Hello I'm ROZ

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  1. The primary goal of infection control when handling and disinfecting impressions, dentures, and appliances is to:
    A. protect the patient from the laboratory personnel
    B. protect the laboratory personnel from the patient
    C. prevent contamination of the equipment in the dental laboratory
    D. prevent cross contamination
    D. prevent cross contamination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The term used for the setting of hydrocolloid impression materials is:
    FILL IN
  3. (T/F) Direct restorative materials are fabricated in the dental lab.
    False
  4. Air incorporated into a gypsum mix results in:
    Surface inaccuracies
  5. Why is a dental stone vibrated after mixing?
    A. the vibration makes the mixture more dense by removing any trapped air pockets
    B. the vibration halts the reaction and allows extended pouring times
    C. the vibration shakes up any remaining particles
    D. the mixing is not uniform and vibration completes the mixing
    A. the vibration makes the mixture more dense by removing any trapped air pockets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The Brinell and Knoop tests are used in determining:
    Hardness
  7. Model plaster is:
    A. type II gypsum
    B. type I gypsum
    C. type IV gypsum
    D. type III gypsum
    A. type II gypsum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What is another name for a dental material's stiffness?
    Modulous of elasticity
  9. For most dental materials that include water in the composition, the onset of setting is signified by:
    A. maximum reaction heat generation
    B. loss of gloss
    C. change in color
    D. change in translucency
    B. loss of gloss
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. When an agar impression slightly contracts and exudes water, it is termed:
    A. syneresis
    B. gelation
    C. hysteresis
    D. imbibition
    A. syneresis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following materials undergoes imbibition?
    A. dental wax
    B. alginate impression material
    C. dental cements
    D. dental amalgam
    B. alginate impression material
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Immediately after an impression is taken, it must be rinsed under running water to remove saliva or blood. This step is essential before the impression can be disinfected.
    Both statements are true.
  13. Agar-agar transforms from a fluid paste to a rubber like solution by a (blank) process.
    a. chemical
    b. physical
    b. physical
  14. Which of the following is NOT a flexible impression material?
    A. polyvinyl siloxane
    B. ZOE
    C. condensation silicone
    D. polysulfide
    E. polyether
    B. ZOE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. An increase in the temperature of the water used in mixing irreversible hydrocolloids will:
    shorten time to set
  16. The chief difference between model plaster powder and dental stone powder is:
    A. shelf life
    B. chemical formula
    C. solubility in water
    D. particle size and shape
    D. particle size and shape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Coefficient of thermal expansion is:
    A. amount of material that dissolved in a given amount of liquid in a given amount of time
    B. rate of heat flow through a material
    C. a change in dimension or shape of a material due to stress
    D. measurement of change in volume in relation to change in temperature
    D. measurement of change in volume in relation to change in temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of these non-aqueous impression materials is most commonly used today?
    A. silicon rubber
    B. polysulfide rubber
    C. polyether rubber
    D. polyvinyl siloxane
    D. polyvinyl siloxane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What is the chemical composition of set gypsum products?
    A. calcium sulfate monohydrate
    B. calcium sulfate hemihydrate
    C. calcium sulfate dihydrate
    D. calcium sulfate trihydrate
    E. calcium sulfate unhydrate
    C. calcium sulfate dihydrate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. (T/F) A liquid with high viscosity has a good wetting ability.
    False.
  21. (T/F) Another name for a dental bridge is a fixed partial denture.
    True
  22. Glass ionomers are popular because they:
    a. release fluoride
    b. have adhesive properties
    c. can be used under posterior composite restorations
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above
    d. all of the above
  23. (T/F) When fabricating ceramic restorations, sintering changes the porcelain powder into a solid.
    True
  24. (T/F) Non-precious alloys with high melting temperatures are nickel and silver.
    False
  25. (T/F) When classifying casting alloys according to the ADA, the differences are predominantly strength and elongation.
    True
  26. (T/F) An abutment (retainer) is the portion of a fixed bridge that replaces the missing tooth.
    False
  27. (T/F) Precious metals are classified based on cost.
    True
  28. One disadvantage of dental porcelain restorations is:
    A. matching tooth color
    B. radioactivity
    C. expansion
    D. brittleness
    D. brittleness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The difference between an inlay and an onlay is that:
    A. an inlay is made of silver; an only is made of gold
    B. an inlay should not exceed one-half the intercuspal distance, while an onlay covers the cusps
    C. there is no difference between an inlay and an onlay
    D. an onlay should not exceed one-half the intercuspal distance, while an inlay covers the cusps
    B. an inlay should not exceed one-half the intercuspal distance, while an onlay covers the cusps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which of the following is true concerning the first application of dental porcelain to a porcelain fused to metal crown?
    A. the first layer is called "opaque" and effectively covers the metallic sheen of the underlying casting
    B. the first layer is called "glaze" and provides reduction of surface oxides on the metal casting
    C. the first layer is called "incisal" and provides a stable substrate for additional layers
    D. the first layer is called "body" and is very translucent
    A. the first layer is called "opaque" and effectively covers the metallic sheen of the underlying casting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. The casting process requires:
    A. a mold space into which the molten metal flows
    B. a and c only
    C. a, b, and c only
    D. a refractory material that expands to compensate for the shrinkage of the metal upon cooling
    E. creating a wax pattern
    C. a, b, and c only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following groups of metallic elements would be called precious or noble for their ability to resist corrosion?
    A. gold, silver, and platinum
    B. silver, copper, and mercury
    C. silver, gold, and annealed copper-ruthenium
    D. copper, palladium, and silver
    A. gold, silver, and platinum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a gold alloy for indirect restorations?
    A. poor biocompatibility
    B. high strength and durability
    C. susceptibility to corrosion and tarnish
    D. lack of esthetic qualities
    D. lack of esthetic qualities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The purpose of a temporary crown is:
    a. esthetics
    b. protection
    c. maintaining space
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  35. Which of the following materials is not used for indirect restorations?
    A. composite materials
    B. amalgam alloys
    C. gold alloys
    D. ceramic materials
    B. amalgam alloys
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. An alloy that is 50% gold by weight is what caratage?
    A. 12
    B. 18
    C. 8
    D. 6
    E. 24
    A. 12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. In casting a restoration for a patient, the proper sequence of events is:
    A. polish, wax, invest, burn out, cast
    B. wax, invest, burn out, cast, polish
    C. wax, burn out, invest, cast, polish
    D. cast, wax, polish, invest, burn out
    B. wax, invest, burn out, cast, polish
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. An alloy that is 25% gold by weight is what caratage?
    A. 10 carat
    B. 25 carat
    C. 12 carat
    D. 6 carat
    D. 6 carat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Another name for a 3 unit dental bridge with two consecutive abutments and a pontic is (abutment #28, abutment #29, pontic #30):
    A. fixed partial denture
    B. cantilever bridge
    C. removable partial
    D. single span dental appliance
    B. cantilever bridge
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. An indirect restoration used when a cusp is in need of replacement but a full crown is not indicated is a/an:
    A. veneer
    B. only
    C. inlay
    D. jacket
    B. only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. What population(s) benefit from the ART technique?
    A. elderly
    B. children
    C. special needs patients
    D. low-income patients with no access to a traditional dental office
    E. all choices are correct
    E. all choices are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. An example of an indirect restorative material is:
    A. composite restoration
    B. glass ionomer restoration
    C. amalgam restoration
    D. gold inlay
    D. gold inlay
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Originally in dentistry, what did ART stand for?
    A. Always Restore Teeth
    B. Atraumatic Restorative Technique
    C. Atraumatic Revival of Teeth
    B. Atraumatic Restorative Technique
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. What is/are the benefit(s) of the ART technique?
    A. hand instruments are used
    B. simple technique to scoop out the decay
    C. local anesthetic is not necessary
    D. affordable way to provide dental care
    E. all answers are correct
    E. all answers are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Newer types of composite materials are radiographically easier to distinguished from older type composites due to the fact that the newer composite materials:
    A. have improved compressive strength
    B. have improved stress and strain capabilities
    C. have improved elastic properties
    D. contain radiopaque filler particles
    D. contain radiopaque filler particles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. The size of the filler particles in a dental composite determines the:
    A. polymerization reaction
    B. surface smoothness of the resulting restoration
    C. technique for incremental additions
    D. etching time before the primer and adhesive are placed
    B. surface smoothness of the resulting restoration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. The specific amount of composite (thickness) that us cured by a light source is termed:
    A. incremental polymerization
    B. incremental addition
    C. addition polymerization
    D. depth of cure
    E. depth of addition
    D. depth of cure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which type of abrasive looks like a grayish-black sand and sometimes called "corundum"?
    A. Emery
    B. Black sand
    C. Aluminum oxide
    D. Silex
    E. Garnet
    A. Emery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Which type of abrasive is produced from volcanoes and is used in the laboratory to finish acrylic denture bases and on restorative materials, such as gold, amalgam, and gold foil?
    A. Garnet
    B. corundum
    C. Silex
    D. calcium carbonate
    E. Cuttle
    d. pumice
    g. aluminum oxide
    h. sand
    D. pumice
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which abrasive is also known as calcium carbonate?
    A. Silex
    B. Whiting
    C. Tin oxide
    D. Cuttle
    E. Pumice
    B. Whiting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Which of the following factors affect the rate of abrasion?
    a. Pressure
    b. Lubrication
    c. Speed
    d. Grit
    e. Size of the prophy cup
    f. Color of the polishing paste
    g. all of the above
    h. a, b, c, and e only
    i. a, b, d, and f only
    j. a, b, c, and d only
    j. a, b, c, and d only
  52. (T/F) Carbon steel burs are made by packing powdered metal pieces into a mold and then sintering. They are harder than tungsten carbide burs and retain a sharper cutting edge longer than those made of tungsten carbide.
    False
  53. (T/F) The process of producing the final shape and contour of a restoration is called cutting.
    False
  54. APF (acidulated phosphate fluoride) is not recommended for the following dental materials:
    A. composite and glass ionomer only
    B. glass ionomer, composites, and porcelain
    C. gold, composite, and porcelain
    D. composite and porcelain restorations
    B. glass ionomer, composites, and porcelain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The margins of a cast restorations can be altered by instrumentation with curettes, scalers, and explorers. A suggested technique for deposit removal in these areas is to use:
    A. a vertical stroke, but only with anterior instruments
    B. a vertical stroke, as used on nature tooth structure
    C. an oblique or horizontal stroke, with appropriate instruments
    D. only ultrasonic scalers
    C. an oblique or horizontal stroke, with appropriate instruments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. What are the polishing agents of choice for polishing a gold crown intraorally?
    a. coarse prophy paste
    b. green stones
    c. white stones
    d. tin oxide
    e. silex
    f. any of the above
    g. b, d, and e
    h. d only
    i. d and e only
    i. d and e only
  57. Tarnish is:
    A. caused by a corrosive attack that produces a film or surface later on a metal and may protect the metal and prevent corrosion
    B. caused by insufficient drying after ultrasonic cleaning
    C. caused by a wet environment
    D. caused when two dissimilar metal touch each other
    A. caused by a corrosive attack that produces a film or surface later on a metal and may protect the metal and prevent corrosion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Which of the following sterilizers is the most effective for destroying pathogenic organisms or vegetative forms?
    A. steal autoclave
    B. unsaturated chemical vapor
    C. dry heat
    D. cold sterile chemical solutions
    A. steal autoclave
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The main components of stainless steel alloy are:
    A. iron, aluminum, and nickel
    B. chromium, iron, and nickel
    C. carbon steel, tin, and nickel
    D. tin, chromium, and nickel
    E. iron, silver, and nickel
    B. chromium, iron, and nickel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. The standard protocol for stream autoclaving (not rapid steam heat) is:
    A. 350 degrees F and 27 psi for at least 6 minutes
    B. 320 degrees F for 2 hours
    C. 270 degrees F and 20-40 psi for at least 30 mins
    D. 270 degrees F and 27 psi for at least 15 minutes
    D. 270 degrees F and 27 psi for at least 15 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. (T/F) Electropolishing is a chemical process that creates a thin layer of chromium oxide on the surface of an instrument, thus protecting that metal from corroding.
    False
  62. A successfully etched enamel surface has a (blank) appearance.
    A. ground glass
    B. frosty, chalky white
    C. translucent
    D. shiny
    B. frosty, chalky white
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. In sealant placement, etching functions to do which of the following?
    A. produce micropores in the enamel surface
    B. increase surface tension
    C. produce a hard, lustrous surface
    D. expose a more porous dentin
    A. produce micropores in the enamel surface
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. The major factor in the failure of a pit and fissure sealant is:
    A. etching for longer than the recommended time
    B. omission of a post-application fluoride treatment
    C. salivary contamination of the etched surface
    D. insufficient rinsing after the resin hardens
    C. salivary contamination of the etched surface
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. The expected life of a sealant is:
    A. ten to fifteen years
    B. one to three months
    C. three to five years
    D. depends on the patient's age
    C. three to five years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. When mixing cements, the powder to liquid ratio depends on the:
    A. a, b, and c
    B. mixing techniques used
    C. intended use
    D. manufacturer's instructions
    E. a and b
    E. a and b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Zinc oxide eugenol cement is used for a:
    A. b and c
    B. base under composite restorations
    C. cement for temporary crowns
    D. sedative base
    e. all of the above
    A. b and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. To protect the pulp in a tooth with a tiny pulp exposure, which of the following materials is mixed and placed in the cavity preparation first?
    A. calcium hydroxide
    B. zinc phosphate
    C. copal varnish
    D. miracle mix
    E. ZOE
    A. calcium hydroxide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Which of the following statements is false regarding bases and liners?
    A. a liner is relatively thin in comparison to a base
    B. a base is stronger and thicker than a liner
    C. a liner does not provide the same strength and thermal insulation as a base
    D. a liner provides good thermal insulation
    D. a liner provides good thermal insulation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Which of the following is NOT indicated for final cementation for luting of indirect restorations?
    A. glass ionomer cement
    B. calcium hydroxide cement
    C. zinc phosphate cement
    B. calcium hydroxide cement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Glass ionomers are popular because they:
    a. release fluoride
    b. have true adhesive properties
    c. can be used under posterior composite restorations
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  72. Cement liners are:
    A. used frequently today
    B. a and c
    C. provide adequate thermal insulation
    D. used to protect the pulp from chemical irritation
    e. all of the above
    D. used to protect the pulp from chemical irritation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. What solution should be used to clean the ZOE and other dental cements?
    A. oleic acid
    B. orange solvent
    C. water
    B. orange solvent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Zinc phosphate may be used as a:
    1. luting agent for permanent cementation of a full gold crown
    2. high strength base under a restoration
    3. cavity liner
    4. temporary restoration

    A. 1 and 3
    B. 1 and 2
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    d. all of the above
    B. 1 and 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Dental cements are used for:
    a. luting agents
    b. pulp protection
    c. temporary restorations
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  76. When used as a base, zinc phosphate's greatest physical characteristics is its:
    A. compressive strength
    B. pH
    C. adhesive qualities
    D. solubility
    A. compressive strength
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. A glass slab should be cooled when mixing zinc phosphate cement to:
    A. maintain free zinc oxide in the set cement
    B. maintain the proper acid-water ratio
    C. increase the powder-liquid ratio
    D. accelerate the setting time
    C. increase the powder-liquid ratio
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Which of the following dental materials promotes the formation of secondary dentin?
    A. silicate cements
    B. composite cements
    C. temporary cements
    D. calcium hydroxide cement
    D. calcium hydroxide cement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. The liquid component of polycarboxylate cement is:
    A. phosphoric acid
    B. eugenol
    C. polyacrylic acid
    C. polyacrylic acid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Which one of the following cements will produce an exothermic reaction upon mixing?
    A. composite cements
    B. calcium hydroxide cement
    C. glass ionomer cement
    D. polycarboxylate cement
    E. zinc phosphate cement
    E. zinc phosphate cement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. (T/F) Glass ionomer cements are the strongest and least soluble of dental cements.
    True
  82. (T/F) Glass ionomers can be used as a luting agent only.
    False
  83. A bite registration is used to record a patient's bite pattern. It is also used to position upper and lower casts in the same relationship as the supporting tissue.
    Both statements are true
  84. Tissue conditions are temporary materials because they:
    A. are too expensive for permanent use
    B. are always irritating to tissues
    C. are not color stable over time
    D. deteriorate quickly
    D. deteriorate quickly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. The activator in the liquid component of the materials necessary to fabricate a denture is a tertiary amine. This activator is only present in cold cure components.
    Both statements are true.
  86. Which of the following should not be used to clean a cast partial denture?
    A. soap and warm water
    B. toothpaste
    C. bleach
    D. mouthwash
    C. bleach
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Most denture teeth used today are acrylic rather than porcelain. Porcelain teeth are softer than acrylic teeth and do not cause excessive wear on natural opposing teeth.
    The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
  88. The principle advantage of ZOE cement over zinc phosphate cement is its:
    A. low intraoral solubility
    B. high mechanical strength
    C. obtundant effect on the pulp
    D. chemical reactivity with dentin
    C. obtundant effect on the pulp
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Mandibular dentures are easier to wear than maxillary. Saliva helps to improve the suction needed to hold a denture in place.
    Both statements are true
  90. Heat activated acrylic resin systems are very similar to chemically activated systems. The major difference (or exception) is:
    A. more inhibitor is present in the liquid of heat activated systems
    B. heat activated systems have much less strength than chemically activated systems
    C. no chemical activator is present in the liquid of heat activated systems
    D. chemical activator is present in the liquid of heat activated systems
    B. heat activated systems have much less strength than chemically activated systems
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. To repair a broken denture, a thin layer is ground off. Next, monomer is applied to the surfaces so that:
    A. the finishing and polishing of the repair is made easier
    B. the setting reaction of the repair is accelerated
    C. the color of the resin powder does not change
    D. some of the set material is dissolved
    A. the finishing and polishing of the repair is made easier
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. (T/F) Cold cure denture relines are just as strong as lab relined dentures.
    False
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Hello I'm ROZ
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