1. Which of the following is a cord-like protein that helps to waterproof the skin?

    C. Keratin
  2. Which receptor is responsible for detecting light touch?

    C. Meissner's corpuscles
  3. Which is the receptor responsible for detecting deep pressure?

    D. Pacinian corpuscles
  4. What is an endangerment site on the posterior knee?

    D. Common Peroneal Nerve
  5. On which neck muscle do you use extra caution in massaging due to its close proximity to the carotid artery?

    D. Sternocleidomastoid
  6. Which muscle is located directly interior to the scapular spine?

    B. Infraspinatus
  7. In an injury to the acromioclavicular joint, which end of the clavicle is involved?

    D. Lateral
  8. If a client is experiencing pain in the inguinal region, which joint is most likely affected?

    A. Hip
  9. Which muscle group resists knee flexion?

    C. Quadriceps
  10. The kidneys lie in a retroperitoneal postion. What does that mean?

    C. Behind the abdominal peritoneum
  11. During exhalation, the diaphragm does what?

    C. Ascends
  12. What is an instantaneous, involuntary response to a stimulus, either inside or outside the body?

    C. Reflex
  13. Which lower leg muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion?

    A. Tibialis Anterior
  14. For a skeletal muscle to contract, what must happen first?

    C. Nerve must stimulate a nerve
  15. Of the following conditons, which one is NOT contagious?

    B. Psoriasis
  16. One of the most lethal types of Skin Cancer is

    B. Malignant Melanoma
  17. A Hinge joint is capable of making which of the following movements?

    D. Flexion & Extension
  18. Which joint moves in only one plane?

    C. Pivot
  19. What position shortens the muscles of the anterior neck?

    C. Flexion
  20. Muscles that can entrap the brachial nerve plexus are the:

    A. Scalene & Pectoralis Minor
  21. Which receptor measures the amount of tension produced at the musculotendinous junction and inhibits contraction.

    B. Golgi Tendon Organs
  22. Which of the following is NOT a member of the Hamstrings?

    D. Rectus Femoris
  23. Which muscle extends the elbow?

    D. Triceps Brachii
  24. Which hamstring muscle attaches to the Fibula?

    B. Biceps Femoris
  25. Which system's primary function is to support the nervous system in its regulation of bodily functions?

    C. Endocrine
  26. Pyloric sphincter allows transport of what substance?

    D. Chyme
  27. A client rotating his head is an example of which of the following?

    C. Active Range of Motion
  28. Which muscles are most likely involved in TMJ disorder?

    B. Masseter, Pterygoid, Temporalis
  29. Which are the cardinal signs of Inflammation?

    B. Pain, Swelling, Redness, Heat
  30. What heart chamber pumps blood to the lungs?

    B. Right Ventricle
  31. When massaging the Sartorius and Adductor Longus, the therapist needs to be careful of what structure?

    A. Femoral Artery
  32. What massage considerations are best utilized for a terminally ill client?

    C. Shorter treatments more frequently
  33. When you have a lateral sprain of the foot, what position was the foot in when injured?

    C. Eversion
  34. What is the universal sign of an obstructed airway?

    D. Hands over the throat
  35. Which muscle Inserts on the Olecranon process?

    C. Triceps Brachii
  36. What is an appropriate response if a client has an emotional release during treatment?

    C. Stop massaging, remain in the room, be supportive, obtain permission to continue.
  37. Circular effleurage applied on the abdomen in clockwise movments is helpful in what conditon?

    B. Constipation
  38. What is an example of a saddle joint?

    B. Carpometacarpal of the Thumb
  39. A client approaches you at a social function and asks about one of your client's progress with treatments. This conflicts directly with which code of ethics principle?

    D. Confidentiality
  40. During a technique requiring direct sustained pressure, the client complains of pain. What is the best approach?

    A. Lighten pressure, ask client to qualify the pain level, work within his or her tolerance
  41. Why should you avoid scented massage lubricants?

    B. Clients may have allergies or scent sensitivities
  42. Which should a therapist avoid when choosing a massage lubricant?

    A. Mineral oil-based lubricants
  43. If a client has pain in the acromial region, which joint is most likely invovled?

    C. Shoulder
  44. Movment toward the midline is known as which of the following?

    C. Adduction
  45. What affect does heat have on the body's Fascia?

    D. Softens and Distends
  46. If you come across an unconscious adult, what should you do first?

    A. Try to rouse the person to consciousness
  47. What percentage of income from bartered services is reportable to the Internal Revenue Services?

    C. 100%
  48. APIE and SOAP are examples of what?

    B. Client record keeping
  49. Which muscles are parts of the rotator cuff?

    A. Teres Minor, Subscapularis, Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus
  50. A therapist circumducting a client's shoulder is an example of which of the following?

    C. Passive range of motion
  51. A muscle is inhibited by contraction of its antagonist; this is an example of which of the following?

    B. Passive range of motion
  52. What is the Antagonist to the Pectoralis Major?

    A. Latissimus Dorsi
  53. What is the Antagonist to the Rhomboids?

    D. Serratus Anterior
  54. What is the Synergist to the Biceps Femoris?

    A. Peroneus Longus
  55. When calling Emergency Medical Service (EMS-911), always give them what two items of information?

    C. Location and condition of the victim
  56. If a client to fill out the intake form, what action should be taken?

    B. Request that the intake is done verbally
  57. To reduce physical strain when performing massage, the therapist should keep his or her knees slightly-

    C. Flexed
  58. A client's records can be released under these circumstances, EXCEPT by:

    D. Signed medical release form by client's spouse or family member
  59. During the intake, if your client states he or she is constipated, what is an appropriate treatment modification?

    B. Clockwise effleurage of the abdomen
  60. Crepitus can be detected by what means?

    D. Listening

    Crepitus-is a medical term to describe the grating, crackling or popping sounds and sensations experienced under the skin and joints.
  61. If you suspect that a client is intoxicated, what are appropriate treatment modifications?

    D. Use lighter pressure than you ordinarily would
  62. Which of the following is lymph derived?

    C. Interstitial Fluid
  63. The functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following EXCEPT?

    C. Air Diffusion
  64. Which structure lies between the stomach and the small instestines?

    D. Pyloric sphincter
  65. What muscle is synergist to the Iliopsoas?

    C. Rectus Femoris
  66. When working the Insertion of Psoas Major, on what structure should the therapist avoid applying direct pressure?

    A. Femoral Artery
  67. Body balance and voluntary muscle movement are controlled by which part of the brain?

    B. Cerebellum
  68. Which muscle spans two joints?

    A. Gastrocnemius
  69. Contraction of which muscle causes your knee to bend?

    B. Biceps Femoris
  70. You notice that a client has skin pallor. What does that mean?

    A. Lack of Color
  71. Contraction of which muscle causes your toes to point downward?

    B. Soleus
  72. Which muscle spans only one joint?

    D. Coracobrachialis
  73. Skeletal muscle movement occurs with which type of contraction?

    D. Isotonic
  74. What are the attachments of the Socratuberous Ligament?

    A. Sacrum to the Ischial Tuberosity
  75. Contraction of which muscle causes you to straighten your arm?

    B. Triceps Brachii
  76. Hypoxia refers to:

    D. Lack of Oxygen
  77. While examining a client and recording intake notes, which would be considered objective data?

    A. Elevated high right shoulder
  78. What syndrome is characterized by cycles of vasospasm in blood vessels, typically in the most distal points of the body such as the fingers and toes?

    A. Raynaud's Syndrome
  79. What is a synonym for vascular headaches?

    C. Migraine Headaches
  80. Which of the following conditions is frequently caused by constriction of coronary arteries and lack of oxygen to the heart muscle and is ofter felt as chest pain?

    B. Angina Pectoris
  81. Which of the following is a weakness in the wall of a blood vessel?

    D. Aneurysm
  82. What is the synonym for a heart attack?

    A. Myocardial Infraction
  83. Which of the following describes dilated veins, causing their valves to become incompetent?

    A. Varicose Veins
  84. Which is an autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the body's connective tissues?

    A. Lupus
  85. Which type of headache is caused by dilation of extracranial blood vessels?

    D. Migraine headaches
  86. What is inflammation of the veins called?

    C. Phlebitis
  87. What type of dermatitis is an allergic reaction of the skin that comes into contact with various substances, producing an inflammatory response?

    A. Contact Dermatitis
  88. Which of the following is a contagious superficial foot fungus characterized by skin discoloration and a ridge of red tissue?

    A. Athlete's foot
  89. Which of the following describes diseases that have an abrupt onset of severe symptoms and run a brief course (less than six months) and either is resolved or brings death?

    B. Acute
  90. Which of the following describes diseases that develop slowly and last longer than 6 months to a lifetime?

    B. Chronic
  91. Which of the following refers to information that can be gained from the client?

    C. Subjective Data
  92. What is the client's authorization for professional services based on information provided by the massage therapist?

    D. Informed Consent
  93. Which of the following refers to data that is measurable and quantitative?

    D. Objective Data
  94. What is the best way to evaluate Turgor?

    A. Pinching the skin
  95. If the skin leaves pits after pressure application, what does it suggest?

    A. Edema
  96. A therapist is testing for Turgor; the client's skin leaves an elevation or tent after it is pinched, what does this suggest?

    A. Dehydration
  97. What are trigger points?

    C. Hypersensitive points in a muscle
  98. What is the best way to test for rebound tenderness?

    D. Releasing applied pressure on abdomen
  99. What is the term used to describe sensations felt at the end of passive range of motion?

    A. Endfeel
  100. Conditions in which massage can be administered while avoiding an infected area or area in question are

    C. Local Contraindications
  101. Areas of the body containing superficial delicate anatomnical structures that are unprotected and prone to injury; meriting caution during treatment.

    A. Endangerment Sites
  102. Malpractice insurance is also known as:

    A. Professional Liability
  103. Massage helps to reduce the pain in which kind of headaches?

    C. Muscular tension headaches
  104. The best thing a massage therapist can do to control the transmission of disease is:

    D. Handwashing
  105. How long should the therapist wash his or her hands before and after a regular massage?

    B. 15 seconds
  106. An emotional reaction of the therapist that reflects the therapist's inner needs and conflicts defines:

    B. Countertransference
  107. Why should a massage therapist refuse to date his or her clients?

    C. It blurs client/therapist boundaries´╗┐
  108. If the therapist comes into contact with body fluids or fluids of unknown origin, what is the recommended time length for the handwashing procedure?

    D. 2 minutes
  109. What general body area should be avoided if the client has had surgery as a cancer treatment?

    B. Legs
  110. What treatment modifications should the therapist use if a cancer patient, who has been cleared for massage, has received chemotheray within 24 hours of his or her scheduled appointment?

    C. Massage with gloves
  111. Common moles have all the following characteristics EXCEPT;

    D. Are asymmetrical in shape
  112. If a cancer patient, who is recieving chemotherapy and has received clearance for massage therapy, is experiencing neuropathy, what is treatment modifications should the therapist employ?

    D. Avoid deep massage in areas with Neuropathy
  113. If a cancer patient with edema has recieved clearance for massage therapy, treatment modifications inculde all of the following EXCEPT:

    A. Apply local heat on affected limb after treatment
  114. In a cancer patient, who is recieving radiation or chemotherapy and has recieved clearance for massage therapy, what treatment modificaitons can the therapist employ if the client is nauseated when he or she arrives for a massage and still wishes to recieve a massage?

    A. Avoid joint mobilizations, stretches, and jostling
  115. If the client indicates that she is taking steroids for a chronic condition, what treatment modifications should be used?

    C. Use lighter pressure because she is a candidate for osteoporosis
  116. What two conditions are likely to occur in a client with long-term diabetes?

    D. Peripheral Vascular Disease and Neuropathy
  117. According to NCBTMB, how long should the therapist maintain client records after the client discontinues service?

    D. 4 years
  118. What type of insurance protects the therapist if he or she injures a client?

    A. Malpractice
  119. Which of the following represents cell necrosis due to local Ischemia resulting from prolonged pressure, which restricts normal blood supply to the skin?

    C. Decubitus Ulcers
  120. Which of the following is a contagious fungul disease characterized by itching and scaling, sometimes manifesting themselves as a raised red-ringed patch?

    B. Ringworm
  121. This highly contagious viral infection appears as fever blisters or cold sores on the skin and mucous membranes;

    C. Herpes Simplex
  122. What condition is a failure of the lower gastroesophageal sphincter to close normally after food has entered the stomach which, in turn, causing a burning sensation?

    D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
  123. Which of the following are protrusions of an organ or part of an organ through its surrounding connective tissue membranes or cavity wall?

    D. Hernias
  124. What are self-inflicted injuries related to inefficient biomechanics (posture, sporting movements, work habits), causing damage to soft tissues; types include carpal tunnel syndrome, thoracis outlet syndrome and tennis elbow?

    B. Repetitive Strain Injuries
  125. What type of medication depresses sensory information entering the nervous system?

    B. Muscle relaxants & Narcotic Analgesics
  126. What is a chronic inflammatory disease affecting muscle and related connective tissues, including the presence of "tender points" or "trigger points"?

    D. Fibromyalgia
  127. Inflammation of a tendon is called what?

    A. Tendinitis
  128. Which of the following is a chronic, progressive erosion of the articular cartilage caused by long-standing inflammation, often called "wear and tear" arthritis?

    A. Osteoarthritis
  129. Which of the following is a condition involving spasms of the sternocleidomastoid muscles?

    D. Torticollis
  130. What is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus from the annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disk?

    A. Herniated Disc
  131. Which is acute or chronic inflammation of the bursae?

    A. Bursitis
  132. Which of the following is a condition characterized by a decrease in bone mass with a subsequent increase in the suspectibility to fractures?

    A. Osteoporosis
  133. What is a cyst behind the knee caused by escape of synovial fluid which becomes enclosed in a membranous sac?

    B. Baker's Cyst
  134. What is an autoimmune disorder in which myelin sheaths in the central nervous system are progressively destroyed?

    C. Multiple Sclerosis
  135. What condition results from soft tissues pressing against nerves? Examples of these soft tissues are muscle, tendon, fascia and ligaments;

    C. Nerve Entrapment
  136. What is the degeneration of the Peripheral nervous system called?

    D. Neuropathy
  137. What is paralysis of only the arms and legs?

    C. Quadriplegia
  138. Which paralysis involves only the lower extremities and trunk?

    C. Paraplegia
  139. What is a chronic, inflammatory disorder caused by airway sensitivity to various stimuli?

    D. Asthma
  140. What is the most common cause of Chronic Bronchitis?

    D. Cigarette smoking
  141. What disease results from the gradual destruction of elasticity in the alveolar walls due to long-term exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke, air pollution or industrial dust?

    B. Emphysema
  142. What is a group of pulmonary disorders characterized by persistent or recurring obstruction of air flow?

    A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
  143. What is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States?

    D. Pneumonia
  144. A coronal plane through the head;

    B. Could pass through both ears
  145. What number cervical vertebrae correspond to the Atlas?

    B. C-1
  146. What is the origin of the biceps femoris?

    B. Ischial Tuberosity
  147. Insulin and Glucagon are examples of what?

    A. Pancreatic Hormones
  148. How would you best relax the pectoralis major muscle while the client is in a supine position?

    A. Place a cushion under the arms
  149. If you are standing on tip-toe and have pain in your leg, which muscle is most likely involved?

    B. Gastrocnemius
  150. If when palpating a tight muscle, you discover bands of fibrous adhesions, what would be the best technique to relieve the fibrosity?

    B. Cross-fiber Friction
  151. Spasm in which of the following muscles can lead to irritation of the sciatic nerve?

    D. Piriformis
  152. Which endangerment site would you need to avoid applying direct pressure when compressing the sternum?

    B. Xiphoid Process
  153. If a client has difficulty actively flexing the forearm and abducting the arm, which muscles are most likely involved in the restriction?

    D. Biceps Brachii and Deltoid
  154. Which of the following best represents medial rotation?

    C. Turning the humerus in
  155. In what abdomniopelvic quadrant are the liver and gall bladder located?

    D. Upper Right
  156. Which of the following is an example of Concentric contraction of the Triceps Brachii?

    B. Elbow Extension
  157. Which of the following muscles are most likely involved in a Rotator Cuff Injury?

    C. Supraspinatus
  158. The term Pes Anserinus refers to which of the following?

    B. Common insertion of three thigh muscles
  159. Where is the bony landmark for the type of tendonitis found in Tennis Elbow?

    A. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus
  160. Which muscle would MOST likely be the source of pain and limited range of motion found in frozen shoulder?

    A. Subscapularis
  161. What element is associated with anger?

    D. Wood
  162. When flexing the elbow, which muscle is concentrically contracting?

    C. Brachialis
  163. If you gave a massage to a fellow licensed massage therapist, what percentage of the cost of the massage you gave is recorded on your account ledger?

    B. 100%
  164. A client who what Lordosis complains of back pain while in the prone position; what modifications would most likely increase his comfort?

    D. Bolster under his abdomen and pelvis
  165. At which life stage does circulation of blood and lymph decrese in the lower extremities?

    B. Senescence
  166. What is the action of the Piriformis on the hip?

    A. Abducts and laterally rotates
  167. A tight Iliopsoas can create or exacerbate which condition?

    D. Lordosis
  168. Which of the following is a broad flattened sheet of connective tissue?

    B. Aponeurosis
  169. In Wester medicine, which is not considered treatment for a malignancy?

    A. Physical Therapy
  170. While at a social function, you run into a client and ask him about his progress with treatment. This is an example of which of the following?

    C. Confidentiality
  171. While in the prone position, a client who has a dowager's hump complains of discomfort at the base of her neck. Which of the following would provide the most comfort for this region?

    C. Cushion under a shoulder
  172. Why is oil not recommended for pre-event sports massage?

    B. Blocks sweat glands and may cause the body to overheat
  173. What is the primary stucture injured during a sprain?

    B. Ligament
  174. Percussion is not recommended over which area?

    B. Lower back over Kidneys
  175. Post-event massage should be postponed until the athelete

    D. Has properly cooled down
  176. Which of the following is activated during the stress response?

    A. Sympathetic
  177. What structure lies anterior to the esophagus?

    C. Trachea
  178. Which organ stores blood cells and destroys old, worn-out RBC's and platelets?

    A. Spleen
  179. Which of the following best describes increased blood flow?

    C. Hyperemia
  180. Which muscle elevates the rib cage during Inspiration?

    D. External Intercostals
  181. What body system produces heat, creates movement, and maintains posture?

    C. Muscular
  182. Which joint connects the appendicular skeleton to the axial skeleton?

    C. A and C
  183. Where are bursa sacks usually located?

    B. Between and bone an tendon
  184. Which of the following joints moves in only one plane?

    A. Hinge
  185. What describes a muscle contraction where the muscle does not lengthen or shorten?

    B. Isometric
  186. What is the term used to describe medial rotation of the forearm?

    B. Supination
  187. Which movement is associated with opening a jar or dropping the shoulder?

    D. Depression
  188. Which term represents movement of the feet where the soles are facing each other and the person's weight is on the lateral edges?

    D. Inversion
  189. Which of the following is an example of an Ellispoid Joint?

    D. Radiocarpal
  190. Name the joint between the skull and the first cervical vertebrae;

    C. Atlantooccipital
  191. What structure emerges from Intervertebral Foramina?

    A. Nerve Roots
  192. Which skull bone makes up the cheek?

    A. Zygomatic
  193. Which bones in the hand are positoned distal to the carpals?

    C. Metacarpals
  194. Which bone moves during supination and pronation?

    D. Radius
  195. From which bony marking do the flexors of the wrist originate?

    D. Medial Epicondyle
  196. Which joint allows supination and pronation of the forearm?

    B. Proximal Radioulnar
  197. Which of the following is the scientific name for the knee?

    C. Tibiofemoral
  198. What is the scientific name for the hip socket?

    B. Acetabulum
  199. What is the name given for the cartilage inside the knee?

    B. Meniscus
  200. The term costal refers to;

    B. The ribs
  201. To what part of the sternum do most ribs attach?

    A. Body
  202. The two clavicular joints are of which joint type?

    D. Gliding
  203. Which of the following joints is considered to be biaxal?

    C. Radiocarpal
  204. In traditional Chinese medicine, which meridian terminates on the tip of the middle finger?

    C. Gallbladder
  205. Which of the following occurs when the stomach is unable to manufacture intrinsic factor, a substance needed for absorption of vitamin B12 from the digestive tract?

    B. Pernicious Anemia
  206. Which of the following best describes Petrissage?

    A. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing and releasing of tissue, working parallel to the muscles fibers
  207. Which of the following statements is true regarding precautions when massaging a pregnant client?

    A. Tilt her body to the left by placing a pillow or cushion under her right flank when supine
  208. Clients who have Osteoporosis should only recieve light massasge. Why?

    D. They have brittle bones
  209. Which of the following meridians are NOT paired on the body?

    D. Conception Vessel
  210. Which of the following best describes friction?

    D. Rubbing one surface over anotherl; skin over skin over underlying structures
  211. A client complains of being very tired and is running a low-grade fever; How should the therapist proceed?

    D. Reschedule the massage and suggest that she see her physician
  212. Bell's Palsy is a type of paralysis of which cranial nerve?

    C. VII
  213. What is the most common cause of a urinary tract infection?

    A. Bacteria
  214. Which population group is prone to have Osteoporosis?

    A. Postmenopausal women
  215. Which of the following conditions is indicated for massage?

    C. Fibromyalgia
  216. Proper body mechanics are extremely important to pervent injury to the therapist. Which of the following demonstarates good body mechanics?

    D. Knees flexed while shifting weight between the feet
  217. A client comes into your office and states during the pre-massage interview that he is HIV positive. Which of the following is part of a safe treatment for this client?

    B. Adjust the massage to his vitality and stamina and avoid any open sores
  218. Which of the following best describes Tapotement?

    A. Repetitive staccato striking movements of the hands, moving either simultaneously or alternately
  219. Which of the following best describes the Asian concept of Yin and Yang?

    B. Dynamic Balance
  220. Blood traveling through the Femoral Artery must first pass through which artery?

    B. External Iliac
  221. A therapist who works in a hospital setting and is exposed to body fluids such as blood is more likely than a therapist who works in a spa to contract which disease?

    A. Hepatitis B
  222. Which of the following types of stretching is no longer recommended in sports or clinical settings?

    A. Ballistic
  223. Which of the following muscles does NOT flex at the hip?

    D. Gluteus Maximus
  224. Which of the following best describes Effleurage?

    C. Gliding movements that are repeated and follow the contour of the client's body
  225. You notice a large mole on a client's posterior upper arm, which has changed over his last few visits. What is the best course of action?

    D. Strongly urge him to see his physician because this is characteristic of skin cancer
  226. Deep massage of which muscle group may relieve sciatic pain?

    B. Gluteal muscles
  227. A 1099 tax form is used to notify the federal goverment of what?

    C. Income of an independant contractor
  228. If a client with Phlebitis comes into your office for a massage, which of the following is part of a safe treatment plan for this client?

    D. Proceed with the massage, and avoid the affected area
  229. Which of the following is hyper-curvature of the spine in the lumbar region?

    D. Lordosis
  230. In Swedish massage, massage applied on the extremities should be applied

    B. Centripetally
  231. How is a code of ethics best described?

    A. Set of guiding moral principles
  232. An elderly female client with a stooped posture is referred to you for a massage. Which of the following is part of a safe treatment plan for her?

    B. Obtain medical clearance from her physician before giving her a light massage
  233. In traditional Chinese medicine, which meridian terminates on the little finger?

    D. Small Intestine
  234. A client who reports chronic fatigue comes into your office for a massage. Which of the following is part a treatment plan that supports her needs?

    D. Proceed with the massage, using even, moderate pressure and a soothing rhythm to promote relaxation
  235. A client schedules a massage the day after a vehicular accident that caused moderate back pain. Which of the following is part of a safe treatment for this client?

    A. Obtain medical clearance from his physician before giving him a massage
  236. Which of the following monitor changes in muscle length as well as the rate of this change and respond by reflexive contraction?

    A. Muscle Spindles
  237. Which of the following muscles Inverts the foot?

    D. Tibialis Anterior
  238. If a client has a condition that is contraindicated, it means that it;

    D. Is impossible or undersirable to treat a particular client in the usual manner
  239. Proper draping is an important part of massage because it;

    D. Helps keep the client warm and promotes professionalism
  240. A person who habitually smokes cigarettes is more likely than non-smokers to develop which of the following?

    A. Emphysema
  241. When a person is raised up on his toes, the ankle is in what postion?

    C. Plantar Flexion
  242. To what area of the body is tapotement cautiously applied?

    B. Upper Lumbar region
  243. According to traditional Chinese medicine, which meridian ends on the second toe?

    B. Stomach
  244. When working on a client who has an injury on one limb confined to a small area, what is the best course of action?

    B. Massage proximal to the injured area
  245. Which of the following violates the Code of Ethics published by the National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork?

    C. Dating a client
  246. If a client who is under the care of a local nephrologist comes into with pitting Edema, what should be part of his current treatment plan?

    D. The massage needs to be rescheduled until he recieves medical clearance for massage
  247. Which of the following nerves are involved in carpal tunnel syndrome?

    D. Median
  248. Which of the following is a synonym for high blood pressure?

    B. Hypertension
  249. Which of the following is a synonym for Cystitis?

    C. Bladder Infection
  250. Which chakra is associated with the color green?

    A. Heart
  251. Which massage stroke is best for atrophy due to muscle inactivity because it activates muscle spindles?

    C. Tapotement
  252. What range is considered a normal respiration rate for an adult at rest?

    A. 15 to 20 breaths per minute
  253. What system is known for regulating human emotions?

    A. Limbic System
  254. Which two muscles are contracted when someone is wearing high-heeled shoes?

    A. Gastrocnemius and Soleus
  255. When flexing the knee, what two muscles groups move closer together?

    C. Hamstrings and Calf
  256. Which of the following are three joints of the pelvis?

    D. Sacroiliac, Pubic Symphysis and Iliofemoral
  257. Which of the following skin conditions is characterized by red, flaky skin elevations covered by thick, dry, silvery scales?

    D. Psoriasis
  258. Where is the Thyroid Gland located?

    D. In the Throat
  259. The primary target of Lymphatic massage is the ____.

    C. Interstitial Fluid
  260. What type of endfeel is experienced at the end of passive range of motion when it feels abrupt such as produced by an anatomical stop such as bone?

    C. Hard
  261. What are the three fused bones of the pelvic girdle?

    D. Ilium, Ischium, Pubis
  262. What is an appropriate treatment plan for a client whom a physician has diagnosed as terminally ill and has approved for massage?

    A. More slowly, gently, more frequently and only for shorter periods
  263. How does friction help reduce scar tissue?

    B. Reduce random collegen attachment
  264. To help increase venous blood return, what direction should massage strokes be directed?

    B. Toward the heart
  265. What technique is best used for Lymph drainage?

    C. Gliding strokes
  266. What is the term that describes enlargement of a blood vessel lumen?

    B. Vasodilation
  267. If a client presents an elevated right shoulder, which muscles are most likely involved?

    C. Levator Scapulae, Trapezius
  268. Which of the following is the best exercise to strengthen the Rectus Abdominis?

    C. Crunches
  269. What is the MOST common cause of Tendonitis?

    D. Overuse
  270. Which group of muscles is responsible for flexion of the Humerus?

    A. Coracobrachialis, Pectoralis Major, Anterior Deltoid
  271. The sciatic nerve runs between which two landmarks?

    C. The Greater Trochanter and Ischial Tuberosity
  272. A massage therapist palpates the insertion of the levator scapula at the ____.

    C. Superior Angle of the Scapula
  273. Massage to the legs with large varicosities is contraindicated because ____.

    B. A clot can dislodge
  274. What are two primary actions of the Biceps Femoris?

    D. Flexing the knee and extending the hip
  275. Where is the Spenoid Bone?

    C. Skull
  276. When doing abdominal massage while the client is in the supine position

    A. The client's knees should be flexed
  277. Slow healing of ligament injuries is caused by ____.

    D. Poor blood supply
  278. If a client asks you to review his medications, what is the best thing to do before the massage begins?

    A. Research the list for possible massage precautions
  279. Ice is recommended for ____.

    B. Inflammation and pain relief
  280. A massage therapist should avoid the area above the pubic symphysis becuase of the ____.

    C. Bladder
  281. According to basic first aid, what should you encourage a choking victim to do?

    A. Cough
  282. A form of therapy in which a client's energy is rebalanced, promoting health and healing, is called ____.

    A. Reiki
  283. The massage therapist needs to wear gloves if ___.

    D. The therapist has a break in the skin on one or both hands
  284. Cold applied for therapeutic purposes is called _____.

    D. Cryotherapy
  285. Cross-fiber friction massage must be applied in which direction to the fibers?

    C. Perpendicular
  286. According to Cryiax. the most rehabilitative massage stroke is _____.

    B. Cross-fiber friction
  287. In massaging the Anconeus, the massage therapist is working in the area of the __________.

    D. Elbow
  288. For which condition is abdominal massage most beneficial?

    B. Constipation
  289. The Gate Theory is used to explain how massage may assist in _____.

    D. Decreasing a client's pain
  290. What area would you first massage if a client presents with mild edema on his left knee?

    C. One the left foot and ankle
  291. Which of the following is NOT effective in relieving an acute muscle cramp?

    C. Tapotement on the muscle belly
  292. What massage stroke should be avoided immediately after exercise because this stroke can activate muscle spindles and cause cramping?

    B. Tapotement
  293. Ischemia can be defined as _____.

    C. Lack of blood in an area
  294. Blood pressure generally decreases during massage because ______.

    D. Vasodilation occurs in blood vessels
  295. A bath with a temperature of 80 degrees to 92 degrees is considered _____.

    C. Tepid
  296. The massage modality based on the idea that stimulation on an area of the foot will release energy blocks is called ______.

    B. Reflexology
  297. Which best describes the modality of Rolfing?

    B. Structural Integration
  298. The tapotement variation of cupping is best suited for which of the following conditions?

    A. Respiratory Congestion
  299. Which stroke most often begins and ends a Swedish massage?

    A. Effleurage
  300. How should you modify a massage treatment plan for a Geriatric client?

    D. Reduce both treatment time and pressure
  301. Which of the following is the only vertebra that is part of the pelvis?

    A. Sacrum
  302. Which organ of the body helps to regulate body temperature?

    B. Skin
  303. Epistaxis describes which of the following conditions?

    D. Nosebleed
  304. The shaft of a long bone is also called the ______.

    D. Diaphysis
  305. Which of the following is a function associated with the Kidneys?

    B. Blood Volume
  306. Why does injured cartilage take so long to heal?

    D. It does not have good blood supply
  307. What muscle is NOT necessary in treating a client who has Lordosis?

    D. Trapezius
  308. Which condition is NOT an example of a repetitive strain injury?

    C. Displaced Rib
  309. A bladder infection spreads upwards to the kidneys through which structures?

    B. Ureters
  310. Which of the following muscles is associated with Supination of the forearm?

    B. Biceps Brachii
  311. Which of the following are cells that repair bone and break it down to maintain homeostasis of calcium and phosphates?

    A. Osteoclasts
  312. Which of the following vessels take blood from the heart and route it to the lungs?

    A. Pulmonary Arteries
  313. How does massage affect urine output and by what mechanism?

    A. It is increased by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system
  314. Swayback is a common term used to describe which of the the following spinal deviations?

    B. Lordosis
  315. Which is the nerve bundle that passes between the anterior and middle scalene muscles as it moves toward the axilla?

    D. Brachial Plexus
  316. The medial and lateral bony projections located at the distal end of the Tibia and Fibula are the _____.

    D. Malleoli
  317. Which of the following muscles is located on the posterior surface of the leg, crossing two joints, and is responsible for Plantar flexing the ankle and flexing the knee?

    A. Gastrocnemius
  318. A diabetic patient who has knowningly given herself too much insulin would likely try to balance his system by eating foods that contain ____.

    A. Simple carbohydrates such as juice or hard candy
  319. During an intake of a new client, he discloses that he has psoriasis on his back. What is an appropriate treatment?

    D. Complete the massage but avoid the affected area if pressure causes pain
  320. A client comes in for massage with painful whiplash injury. He was in an accident yesterday, his neck is very stiff and sore, and he thinks massage will help. What is part of an appropriate treatment plan?

    C. Reschedule the massage after the client consults with his physician because it is too soon after an accident to safely recieve massage
  321. Client records are confidential except when _______.

    B. Directed by client or by subpeona
  322. The more fixed attachment site of a muscle is called its ______.

    C. Origin
  323. What is the Insertion of the Quadriceps muscle group?

    D. Tibial Tuberosity
  324. What muscle of the erector spinae group is positioned most medially?

    A. Semispinalis
  325. Which of the following two muscles are antagonists to each other?

    D. Paraspinal & Rectus Abdominis
  326. Which of the following words refers to energy or life force?

    D. Ki
  327. Which muscle does not perform any flexion of the knee?

    C. Soleus
  328. A client comes to your office in pain and is not satisfied with the last massage you gave beacause she was sore for two days after you worked on her and she didn't get any relief from the pain. Wihch of the following is the most appropriate response?

    A. Refund her the fees for the session and refer her to another practitioner
  329. Which rotator-cuff muscle is positioned on the anterior aspect of the Scapula?

    C. Subscapularis
  330. A butterfly rash across the nose and cheeks is often a sign of which of the following diseases?

    D. Systemic Lupus
  331. What is the best example of unethical behavior?

    D. Talking about a client's problems with another client
  332. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to massage?

    C. Encephalitis
  333. Which of the following organs produces bile?

    D. Liver
  334. During massage, respiration rate is affected how and by what mechanism?

    D. Decreased by stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
  335. Fainting may be caused by compression of which blood vessel?

    D. Carotid
  336. Which of the following is the scientific or medical term for the "Adam's Apple"?

    B. Thyroid Cartiliage
  337. What muscle or muscles need to be strengthened to reduce an exaggerated anterior pelvic tilt?

    A. Rectus Abdominis
  338. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom for Temporomandibular joint dysfunctions?

    D. Nausea
  339. Massage is contraindicated for which of the following conditions?

    C. Thrombophlebitis
  340. Which of the following is a long-term affect of stress?

    D. Decreased Immunity
  341. In which of these joints is movement absent or extremely limited?

    D. Synarthrotic
  342. Which type of skin cancer is the slowest growing?

    B. Basal Cell Carcinoma
  343. Who is the best referral choice for a client who is interested in energy work?

    C. A reiki therapist
  344. How would you stretch the Pectoral Major muscle?

    D. Abduction and lateral rotation
  345. If a client seems depressed and discusses throughts of committing suicide with you during a massage, what is an appropriate course of action?

    D. Express concern and continue with the massage, referring her to a mental health professional upon departure of your office
  346. Practictioners of traditional Chinese medicine rely on feeling and reading the pulses of their clients to gain a batter understanding of their condition. Where on the body are these pulses taken?

    C. Wrists
  347. In reflexology, where is the point that corresponds to the head and neck?

    B. The great toe
  348. What is the primary effect of a salt glow?

    B. Exfoliation
  349. Which of the following strokes is best in aiding lung decongestion?

    C. Tapotement
  350. In what country did Shiatsu orginate?

    A. Japan
  351. Which client would benefit most from cold applications on an appropriate area?

    A. A person with an inflamed ankle
  352. Which of the following is the cell responsible for blood clotting?

    D. Platelet
  353. Using the ABCDEF method on recongnizing a malignant melanoma, whta does the "B" represent?

    C. Borders
  354. Most fractures of the wrist involve which of the following carpal bones?

    A. Scaphoid
  355. After performing skin rolling on a client's back, you notice the area is now red. This is the result of ______.

    B. Hyperemia
  356. In the study of Shiatsu, whiat is a synonym for Tsubo?

    D. Acupoint
  357. Which of the following are the lower chambers of the heart?

    D. Ventricles
  358. What is the safest way to massage the neck area of a client with osteoarthritis?

    B. Light pressure along the cervical vertebrae
  359. Finger pressure is used primarily in which of the following therapies?

    B. Shiatsu
  360. According to traditional Chinese medicine, what is the number of regular meridians?

    C. 12
  361. What disease is known for the body attacking and destroying its own issues, specifically the synovial membranes of joints, especially the hand and feet? The membranes are replaced by fibrous tissues that add to the joint stiffness already present.

    D. Rheumatoid Arthritis
  362. A muscle or group of muscles that stabilizes an area or joint so that the agonist can exert its action is called a/an _____.

    D. Fixator
  363. In the "ABC" initiial assessment process of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, what does the "B" represent?

    A. Breathing
  364. How would a therapist recognize varicose veins?

    D. Small broken capillaries that may bulge outward
  365. Which bone of the forearm is posistioned laterally in an anatomical position?

    B. Radius
  366. The upper lumbar area is an endangerment site because of which organ's?

    D. Kidneys
  367. What accommodation might be made for a client which hypothyroidism?

    A. Use of a blanket to prevent the client from becoming chilled
  368. Which of the following represent the five elements in traditional Chinese medicine?

    B. Wood, earth, water, fire and metal
  369. When treating the Iliopsoas, the therapist needs to avoid applying pressure on which of the following structures?

    B. Abdominal Aorta
  370. When two massage therapists begin to work together in the same office, how do they avoid forming a legal partnership?

    C. Avoid commingling funds
  371. Which muscle of the quadriceps is considered to be biatricular?

    D. Rectus Femoris
  372. Which of the following muscles attaches to the Coronoid Process?

    A. Temporalis
  373. What two muscles are known as the stir-up muscles, both attached at the base of the first Metatarsal?

    B. Fibularis Longus, Tibialis Anterior
  374. Which of the following is the scientific or medical name for the ankle joint?

    A. Talocrural
  375. Which of the following muscles initiates walking?

    B. Iliopsoas
  376. Which of the following in a muscle lengthen to allow contraction by an opposing muscle?

    C. Antagonist
  377. When stretching a muscle, the therapist notices that, at the end of the stretch, it feels as if bone is hitting bone. This is referred to as ______.

    D. Hard end feel
  378. How would you ascertain that a client is experiencing anxiety?

    C. Shallow breathing and rapid heart rate
  379. What is the most important skill used by the therapist during a client intake?

    C. Listening
  380. Which rotator cuff muscle attaches at the lesser tubercle of the Humerus?

    B. Subscapularis
  381. Which of the following organs is NOT an accessory organ in the digestive process?

    A. Spleen
  382. When applying pressure to a sore spot on a client, he says the pain "refers" to another part of his body. This is an example of _____.

    A. Trigger Point
  383. The term Idiopathic means _____.

    C. Cause Unknown
  384. Which of the following is NOT in the Code of Ethics of the National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork (NCTMB)?

    A. Inform clients, other health care practioners and the public of the scope of each session with any client you feel needs mental health
  385. A male client comes to a massage clinic and insists on having a woman work on him. What is an appropriate course of action?

    A. Comply with the request
  386. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Fibromyalgia?

    B. Inflammation
  387. After you give a client a message, he is ready to leave. He wants to give you a hug, but you feel uncomfortable. This is a example of _____.

    A. Boundaries
  388. Which should NOT be claimed as a result of massage therapy?

    C. Weight Reduction
  389. A client of the opposite gender begins to moan and caress the therapist's legs as he or she walks by. What is an appropriate course of action?

    D. Tell him or her that he or she is being inappropriate and repeated or similar behavior will result in termination of the massage
  390. Pre-event sports massage techniques include all of the following strokes EXCEPT

    B. Circular Friction
  391. A client is on the table and tells the therapist that the session must now be over. The client is not crying but is obviously upset about something. What is an appropriate course of action?

    D. Comply with the request and ask if there is anything that the client needs once the client is dressed
  392. When palpating the midline of the back, what structure is being palpated?

    D. Spinous Processes
  393. Contraindications for thermotherapy include all of the following EXCEPT

    B. Kidney infection
  394. Which of the following conditions could be relieved using manual lymphatic drainage techniques?

    B. Edema accompanying a sprained ankle
  395. During intake, which of the following best indicates that the client has the therapist's full attention?

    B. Sitting and maintaining eye contact while the client is speaking
  396. Which best describes passive motion?

    C. Having the client remain relaxed while the therapist performs a motion on the client
  397. Caution must be used when working on the axillary region due to the presence of which structure?

    A. Brachial Artery
  398. What is necessary for the process of blood clotting?

    D. Vitamin K
  399. Leaving the previous client's treatment records visible to the next client best describes a breach of _____.

    C. Confidentally
  400. If a client appears to have a seizure during the massage, what is the most appropriate course of action?

    • A. Try to place client on his or her side, provide light immobilization
    • to prevent them from falling of the table, and call 911 if the seizure
    • lasts more than 5 minutes
Card Set
National Exam for Massage Therapy