NATOPS Question Bank. Not complete yet

  1. What is the EA‐18G basic weight?
    33,733lb
  2. What is the takeoff gross weight (operating weight plus full internal fuel, and 2 AIM‐120s)?
    50,000lb
  3. What is military thrust of the F414‐GE‐400 engine?
    13,900lb
  4. What is afterburner thrust of the F414‐GE‐400 engine?
    20,700lb
  5. When will you get engine ignition?
        a.
        b.
        c.
        d.
    a. N2 rpm is between 10% and 45% during engine start.

    b. Flameout occurs

    c. Throttle is advanced into afterburner, remaining on until afterburner light off is sensed.

    d. Any wing pylon mounted A/A or forward firing A/G weapon is launched. Ignition remains on for 5 seconds.
  6. True/False: Afterburner ignition is activated anytime main engine ignition is commanded.
    True
  7. How is a limited amount of fuel provided for negative G or inverted flight?
    Each feed tank has a horizontal baffle which traps fuel, providing a minimum of 10 seconds of negative g flight at MAX power.
  8. True/False: The EA‐18G's IDLE rpm is the same on the ground as inflight.
    False
  9. Which one of the following caution and advisory displays will not activate the “engine left (right)” voice alert?
         a. L or R OVRSPD
         b. L or R EGT HIGH
         c. L or R BOOST LO
         d. L or R OIL PR
    c. L or R BOOST LO
  10. What are the modes of operation of the automatic throttle control (ATC)?
         a.
         b.
    • a. Approach 
    • b. Cruise
  11. What conditions must be met to engage the approach mode of the automatic throttle control?
         a.
    FLAP switch in HALF or FULL
  12. What conditions must be met to engage the cruise mode of the automatic throttle control?
         a.
         b.
    a. FLAP switch in AUTO

    b. Pressing and releasing the ATC button on the left throttle
  13. Which fuel tanks are transfer tanks?
         a.
         b.
         c.
    • a. Tank 1
    • b. Tank 4
    • c. Wing Tank
  14. Which fuel tanks are feed tanks?
         a.
         b.
    • a. Tank 2
    • b. Tank 3
  15. Normal internal fuel is transferred using . . . .
    motive flow
  16. External fuel is transferred by . . . .
    regulated engine bleed air pressure
  17. True/False: With EXT TANKS switch in stop transfer and HOOK handle down, fuel will transfer when FUEL LO caution display comes on.
    True
  18. What two fuel valves close when an engine FIRE light is pressed?
         a.
         b.
    • a. Engine feed shutoff valve
    • b. Crossfeed valve
  19. List four events which individually will cause fuel dump to stop.
         a.
         b.
         c.
         d.
    a. The DUMP switch is placed to OFF

    b. The BINGO caution comes on

    c. Tanks 1 and 4 are empty and all available fuel from internal wing and external tanks has been depleted

    d. The FUEL LO caution comes on.
  20. True/False: The fuel low level indicating system is completely independent of the fuel quantity indicating system.
    True
  21. What fuel state illuminates the FUEL LO light, MASTER CAUTION light, and activates fuel low voice alert?
    The fuel level in either feed tank drops to approximately 1,125lb
  22. True/False: There is no voice alert associated with BINGO fuel.
    False
  23. Either AMAD may be driven pneumatically through an . . . . by the APU, opposite engine bleed air, or external air.
    Air Turbine Starter (ATS)
  24. AMAD mechanically drives a ........., ........., and..........
    Fuel motive flow/boost pump, an ac/dc electrical generator, and a 3,000/5,000 psi hydraulic pump
  25. True/False: Operation of APU is totally automatic after the APU switch is placed ON.
    True
  26. What provides electrical power for APU ignition and start control circuits?
    Aircraft Battery
  27. What is used to start the APU?
    A hydraulic motor powered by the APU accumulator
  28. True/False: If ATS caution is on when a DDI comes on, shut down the affected engine to avoid starter damage
    True
  29. What is the cockpit warning of a single TR failure?
    No indication
  30. What is indicated by the BATT SW light coming on in the air with the BATT switch on?
    The caution cannot be set under this circumstance
  31. What seven circuit breakers are located in the cockpit?
    • 1. LAUNCH BAR
    • 2. FCS CHAN 2
    • 3. FCS CHAN 1
    • 4. FCS CHAN 3
    • 5. FCS CHAN 4
    • 6. HOOK
    • 7. LG
  32. True/False: The exterior lights master switch must be on for operation of the position and formation lights, but not for the strobe lights
    False
  33. What failure(s) will illuminate the emergency instrument light and the BATT SW caution light?
    a. BATT switch is ON on the ground in the absence of ac power (first engine start). Battery is depleting and the switch should be placed to OFF unless APU start is about to be made

    b. BATT switch is OFF inflight. (Switch should be placed to ON to provide essential bus backup capability from the PMGs and the battery.)
  34. The right or HYD system 2 provides power to:
    • a. Hook
    • b. Refuel probe
    • c. Normal gear
    • d. Launch bar
    • e. NWS
    • f. Anti-skid
    • g. Normal brakes
  35. What are the primary flight controls?
    • 1. Leading edge flaps
    • 2. Trailing edge flaps
    • 3. Ailerons
    • 4. Twin rudders
    • 5. Horizontal stabilators
    • 6. Spoilers
  36. What does pressing the T/O TRIM button in flight do?
    Drives roll trim to neutral, centers the RUD TRIM knob, but does not affect pitch trim
  37. What is the FCS RESET button used for?
    Following detection of FCS related hardware and/or software failures (e.g., FCS Xs and/or BLIN codes), pushing the FCS RESET button commands a reset of FCC failure detection circuitry.
  38. With the SPIN switch in NORM, when will the spin recovery mode be activated?
    • A spin is declared when both of the following conditions are met:
    •      
    •      (1) airspeed is below approximately 120 ±15 KCAS and
    •      
    •      (2) the yaw rate threshold is exceeded.
  39. On takeoff, accelerating with the FLAP switch in HALF, at what speed will the flaps begin AUTO scheduling?
    240 KCAS
  40. True/False: Once EMERG has been selected on FCS COOL switch, selection of NORM will switch FCC A and right TR cooling back to avionics air.
    False
  41. Rudder toe‐in is a function of FLAP switch position and . . . with maximum toe‐in being . . ..
    Rudder toe‐in is a function of FLAP switch position and AOA with maximum toe‐in being 40°
  42. True/False: Stabilator position on the FCS status display on the DDI shows a (+) for trailing edge up (or nose up), and a (-) for trailing edge down (or nose down).
    False
  43. What occurs with LDG GEAR handle UP, airspeed below 175 KCAS, altitude less than 7,500 feet, and rateof descent greater than 250 feet per minute?
         a.
         b.
    • a. Landing gear warning light
    • b. Flashing light in LDG gear handle
  44. True/False: Pressing and holding the nosewheel steering button a second time will select the high mode (±75°)and NWS HI is displayed on the HUD.
    True
  45. True/False: The HOOK light remains on except when the hook is up and latched.
    False
  46. Normally, what kind of power is needed to fold or spread the wings?
    DC - locks and unlocks

    AC - spreads and folds
  47. Is it normal to have L PITOT HT and R PITOT HT cautions displayed on the DDI while on the ground with PITOT heat switch in AUTO?
    No
  48. What will the standby attitude indicator be powered by if the right 115 volt ac bus fails?
    An inverter operating off the essential 28 volts dc bus.
  49. The APU fire detection/extinguishing systems operates from . . . . power, provided the . . . . switch is ON.
    The APU fire detection/extinguishing systems operates from 28vdc essential bus power, provided the BATT switch is ON.
  50. The bleed air shutoff valves are closed when the FIRE and bleed air test switch is placed to TEST A and TEST B positions. How do you get the valves back open?
         a.
         b.
    • a. Cycle BLEED AIR knob off
    • b. Cycle BLEED AIR knob back to NORM
  51. True/False: The canopy can be jettisoned in the closed position only.
    False
  52. Why would you not pull the manual override handle in flight before ejection?
    Pulling the manual override handle automatically rotates the ejection seatsafe/armed handle to the SAFE position, releases the survival kitattachment lugs and leg restraint lines, and unlocks the inertia reel. If thisis done inflight, the aircrew will be unable to eject
  53. What conditions must be met to utilize the EMERG JETT button?
         a.
         b.
    • a. LDG GEAR handle up
    • b. WoffW
  54. The . . . . switch must be in the . . . . position to use the selective jettison system.
    The MASTER ARM switch must be in the ARM position to use the selective jettison system.
  55. What occurs when the unlighted MASTER CAUTION light is pressed?
    Pressing the MASTER CAUTION when it is unlighted causes the uncorrected caution and advisory displays to reposition to the left and to a lower level, provided there is available space vacated by corrected caution and advisory displays.
  56. True/False: For cautions with voice alert, the master caution tone comes on after the voice alert.
    False
  57. What two ways can you stop any BIT test in progress and return the equipment to normal operation?
         a.
         b.
    • a. Pressing STOP
    • b. Pressing MENU
  58. What two systems require additional switchology other than pressing the associated button when performing initiated BIT checks?
         a.
         b.
    • a. FCS
    • b. SMS
  59. What is the fuel quantity of tank 1?
    • JP-5: 1,430
    • JP-8: 1,410
  60. True/False: The rear cockpit does not have an internal canopy switch or an internal manual canopy handcrank.
    False
  61. True/False: There are provisions for normal landing gear extension from the rear cockpit.
    False
  62. The leg restraint lines must be buckled at all times during flight to ensure . . . . and to enhance ....
    The leg restraint lines must be buckled at all times during flight to ensure that the legs will be pulled back upon ejection and to enhance seat stability
  63. Failure to route the restraint lines properly through the garters could cause: . . . ..
    Failure to route the restraint lines properly through the garters could cause serious injury during ejection/emergency egress
  64. True/False: High gain nosewheel steering should be used on takeoff roll up to 50 KIAS.
    False
  65. On a section takeoff, turns into the wingman will not be made at altitudes less than . . . . feet AGL.
    On a section takeoff, turns into the wingman will not be made at altitudes less than 500 feet AGL.
  66. True/False: The second section may commence the takeoff roll after the first section has rolled 1,000 feet.
    False
  67. True/False: Before descent it is necessary to preheat the windshield by increasing defog airflow.
    True
  68. True/False: For optimum braking above 40 KIAS, with anti‐skid, full brake pressure should be used.
    True
  69. True/False: Ensure anti‐skid is OFF for all shipboard operations.
    True
  70. Nosewheel steering low mode (may/may not) be engaged while the launch bar is down (circle correct answer).
    Nosewheel steering low mode (MAY/may not) be engaged while the launch bar is down (circle correct answer).
  71. A carrier landing pattern starts with a level break at . . . . . feet, on the . . . . bow of the ship.
    A carrier landing pattern starts with a level break at 800 feet, on the starboard bow of the ship.
  72. True/False: The seat rocket thrusters may ignite spilled fuel or hydraulic fluid and may injure ground crew in the immediate vicinity.
    False (CANOPY JETT rocket thrusters may ignite spilled fuel or hydraulic fluid and may injure ground crew in the immediate vicinity)
  73. True/False: If you must land with the launch bar extended, you should request that the field arresting gear cables be removed.
    True
  74. A time critical situation exists if you have directional control problems during takeoff. If you suspect nosewheel steering failure, the first thing you should do is . . . . .
    A time critical situation exists if you have directional control problems during takeoff. If you suspect nosewheel steering failure, the first thing you should do is EMERG BRK handle — PULL TO DETENT (if required).
  75. If the aircraft begins to settle after a catapult launch and the settling cannot be stopped you must . . . ..
    If the aircraft begins to settle after a catapult launch and the settling cannot be stopped you must EJECT
  76. What are the emergency procedures if you have lost thrust on takeoff?
    • 1. Throttles - MAX
    • 2. Flap Switch - HALF
    • 3. Maintain on-speed AOA and balanced flight
    • 4. LDG GEAR handle - UP (if required)
    • 5. EMERG JETT button - PUSH (if required)
  77. True/False: It is unlikely that a blown nose tire will FOD an engine.
    False
  78. During flight brief consideration of takeoff abort possibilities, the following items should be considered.
         a. Weight
         b. Speed
         c. Runway length remaining
         d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  79. When making an arrested abort, allow time for the arresting hook to extend; as a guide, lower the hook . . . .feet before the cable.
    When making an arrested abort, allow time for the arresting hook to extend; as a guide, lower the hook 1,000 feet before the cable.
  80. If the landing gear fails to retract you should perform the following:
         a. Pull the landing gear (LG) control circuit breaker.
         b. Cycle the gear and pull negative g's.
         c. Put the LDG GEAR handle down and do not cycle.
         d. Press on — it's probably a false light.
    c. Put the LDG GEAR handle down and do not cycle.
  81. What two methods may be used to retain both hydraulic systems if the engine core is rotating:
         a.
         b.
    • a. Crank the APU
    • b. Crossbleed
  82. True/False: If the right engine is being rotated with crossbleed to provide normal systems operation and fuel flow on the left engine is reduced below 2,000 pph (as during landing) the right engine hydraulic pump may not provide sufficient flow for nosewheel steering and normal brakes
    True
  83. True/False: Most engine stalls are self clearing.
    True
  84. True/False: Engine stalls may produce audible bangs.
    True
  85. True/False: If a stalled engine will not clear, you may shut down the engine and attempt a restart.
    False
  86. What airspeed may be required to maintain 12% windmilling rpm?
    350 KCAS
  87. True/False: Engine crossbleed may not be used to achieve a 12% rpm for engine restart.
    False
  88. With one engine windmilling below 12%, the remaining engine should be operated at or above . . . . % rpm and . . . . PPH fuel flow to utilize the crossbleed airstart capability.
    With one engine windmilling below 12%, the remaining engine should be operated at or above 80 % rpm and . . . . PPH fuel flow to utilize the crossbleed airstart capability.
Author
dcbailo
ID
317691
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NATOPS Question Bank. Not complete yet
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NATOPS question bank. Not complete yet
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