True/False. In the event of a FADEC Channel control system failure the FADEC automatically selects the channel with the better capability.
True
True/False. An in-flight "OP GO" indication switching to a "DEGD" indication without change in ENG STATUS when the aircraft slows below 80 KCAS after landing is normal.
True
True/False. A FADEC reset should not be attempted inflight because any degrade in ENG status is most likely due to the failure of a mechanical component.
True
True/False The oil pressure indication on the EFD and the L/R OIL PR caution are both operated by the same transducer.
False. Transducer provides oil pressure indication. A separate oil pressure switch triggers the caution
Failure of the power transmission shaft (PTS) results in the display of the associated ________, ___________________, and both associated _______ circuit cautions.
GEN, BOOST LO, HYD
True/False. The F/A-18 E/F IDLE rpm is the same on the ground as in flight
False
True/False. Above 1.23 IMN, it is normal for engine rpm to remain at MIL power levels even when the throttles are reduced below MIL
True
Reduced Authority Thrust System (RATS) can be overridden by advancing the throttles to ________________________.
Full Afterburner (THA within 2 degrees of MAX stop).
True/False. Upon a successful arrestment, engine thrust will be automatically reduced to approximately 70% of MIL power using the Reduced Authority Thrust System (RATS).
True
Each ATS has two sources of overspeed cutout protection. The primary source is the corresponding ______________________, and the backup source is the frequency sensing relay (FSR). The FSR monitors ATS speed and provides the signal which electrically holds the _________________switch.
GENERATOR, ENG CRANK
Two hydraulic accumulators are provided in the _________ circuit: the _________ accumulator and the __________ accumulator
HYD 2B, APU, BRAKE
In the event of HYD 2 failure with emergency brakes selected, back-up hydraulic pressure for emergency braking is provided by the Brake / APU / Brake and APU (circle one) accumulator(s).
BRAKE and APU
Motive flow ejector pumps are used to transfer wing tank fuel to which tank(s)? _______________
Tank 4. When Tank 4 is less than full, the SDC opens both wing motive flow control valves, which direct motive flow to the ejector pumps and transfer fuel from wing tanks toTank 4
Airborne, external tank pressurization is terminated when either the ______________switch is in EXTEND, or both __________ and ___________________ handles are down.
PROBE, HOOK, LDG GEAR
The STOP position on the EXT TANKS Transfer switch prevents transfer and refueling of controlled external tank(s) except with a ____________ caution.
FUEL LO
Hydraulic cautions (HYD 1A, HYD 1B, HYD 2A, HYD 2B) are set when individual hydraulic pressure switches detect circuit pressure below __________ psi
1400
The forward isolation valve is opened/closed (circle one) when the LDG GEAR handle is UP and all three landing gear are up and locked
CLOSED
True/False. An INLET ICE caution during the inlet ice detector test indicates a failure of the detector
False. This is a proper indication during the test
True/False. Throttle movement is mechanically transmitted from the throttle quadrant to each engine.
False. It is electrically transmitted to the FADEC.
Tank _____ supplies fuel to the left engine while tank _____ supplies fuel to the right engine.
2; 3.
After emergency extension of the air refueling probe, how is the probe retracted? (With loss of 2A system) _______________________
It cannot be retracted.
The aft isolation valve and the arming valve are open / closed (circle one) with WonW and are normally open / closed (circle one) inflight…. The aft isolation valve is manually opened / closed (circle one) inflight by hook extension / retraction (circle one) or by holding the HYD ISOL switch in ORIDE. The arming valve is manually opened / closed (circle one) inflight by emergency gear or emergency probe extension
OPEN, CLOSED, OPENED, RETRACTION, OPENED
Dump rate is approximately _________lb per minute and fuel dumping continues until:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1300
a. The DUMP switch is placed to off
b. The BINGO caution comes on
c. Tanks 1 and 4 are empty and all available fuel from internal wing and external tanks has been depleted
d. The FUEL LO caution comes on
True/False. Fuel cannot be dumped with either a BINGO or FUEL LO caution displayed.
False. Manually hold the switch to ON with Tank 1 and/or Tank 4 fuel available
True/False. The fuel low level indicating system is completely independent of the fuel quantity indicating system.
True
The ____________________ provides electrical power for APU ignition and start.
Aircraft battery.
To prevent an APU running engagement and to prevent APU exhaust torching, a minimum of _____ minutes must elapse between APU shutdown and another APU start.
2 minutes
True/False. The APU switch automatically returns to the OFF position 1 minute after the second generator comes online
True. (BLEED AIR knob not in AUG PULL)
What three air sources can be used to power the ATS for engine crank/start?
1.
2.
3.
APU compressor air; opposite engine bleed air (cross bleed); external air
What two methods may be used to retain both hydraulic systems inflight if the engine core is rotating:
1. APU
2. Opposite Engine Bleed Air (Crossbleed)
With one engine operating and APU shutdown, it should be set to a minimum of _____ % rpm to utilize the crossbleed airstart capability
80%.
The primary dc source for each FCC channel is:
C)
During engine start, the corresponding _______________ switch should be on as it provides primary overspeed cutout protection for the ATS.
Generator
If the PARK BRAKE handle is not set during right engine start, a _________ caution light comes on when the right generator comes online
GEN TIE. For a battery start, setting the Parking brake handle and cycling the R GEN switch reties the left and right buses and clears any avionics faults that would otherwise occur
What is the cockpit indication(s) of a single transformer rectifier failure?
None
True/False. In the event of a dual generator failure and the 28 vdc essential bus being powered by the battery rather than PMG essential bus backup circuitry, aircrew will be alerted by a BATT SW caution / BATT SW caution light.
False
For survivability, the left and right fuel feed systems are normally separated but can be interconnected by a normally closed ___________valve and a normally closed feed tank ______________valve.
CROSSFEED, INTERCONNECT
When the L or R FIRE warning light is pressed in flight, it electrically opens/closes the_________________________ valve and corresponding engine feed ________________________________ valve
CLOSES, CROSSFEED, SHUTOFF
True/False. Regardless of BATT switch position, the battery charger supplies charging power to the battery anytime the right 115 VAC bus is energized
True
In an unlikely event of a total ac/dc failure inflight, the battery provides approximately _______________ minutes of power for the FCCs, after which aircraft control is lost
5-10 minutes
True/False. The Landing Gear Control Unit (LGCU) controls landing gear extension and retraction
False
Hydraulic pump output pressures are __________ and __________ PSI.
3000; 5000.
When reservoir fluid level drops to approximately _____%, RLS shuts off circuit A (HYD 1A or HYD 2A caution). If fluid level continues to deplete to approximately _____%, RLS restores circuit A and shuts off circuit B (HYD 1B or HYD 2B caution). If alternate circuit shutdown fails to isolate the leak, RLS restores circuit B (no cautions) at approximately _____%, providing hydraulic pressure to both systems until fluid depletion (both cautions)
50; 30; 15
Failure of either wheel speed sensor can lead to a(n) _____________ failure, resulting in a complete loss of brakes. Placing the _______________ switch to the OFF position or pulling the ___________________ will bypass the faulty system and restore braking ability
ANTISKID, ANTISKID, EMERGENCY BRAKE HANDLE
The BRK ACCUM caution is displayed when the brake accumulator pressure drops below __________ PSI, indicating that approximately _____ full brake applications remain before the brake accumulator is empty.
2000; 5.
True/False. A BRK ACCUM caution inflight is not normal and may indicate a possible leak in the HYD 2B system. Do not select HYD ISOL to ORIDE
True
True/False. If an engine is shut down before placing the BLEED AIR knob to OFF, the corresponding primary bleed air shutoff valve may not fully open, resulting in residual engine fumes in the cabin on subsequent start of that engine
False. The primary bleed air shutoff valve may not fully close
If the launch bar does not return to the up and locked position after catapult launch, or the nose gear indicates WonW, the nose landing gear cannot be retracted. Placing the LDG GEAR handle UP will/will not (circle one) raise the main landing gear
Will. It will leave the nose landing gear extended
True/False. Visual inspection of the landing gear can confirm locked gear, as well as obvious damage and general position of the gear.
False. Only can confirm general position and obvious damage
What optical indications of NWS failure will the aircrew have available besides MASTER CAUTION light?
NWS caution and the NWS or NWS HI cue will be removed from the HUD
Normal (low gain) NWS will be lost with a FCS CH _____ or _____ failure
2, 4. Emergency high gain NWS can be regained by pulling the failed channel circuit breaker, unlocking the wings, and momentarily pressing the NWS button.
True/False. In ECS AUTO, with WonW and at least one throttle advanced to approximately 74% N2 rpm, the avionics ground cooling fan secures, and avionics cooling is provided solely by the ECS.
True
A loss of boost pressure downstream of the motive flow/boost pump sets the L or R ______________ caution and opens the ________________valve, allowing output from the good motive flow/boost pump to supply fuel to the opposite engine at rates sufficient for MIL / MAX (choose one) power
BOOST LO, CROSSFEED, MIL
Normal brake system pressure is provided by HYD _____.
2A
True/False. If the anti-skid system is failed and the ANTISKID caution is present but clears when you cycle the ANTISKID switch, it may take as long as 13.5 seconds for the caution to reappear airborne, and it may remain off on deck, even though the failure still exists.
True
True/False: The hook light remains on except when the hook is up and latched.
False. Any time the hook position does not agree with HOOK handle position.
True/False. Placing the wing fold switch to FOLD position in flight will cause the wings to fold as the aircraft decelerates during landing rollout
True. The FOLD command electrically unlocks the wings when the FCCs determine 1) WonW, 2) airspeed <66 KCAS decelerating, 3) the ailerons are faired, and 4) both wings are unlocked.
True/False. Stalls occur at lower AOA with GAIN ORIDE selected.
True. Because the LEFs are fixed.
To prevent the loss of aircraft, during compound emergencies any ______________________ procedures should be completed prior to completion of any other procedures.
FIRE WARNING
True/False. Light bulb integrity can be tested during a LT TEST with ac power applied, and thus it is not important to detect individual bulbs that are not illuminated within the FIRE lights during the fire detection loop test
False
True/False. When pressed, the FIRE EXTGH READY/DISCH light latches into a depressed position similar to the FIRE lights
False
True/False. With no electrical power applied, in the front cockpit a 1/8 inch thick border of yellow and black stripes around a FIRE light indicates that the FIRE light has been pressed
True
True/False. Pressing the FCS RESET button will fix a flight control failure by running a system diagnostic test.
False. FCS RESET does not fix a detected failure; it allows components to be restored and failure indications removed, if and only if the failure no longer exists
On takeoff, accelerating with the flaps switch in HALF, at what speed will the flaps begin AUTO scheduling? __________KCAS
240 KCAS.
True/False. At 25 degrees AOA and above, rudder pedal deflections no longer provide yaw control inputs but instead act entirely as a roll controller (identical to lateral stick input).
True. By commanding aileron and differential stabilator with the rolling-surface-to-rudder interconnect (RSRI) commanding the required rudder deflection for roll coordination
True/False: With an air-to-ground store or tank on a wing station (not HUNG), maximum roll rate is automatically reduced.
True
All flight control surface actuators are powered by one _____________circuit and one ____________ circuit, either simultaneously or through hydraulic ____________
HYD 1, HYD 2, SWITCHING VALVES
Normal (low gain) NWS will be lost with a FCS CH _____ or _____ failure.
2 , 4
The L/R BLD OFF cautions indicate that the corresponding primary bleed air shutoff valve(s) are commanded _____________. The cautions are / are not (circle one) an indication of actual valve position
Closed; are not
At what altitude will the cockpit begin to pressurize?
8,000 feet MSL
True/False. Removing the mask without placing the OXY flow knob to OFF can overwhelm the system capacity and may result in an OBOGS DEGD caution
True
An approximately ____-____ minute supply (depending on altitude) of gaseous oxygen is contained in a bottle in the seat survival kit. Oxygen duration increases / decreases (circle one) with lower altitude. Flow is activated automatically upon ejection or manually by pulling the ________. Activation may / may not (circle one) be deactivated at aircrew discretion by pushing down on the release tab immediately forward of the green ring
10 – 20, DECREASES, EMERGENCY OXYGEN GREEN RING, MAY
True/False. Failure to select the OXY FLOW knob OFF with emergency O2 selected may prevent emergency oxygen from reaching the breathing regulator
True. The OBOGS control switch should also be placed to OFF to backup the OXY FLOW knob.
How can the aircrew tell when the fire extinguisher has been discharged?
The green DISCH light comes on
True/False. On the ground, the APU fire extinguishing system operates automatically whenever an APU fire is detected
True. It must be manually activated with WoffW
If an APU FIRE condition is detected with weight ______wheels, manual activation should be performed to backup the automatic system. Since the fire extinguishing system requires ______ vdc essential bus power, the fire extinguisher bottle may not be discharged if the______________switch is turned off during the 10 second delay time for bottle discharge
ON, 28, BATT
True/False. Automatic functioning of the BALD system may extinguish the L or R BLEED warning lights prior to aircrew recognition and may not trigger the appropriate voice alerts. In this case cycling the BLEED AIR knob to remove the L or R BLD OFF caution(s) may cause extensive damage and/or fire.
True
What conditions must be met to utilize the emergency jettison button? _____________________ OR _____________________
WoffW, LDG GEAR handle - UP
What are the 4 conditions that must be met to utilize the selective jettison system?
1. WoffW
2. Gear handle – Up
3. Master Arm - ARM
4. SIM - Unboxed
True/False. A jammed, blocked, or damaged pitot tube/AOA probe may not be annunciated if system errors are not large enough to set a caution, and HUD displayed information may be inaccurate
True. Errors of AOA difference >15° in UA or 5.5° to 15° in PA depending on sideslip.
Negative g for more than _____ seconds is prohibited
10. 30 seconds is required between negative g maneuvers.
True/False. When the wings are observed to be folded during preflight, ensure the ailerons are faired or outboard to avoid damage to the ailerons and TEFs
True
True/False. Switching valve operation is completely hydro-mechanical, separate from electrical inputs or reset commands. As mechanized, there is no hazard associated with multiple reset attempts to regain an Xd surface following a hydraulic circuit failure
True
Flight with GAIN ORIDE selected is prohibited above _________ AOA or above_________ KCAS (flaps AUTO), __________KCAS (flaps HALF), or ____________KCAS (flaps FULL). With GAIN ORIDE selected, the aircraft is uncontrollable above approximately ____________ KCAS
10o, 350, 200, 190, 450
A blanking EFD before or during engine start may be an indication of:
A. A low battery (battery at or below approximately 18vdc)
True/False. The FADEC will prevent hot starts airborne.
False. During ground starts only
True/False. Placing the BATT switch to OFF prior to the amber FLAPS light on shutdown could cause uncommanded flight control movement due to residual hydraulic pressure and FCS keep-alive circuitry
True
True/False. Do not catapult with partially full external fuel tank(s) (> 100 or < 2,700 lbs). Fuel sloshing may cause structural damage to the tanks, pylons, and/or airframe
True
If the arresting hook is unlocked (HOOK handle down) but fails to leave the up position, pulling the ______________ deenergizes the hook selector valve and ensures HYD _____ pressure is removed
HOOK circuit breaker; 2B
True/False. A L/R AMAD PR caution indicates high AMAD oil pressure.
False. L/R AMAD PR indicates a loss of designated AMAD oil pressure.
True/False. If the ANTI SKID switch is not placed to off with an ANTISKID caution displayed, normal braking may be completely lost
True
True/False. If a THERMAL caution is present in conjunction with a L/R FUEL HOT caution, the fuel management system engages to regulate fuel system temperatures
False. The thermal management system has lost the capability to regulate fuel system temperature
What airspeed may be required to maintain 12% windmilling rpm? __________ KCAS
At least 350.
Never actuate the _________ inflight, as ejection would then be impossible and the aircrew would be unrestrained during landing
Manual Override Handle
True/False. The SEAWARS does not operate in freshwater
True
If ejecting over high altitude terrain, manual seat/man separation may be required to provide adequate altitude for the main parachute to open. At what altitude does the automatic barostat mechanism operate ________________ MSL.
14,000
If a shutdown engine is crossbled airborne WITHOUT the FIRE WARNING LT being depressed, the engine feed shutoff valve remains open / closed (circle one). The motive flow/boost pumps downstream of this valve provide adequate boost pressure to remove the _______________ caution and subsequently open /close (circle one) the crossfeed valve. Additionally, motive flow pressure is reintroduced to the shutdown side of the fuel system, which opens / closes (circle one) the feed tank interconnect valve. These two valves’ actions allow / prevent (circle one) the transfer of fuel from the bad engine’s feed tank
OPEN, BOOST LO, CLOSE, CLOSES, PREVENT
Fan (N1) RPM:
Max steady state
Max transient
Min ground idle
Max steady state 100
Max transient 103
Min ground idle 32
Compressor (N2) RPM:
Max steady state
Max transient
Min ground idle
Max steady state 100
Max transient 102
Min ground idle 61
EGT
Max steady state (MIL/MAX)
Max transient (START/MIL&MAX)
Max steady state (MIL/MAX) 932 / 952°C
Max transient (START/MIL&MAX) 871 / 976°C
Oil PSI must reach a minimum of ___ PSI within ___ seconds of start.
10, 30
Max oil pressure __ minutes after start is __ PSI
2.5, 180
Steady state GROUND IDLE (warm oil) limits are ____ psi
35 to 90
Oil pressure: Steady state limits are: ___ PSI
80 to 150
FAN VIB
1.6
CORE VIB
2.2
AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS
Refueling probe: Extend/Retract:
Extended:
Landing gear:
Extend/Retract:
Emerg Extend:
TEF:
HALF-FULL:
Tires:
Nose Gear:
Main Gear:
Canopy:
Open:
Refueling probe: Extend/Retract: 300 KCAS
Extended: 400 KCAS
Landing gear:
Extend/Retract: 250 KCAS
Emerg Extend: 170 KCAS
TEF:
HALF-FULL: 250 KCAS
Tires:
Nose Gear: 195 KGS
Main Gear: 210 KGS
Canopy:
Open: 60KGS
WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Field takeoff
Field landing, FCLP, T&G
Catapult
Carrier landing
Barricade
