. The science of classifying and naming organisms is called:
    Taxonomy
  107. The designation E. coli O157:H7 is a result of which type of microbial identification process?
    Serology
  108. Methylene blue is a basic dye. This means that the chromophore responsible for the blue color is a(n):
    Cation
  109. Which of the following is a true statement concerning basic dyes?
    Basic dyes are attracted to the negatively-charged components of cells.
  110. _____ staining involves applying a dye in such a way that the feature-of-interest is left unstained, while other surrounding structures are stained.
    Negative
  111. The Gram positive cell envelope differs from the Gram negative cell envelope in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
    Only Gram positive cell walls contain peptidoglycan.
  112. Which of the following microbial identification procedures relies on antigen-antibody reactions?
    Serology
  113. In the Gram stain, iodine serves as the:
    Mordant
  114. In the Gram stain, _____ is the most critical step because it creates the visible difference between Gram positive and Gram negative cells.
    Application of the decolorizer.
  115. Which of the following is NOT a domain proposed by Carl Woese?
    Protista
  116. Which of the following enzymes might be expected to catalyze the transfer of electrons between two molecules?
    Oxidoreductase
  117. In eukaryotic cells, all of the following processes occur in the mitochondrion EXCEPT:
    Glycolysis
  118. Which of the following molecules serves as the short-term recyclable energy supply for a cell?
    ATP
  119. In a cell which performs aerobic cellular respiration, most of the ATP is made by which of the following processes?
    Electron transport chain (chemiosmosis)
  120. The highest ATP yield from oxidation of a glucose molecule is obtained by:
    Aerobic cellular respiration
  121. An electron transport chain is NEVER associated with:
    Fermentation
  122. The type of fermentation that is detectable by a Vogues-Proskauer (VP) test because it involves a unique intermediate metabolite called acetoin is:
    2,3-Butanediol fermentation
  123. Which of the following can have a significant impact on the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
    All of the above can substantially impact enzyme activity.
  124. Which of the following is temporarily formed during an enzymatic reaction?
    Enzyme-substrate complex
  125. The enzyme ATP synthase plays an important role in:
    Oxidative phosphorylation
  126. Many vitamins are important for metabolism because they act as _____.
    Cofactors.
  127. A redox couple with a large positive standard reduction potential would most likely by the ____ species in a redox reaction.
    Reduced
  128. What is the major function of fermentation?
    The regeneration of NADH+ for glycolysis
  129. All of the following are electron carrier molecules that are important for cellular redox reactions EXCEPT:
    TCA
  130. The theoretical total ATP yield from the oxidation of one glucose molecule via aerobic cellular respiration in a prokaryotic cell is:
    38 ATP
  131. All of the following are byproducts of fermentation EXCEPT:
    Pyruvic acid
  132. The temporary or permanent disruption of a protein's three-dimensional structure is called _____.
    Denaturation
  133. All of the following are associated with the process of glycolysis EXCEPT:
    Production of NADPH
  134. The endogenous electron acceptor utilized for fermentation is:
    Pyruvate
  135. What is activation energy?
    The free energy of the transition state associated with a chemical reaction.
  136. A noncompetitive inhibitor reduces enzyme activity by:
    Binding at an allosteric site.
  137. Electron transport is responsible for how many of the 38 molecules of ATP produced during cellular respiration in bacteria?
    34
  138. A cell uses which process to create a proton gradient?
    Electron transport
  139. What are catabolic reactions?
    Chemical reactions that break large molecules apart
  140. During glycolysis and the Kreb's cycle, ATP is produced via:
    Substrate-level phosphorylation
  141. All of the following are true statements concerning types of media EXCEPT:
    Media can be either selective or differential, but not both.
  142. All of the following are direct methods of measuring microbial growth EXCEPT:
    Turbidity
  143. Why do bacterial cultures go through lag phase?
    Because they are synthesizing new enzymes in order to use nutrients in their medium.
  144. By definition, lithotrophs obtain:
    Electrons from an inorganic source.
  145. All of the following are associated with the quadrant streak method of isolation EXCEPT:
    Colonies growing below the surface of the medium.
  146. Which of the following is NOT a macronutrient?
    Mn
  147. The enzyme catalase is responsible for chemical detoxification by converting _____ to harmless by products.
    Hydrogen peroxide
  148. A microbe isolated from deep in the ocean would most likely by characterized as a(n) _____.
    Both A and C are correct.
  149. A bacterium that utilizes aerobic respiration in the presence of oxygen and anaerobic respiration in the absence of oxygen would be classified as a(n):
    Aerobe
  150. The ecological relationship between mycobacterium tuberculosis and humans would be correctly classified as a form of:
    Parasitism
  151. A growth medium designed to support the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of others would be correctly classified as:
    Selective
  152. The term "quorum sensing" is used to describe the way in which microbes:
    Communicate via chemical signals
  153. Which of the following elements is often growth limiting for organisms because of its limited availability?
    Nitrogen
  154. Organic molecules that organisms need, but cannot synthesize all by themselves, are called _____.
    Growth factors
  155. _____ is statistically-based method for the enumeration of bacterial population which involves inoculation of multiple broths from each tube in a dilution series.
    MPN
  156. A bacterium that normally colonizes the human GI tract would most likely by a(n):
    Mesophile
  157. Why is agar a useful substance in the microbiology lab?
    Agar does not solidify until it cools to about 40C
  158. A cell which uses an inorganic carbon source and obtains energy from chemical sources would be called a(n):
    Chemoautotroph
  159. Organized collections of bacteria and exopolymers that firmly attach to surfaces are called:
    Biofilms
  160. These microbes never have an aerobic respiratory metabolism, but they can detoxify oxygen enough to live in its presence.
    Aerotolerant anaerobes
  161. Which of the following preservation methods might you use if you wanted to preserve a culture of microbes for fifty years?
    Lyophilization
  162. Which of the following pH levels would probably by lethal to an acidophile?
    pH 10
  163. All of the following statements concerning the bacterial growth curve are true EXCEPT:
    When death phase is reached, all cells in the culture die simultaneously.
  164. Which of the following devices would be required in order to perform a direct microscopic count of a bacterial culture?
    Haemocytometer
  165. Which of the following devices can be used to automatically sort bacterial cells while counting them?
    Flow cytometer
  166. All of the following are tRNA binding sites on the small subunit of the ribosome EXCEPT:
    the S site
  167. All of the following are characteristics of RNA polymerase EXCEPT:
    Proofreads
  168. In the lac operon E. coli, the promoter region is:
    the site where CAP binds.
  169. Bacteria are:
    Monoploid
  170. "Rolling circle" replication is involved in the duplication of:
    Plasmids
  171. Which of the following functions would most likely be associated with genes carried on a plasmid?
    Antibiotic resistance
  172. Codons are found in which of the following?
    Messenger RNA
  173. _____ demonstrated that DNA was the molecule responsible for the phenomenon of transformation observed by Griffith in his experiments with Streptococcus pneumonia.
    Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
  174. All of the following are functions of RNA EXCEPT:
    Serves as the genome of some bacteria
  175. Which of the following is NOT one of the universal "stop" codons?
    GAU
  176. All of the following are true statements concerning the structure of DNA EXCEPT:
    DNA contains the nitrogenous bases A, C, G, and U.
  177. Which of the following is a function of DNA polymerase I during replication?
    Removal of RNA primers.
  178. Transcription of a prokaryotic operon results in _____ mRNA.
    Polycistronic
  179. _____ produced x-ray crystallography images which contributed greatly to Watson and Crick's success at determining the structure of DNA.
    Franklin
  180. All of the following are associated with the genetic material of bacteria EXCEPT:
    Surrounded by a membrane
  181. The site on a chromosome where replication is initiated:
    Ori
  182. All of the following are possible basepair combinations in nucleic acids EXCEPT:
    C-T
  183. Plasmids are transferred between bacteria during the process of:
    Conjugation
  184. During translation, the next incoming tRNA is bound at the ribosome's _____ site.
    A
  185. All of the following are components of a nucleotide EXCEPT:
    An amino group
  186. All of the following are true statements concerning ribosomes EXCEPT:
    Prokaryotes and eukaryotes have identical ribosomes.
  187. All of the following are true statements concerning the replication of DNA EXCEPT:
    DNA primers are replaced with RNA.
  188. All of the following are characteristics of genetic code EXCEPT:
    More than one amino acid is associated with each codon.
  189. All of the following are associated with the process of DNA replication EXCEPT:
    Sigma factors
  190. Which of the following types of mutations is usually the most serious?
    Frameshift
  191. Which of the following techniques might be utilized to study global changes in gene expression that occur when a stimulus is applied to an organism?
    Microarray
  192. The DNA polymerase from which of the following microbes is most commonly used in PCR?
    Thermus aquaticus
  193. What is a mutagen?
    A chemical or physical agent that can alter DNA.
  194. Treatment of a disease by replacing missing or defective genes with normal copies is called _____.
    Gene therapy.
  195. Which of the following is an example of xenotransplantation?
    Implanting pig heart valves into a human heart.
  196. Which of the following describes the role of reverse transcriptase?
    Creates a DNA copy of an RNA molecule.
  197. All of the following are associated with probes EXCEPT:
    Electroporation.
  198. All of the following are present in cDNA molecules EXCEPT:
    Introns
  199. Eukaryotic genes contain non-coding sequences that must be removed from pre-messenger RNA before if can be translated. These non-coding sequences are called _____.
    Introns
  200. The technique most often used to create competent Gram-negative cells for transformation with a plasmid vector is:
    Electroporation
  201. All of the following are criteria by which molecules can be separated using electrophoresis EXCEPT:
    nucleotide sequence
  202. Bi-toxin is associated with which of the following agricultural applications of recombinant DNA technology?
    Pest resistance
  203. _____ was awarded the Nobel Prize for inventing the PCR process.
    Kary Mullis
  204. All of the following are characteristics of restriction enzymes EXCEPT:
    They are found in all cells.
  205. Reverse transcriptase produces which of the following?
    cDNA
  206. What are plasmids?
    Small, circular DNA molecules found in bacteria
  207. All of the following are applications of recombinant DNA technology EXCEPT:
    Using bacteria to detect the presence of carcinogens.
  208. All of the following could potentially be utilized as vectors EXCEPT:
    Primers
  209. What does DNA ligase do?
    It seals breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbones of DNA molecules.
  210. Which of the following is an example of a plant that has been genetically modified to possess herbicide resistance?
    "Roundup-ready" soybeans
  211. All of the following are true statements concerning electrophoresis EXCEPT:
    DNA molecules move through the gel towards the negative electrode.
  212. A technique that uses fluorescent or radioactive probes to detect DNA sequences bonded to a nitrocellulose membrane is called _____.
    Southern blotting.
  213. ddNTPs are associated with:
    DNA sequencing
  214. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in a PCR cycle?
    Denaturation, Priming, Extension
  215. Which of the following is a fluorescent chemical used to make bands of DNA visible following electrophoresis?
    Ethidium bromide
  216. _____ degrades mRNAs with sequences complementary to a bound siRNA.
    RISC
  217. What is the function of the enzyme"dicer"?
    It cuts RNA with hairpin loops into small RNAs.
  218. The effect small RNAs have on development was first discovered in ____.
    the nematode, Caenorhabditis elegans.
  219. What is the approximate length of the RNA sequences that produce RNA interference?
    20-28 nucleotides
  220. Small RNAs may act as key regulators of ____.
    all of the above.
Author
jamilovesu
ID
319581
Card Set
Microbiology final
Description
Microbiology Final Enis
Updated