Granddaddy has a gold lateral

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a potential side effect of epinephrine?



    A. bronchial constriction
  2. All of the following are features of the IV route of administration EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?



    B. is the safest route
  3. Drugs placed within the sulcular area are administered how?
    a. parenterally
    b. enterally
    a. parenterally
  4. Which of the following side effects is the most commonly occurring ADE?



    B. GI disturbances
  5. Tachyphylaxis is a condition related to



    B. tolerance
  6. Which of the following actions occurs when a drug stimulates beta-1 receptors?



    D. increased heart rate
  7. Amphetamine is used therapeutically in which of the following conditions?



    D. narcolepsy
  8. A recall patient returns after receiving radiotherapy for cancer of the head and neck. The hygienist identifies that the patient has salivary gland hypofunction in the form of xerostomia. The drug that may be prescribed for this condition is:



    B. pilocarpine (Salagen)
  9. Which of the following drug characteristics will increase the tendency of a drug to cross cell membranes?



    D.  nonionized and high lipid solubility
  10. Drugs in Pregnancy Category X are considered to be:
    teratogens
  11. (T/F) A patient is described as hyporeactive when a drug produces a therapeutic effect at a dose lower than normal.
    False
  12. Which of the following terms describes the actions of a tablet on the body after ingestion and absorption?



    A. pharmacodynamics
  13. When managing an acute attack of angina during the dental appointment, which of the following routes of administration is preferred?


    C. sublingual administration of a drug
  14. Which of the following is an undesirable effect produced by a drug that has a predictable response and is dose related?



    D. adverse effect
  15. (T/F) Selective beta blockers produce fewer side effects than nonselective beta blockers.
    True
  16. The official name of a drug is the (blank) name.
    generic
  17. When two drugs are taken at the same time and drug A has a greater affinity for the albumin receptors, what effect will this have on drug B effects?



    C. Drug B will have increased therapeutic and adverse effects
  18. Which one of the following reduces the rate of drug absorption?


    A. taking a drug following a meal
  19. (T/F) Cholinergic drugs cause a parasympathetic effect.
    True
  20. Which of the following receptors cause bronchodilation?


    A. Beta-2
  21. Before dental hygiene therapy, which of the following should be given to a client with a history of infective endocarditis who allergic to penicillin?



    D. clindamycin
  22. Which of the following conditions is a potential ADE most associated with cancer chemotherapy?



    B. mucositis
  23. Which of the antidepressant agents can interact with vasoconstrictors in local anesthetics?



    B. amitriptyline
  24. All of the following are effects of benzodiazepines EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?



    B. blockage of GABA receptors in CNS
  25. Which of the following analgesics has the least likelihood to interact with warfarin (Coumadin) to prolong bleeding?




    B. Tylenol
  26. When warfarin is taken, which of the following lab tests and values is safe for periodontal debridement (according to LCC policies and procedures)?
    INR less than 3
  27. Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of



    D. nifedipine (Procardia)
  28. Hepatotoxicity is associated frequently with overdoses of which of the following drugs?



    C. acetaminophen
  29. Orally administered drugs must pass through the liver (via the hepatic portal vein) prior to reaching general circulation and site of action. This is referred to as:
    First-pass metabolism
  30. A patient taking digitalis probably has which condition?


    C. congestive heart failure
  31. A dry cough is associated with which of the following drugs?



    C. ramipril (Altace)
  32. Persons who have chronic constipation should be given which of the following drugs with caution?




    B. codeine
  33. All of the following are in the serotonin reuptake inhibitor drug class EXCEPT one. Which is the exception?



    B. tranylcypromine (Pamate)
  34. Which of the following benzodiazepines is best for children?



    B. midazolam (Versed)
  35. (T/F) Aspirin reversibly binds to platelets and interferes with the production of thromboxane A2, a substance that stimulates platelet aggregation.
    False
  36. The prototype thiazide diuretic is:
    • HCTZ
    • (hydrochlorothiazide)
  37. Dysgeusia is:
    Reduced taste sensation
  38. (T/F) Use of epinephrine is an absolute contraindication in patients taking a nonselective beta-blocker such as propranolol.
    False
  39. Tonic-clonic seizure disorder is commonly treated with which of the following drugs?



    D. phenytoin
  40. Which of the following antibiotics are bactericidal?


    A. metrondiazole
  41. Agents such as albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin)cause bronchodilation by binding to what receptors?
    Beta 2
  42. (T/F) Use of epinephrine is an absolute contraindication in patients taking a non-selective beta-blocker such as propranolol.
    False
  43. Benzodiazepines are categorized in which schedule on the Controlled Substances Chart?
    Schedule IV
  44. The cause of death from overdose of any central nervous system depressant is usually



    C. respiratory failure
  45. Which of the following drug classes is indicated for the management of schizophrenia?



    D. antipsychotics
  46. Application of a transdermal patch is an example of parenteral administration because the drug is delivered in a manner that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract.
    Both statements are true.
  47. Use of nitrous oxide/oxygen conscious sedation is contraindicated in patients with



    C. inner ear infection
  48. The drug of choice for immediate treatment of anaphylactic reaction in the dental office is



    A. epinephrine
  49. One reason epi is combined with a local anesthetic is



    D. to increase the duration of action of the anesthetic
  50. If a patient develops tolerance to a drug, that means



    B. he has developed a need for an increase in dosage to produce the usual effect of the drug
  51. Which of the following local anesthetics can be administered intravenously to treat cardiac arrhythmias?



    C. lidocaine
  52. Psuedomembranous colitis is a severe gastrointestinal problem most associated with which of the following drugs?



    B. clindamycin
  53. Nitroglycerine is used for what cardiovascular disease?



    A. angina pectoris
  54. Lithium is the drug of choice for the treatment of which of the following conditions?



    D. mania, with or without depression
  55. Schizophrenia is treated with drugs in which of the following classes?



    B. phenothiazides
  56. Which of the following drugs facilitates the removal of viscous mucus from the respiratory tract?


    A. guaifenesin
  57. A patient has a cardiovascular disorder for which a physician prescribes a local anesthetic drug, lidocaine. What might this cardiovascular disorder be?



    C. arrythmia
  58. All of the following effects are reduced by first generation H1 receptor antagonists EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
    a. nasal itching
    b. sedation
    c. watery eyes
    d. sneezing
    b. sedation
  59. A patient having a history of which of the following may require antibiotic premedication before subgingival instrumentation?



    C. prosthetic cardiac valves
  60. Which of the following classifications of drugs is known for the adverse effect of nonproductive, persistent cough?



    B. ACE inhibitors
  61. (T/F) The therapeutic index of benzodiazepines is wider than that of the barbiturates.
    True
  62. What is the best way to identify blood pressure side effects for a drug?


    C. evaluate vital signs
  63. The hypothyroid individual who demonstrates increased blood pressure, sweating, and nervousness is most likely experiencing:


    C. excessive doses of thyroid hormone
  64. When a tetracycline is prescribed, which one of the following GI drugs is contraindicated?



    A. antacids
  65. Which of the following drugs is an antihistamine?



    C. cimetidine
  66. One reason epinephrine is combined with a local anesthetic is:



    B. to increase the duration of action of the anesthetic
  67. In dentistry, all of the following are indications for the use of systemic antibiotics except which one?



    C. gingivitis
  68. When a local anesthetic containing epinephrine is mistakenly injected into a blood vessel, the patient could demonstrate:



    B. an increase in pulse rate
  69. Which drugs reduces vitamin K coagulation factors?



    A. wardarin (Coumadin)
  70. Which of the following actions occur when a drug stimulates beta 1 receptors?



    C. increased heart rate
  71. (T/F) You have a very apprehensive pregnant patient in your chair for periodontal therapy. She asked to be premedicated for her anxiety. Valium is the drug of choice for this patient.
    False
  72. A serious ADE associated with use of a bisphosphonate is:



    B. osteonecrosis of the jaw
  73. An infection in an area can prevent the accumulation of effective concentrations of local anesthetic solution because of:



    C. low tissue pH
  74. All of the following agents are used to treat insomnia EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?



    A. levodopa (Sinemet)
  75. Which of the following patient instructions is appropriate when a benzodiazepine is prescribed?


    C. Do not drive yourself to the appointment
  76. What is the lowest TI (therapeutic index) for a drug to be considered safe?



    B. 10
  77. When selecting an effective antibiotic, all of the following are important EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?



    C. select agent with broadest spectrum of activity
  78. Which of the following drugs is an ACE inhibitor?



    C. enalapril
  79. All of the following conditions are indicated for antibiotic prophylaxis EXCEPT one. Which is the one EXCEPTION?




    B. Heart murmur with regurgitation
  80. All of the following effects are associated with mucositis EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?




    D. leukoplakia
  81. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of xerostomia in dental patients?




    B. pilocarpine
  82. Which of the following antibiotics may be combined with amoxicillin in the treatment of aggressive periodontitis?




    A. metronidazole
  83. A two-year old boy contracts an infection that requires antibiotic therapy. With this information alone, which of the following drugs would you NOT recommend?




    B. tetracylcine
  84. Which of the following terms describes how much of a drug will be available in the body to produce a pharmacologic response after it is administered?




    D. bioavailability
  85. All of the following are adverse drug effects that affect management of the dental appointment for a client who is receiving cancer chemotherapy EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?




    B. alopecia
  86. For which of the following periodontal patients are systemic antibiotics more likely to be indicated?




    A. the patient with localized aggressive periodontitis
  87. The adrenergic receptor responsible for bronchial dilation is?




    B. beta-2
  88. A drug with anticholinergic side effects might exhibit all of the following except




    C. salivation
  89. Which discipline is concerned with he rates of the rise and fall of drug concentration in the body?




    A. pharmacokinetics
  90. All of the following dental procedures should have antibiotic prophylaxis in selected patients who require premedication EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?




    C. local anesthetic injection
  91. Which of the following analgesics raises pain thresholds without impairing alertness or judgement?




    D. salicylates
  92. The drug of choice for most uncomplicated odontogenic infection is?




    C. Penn VK
  93. The most serious side effect of narcotic analgesics is due to their ability to 




    D. reduce respiratory function
  94. Inflammatory arthropathies can be treated with all of the following therapies EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?




    A. glucosamine and chondroitin
  95. Anti fungal agents used for oral infection act by




    C. binding to the sterols in the fungal cell membrane
  96. The analgesic does not possess any significant anti-inflammatory effect




    B. acetaminophen
  97. Which drug selectively inhibits the COX-2 isoform?




    C. celecoxib
  98. The primary pain neurotransmitter is?




    D. glutamate
Author
mckaylacarman
ID
319486
Card Set
Granddaddy has a gold lateral
Description
Pharm
Updated