DH139 Final Flashcards

  1. The most common medical emergency in the dental office is:



    C. transient loss of consciousness
  2. Your patient is seated in your dental chair explaining that the reason
    they haven’t been in for three years is due to their extreme fear of
    dental procedures.  As you start to scale their teeth their eyes roll
    back in their head and they lose consciousness. Which of the following
    would most likely confirm that their syncopal event was related to
    psychogenic vasodepressor syncope?



    B. Their pulse has dropped from their base line of 76 to 52 beats per minute
  3. In a healthy individual when the carotid baroreceptors are stimulated by stretch, external pressure or vigorous coughing the result is to:



    A. produce systemic vasodilation
  4. As your young healthy patient is walking with you
    back to your operatory you note they appear anxious. They self-report
    feeing suddenly light-headed and dizzy. Which of the following is your
    patient most likely experiencing?Select one:



    A. Vasodepressor presyncope
  5. Which the following is true

     Select one:



    A. Nitroglycerine can effectively relieve the symptoms associated with stable angina
  6. Which of the following is a false statement
     Select one:



    C. Subendothelial myocardial infarction involves the rupture of the fibrous cap and arterial blockage
  7. Your patient has a history of systemic
    hypertension and pulmonary edema. They complain that due to shortness of
    breath in a supine position, they are only able to sleep in their
    reclining chair. Other signs and symptoms include: dyspnea, orthopnea,
    fatigue, cyanosis, and rales. They most likely have:Select one:




    C. Congestive Heart Failure: left ventricular failure
  8. Atherosclerosis

     Select one:



    C. can begin in childhood and is exacerbated by genetic and environmental factors.
  9. Your patient, who has a history of angina, is
    experiencing chest pain during a dental office visit. You have activated
    your office emergency team and halted dental treatment. You have
    assessed the patient is breathing with circulation. Which of the
    following should you do next:
     Select one:



    A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerine
  10. Your dental patient has a history of pulmonary
    semilunar valve stenosis and COPD. Currently, they present with:
    shortness of breath, elevated systemic venous pressures, distended
    jugular veins and pitting edema in the lower extremities. They most
    likely have:
    Select one:



    A. Right ventricular failure
  11. Which of the following patients can safely take nitroglycerine for anginal pain:Select one:



    A. 62-year-old woman with history of emphysema and Cushing's
  12. Which of the following clients is at high risk of postural hypotension.



    C. Kyle, age 49, History of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and atrial fibrillation
  13. Your patient with no
    history of angina suddenly experiences intense chest pain during a
    dental office visit. You have followed the proper procedures for
    managing this emergency. What should be done immediately following
    activation of EMS?



    A. administer oxygen and aspirin
  14. Which of the following statements is false:



    C. During a myocardial infarction men most commonly experience nausea and referred back pain as primary symptoms.
  15. Your patient, with no history angina, suddenly
    experiences intense chest pain during a dental office visit. Which of
    the following should you do first:




    C. Activate the emergency medical systems
  16. The first stage in the pathogenesis of Atherosclerosis involves:



    C. Endothelial dysfunction and LDL accumulation
  17. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the Chain of Survival in regards to cardiac arrest:




    D. Activation of EMS; Early BLS/CPR; Early Defibrillation; Effective Advanced Cardiac Life Support
  18. You are seeing a new patient for the first time.
    Which of the following information should you gather concerning your new
    client.





    F. All of these
  19. When going over your clients health history you
    see that they marked 'yes' for Rheumatic Heart Disease. You suspect that
    the client might have which cluster of signs and/or symptoms:



    D. Joint pain and subcutaneous nodules at joints
  20. Which of the following is most likely to put an individual at risk of syncope:



    C. Aortic valve stenosis
  21. Which of the following is used by patients with asthma to prevent acute episodes of bronchospasm?



    D. corticosteroid inhaler
  22. Hyperventilating patients should be instructed to:



    • A. cup their hands in front of their mouth and nose and breathe in and out
    • OR
    • d. breathe into a paper bag
  23. Which of the following statements is false:



    A. distributive (vasogenic) shock is related to factors that increase vascular tone
  24. Which of the following is not a sign typically associated with active TB




    A. weight gain
  25. Uticaria and pruritus indicate:



    A. an allergic reaction
  26. When an object enters the oropharynx of a patient seated in the supine position and it is visible, you should do which of the following:



    B. move the chair into a more reclined position while the assistant picks up intubation forceps
  27. Acute asthma is characterized by:




    A. all of the above
  28. Which of the following is a true statement:
    a. Prophylactic administration of aspirin is advised for asthmatic patients with nasal polyps and pansinusitis
    b. Nitrous oxide-oxygen sedation is not considered a respiratory depressant or bronchial irritant and is safe to use in managing anxious patients with asthma
    c. Tachypnea, diaphoresis, slow HR and use of accessory respiratory muscles are all signs of an acute asthma attack
    d. Beclomethasone (Beclovent, Qvar) is most effective for immediate management of acute episodes of asthma.
    b. Nitrous oxide-oxygen sedation is not considered a respiratory depressant or bronchial irritant and is safe to use in managing anxious patients with asthma
  29. Rapid breathing, precordial pain, muscle cramping, peripheral paresthesias, and muscle tetany are noted in which of the following?



    B. hyperventilation
  30. An acute asthma attack is commonly treated with inhaled:



    C. B2 agonists
  31. Choose the false statement regarding TB:



    B. once diagnosed, TB is typically treated with a 10-day course of antibiotics
  32. Which of the following is a true statement:



    A. the most common cause of chronic obstructive bronchitis is inhalation of cigarette smoke
  33. IgE antibodies are primarily involved in:



    D. anaphylactic reactions
  34. As this disease progresses the patient demonstrates increased mucus production, related to mucous gland hyperplasia. They exhibit a chronic, productive cough of three months duration for at least 2 consecutive years. The diagnosis is:



    C. Chronic Obstructive Bronchitis
  35. Which of the following is a correct definition of status asthmaticus:



    D. Bronchospasm that persists despite the administration of 2 doses of bronchodilator
  36. Which of the following would not contribute to an exacerbation of shock:



    B. All would contribute to the exacerbation of shock
  37. The S/S (wheezing, breathlessness, cough, chest tightness) of this pathology may be triggered by allergens, exercise or dander:
    a. Congestive Heart Failure
    b. Emphysema
    c. Tuberculosis
    d. Bronchial Asthma
    d. Bronchial Asthma
  38. Which of the following remains an indication for use of a combination of chest thrust and back blows (slaps)?




    C. total airway obstruction in a conscious infant
  39. Contact dermatitis would be an example of which of the following reactions:



    A. cell-mediated
  40. Your adult client takes a prophylactic dose of penicillin just prior to treatment. While in the dental chair they exhibit rapid onset of respiratory distress and a drop in BP. Additionally their skin demonstrates erythema, urticaria, and pruritus. Which of the following actions would not be indicated in this scenario.




    C. retrieve the defibrillator from the front reception area
  41. Activation of the baroreceptor reflex due to a drop in blood volume during the non-progressive stage of shock is an example of:



    D. neural compensation
  42. Which of the following should be used for the emergency treatment of a delayed-onset, mild allergic skin reaction



    A. Diphrenhydramine (Benedryl)
  43. Asthmatic patients, as a group, may be sensitive to the _______ contained in dental local anesthetic cartridges?



    D. bisulfite preservative for the vasoconstrictor
  44. Which of the following questions should be asked of the patient with asthma during the medical history review?





    E. All questions listed are important and shoudl be asked
  45. Which of the following is not an effect of epinephrine administration?




    A. a decrease in systolic blood pressure
  46. Intrinsic asthma: (choose 2)
    a. usually develops in children
    b. in precipitated by non-allergic factors
    c. usually develops in adult older than 35 years
    • b. in precipitated by non-allergic factors
    • c. usually develops in adult older than 35 years
  47. ____ is/are the most common predisposing factor(s) for hyperventilation.



    D. acute anxiety
  48. Which of the following is a false statement:



    D. during the irreversible stage of shock interventional therapies are sufficient to save a person's life
  49. Individuals with ___ asthma have history of allergies
    a. extrinsic
    b. neither intrinsic or extrinsic
    c. either extrinsic or intrinsic
    d. intrinsic
    a. extrinsic
  50. As recommended by the CDC, dental patients with TB should only be treated if:



    D. all of the above
  51. Which of the following is not a mode of action of Epi in treating anaphylactic shock?



    B. alpha 1 receptors on cardiac myocytes increasing strength of cardiac contraction
  52. H. Pylori is found in dental plaque and may be a reservoir of infection along the digestive tract, leading to recurrence of peptic ulcers or difficulty in management. Current medications and antibiotics for the patient with peptic ulcer disease need to be carefully reviewed due to possible complications



    D. both statements are true
  53. S/s of pseudomembranous colitis include all of the following except:



    A. myalgia
  54. Chronic hyperglycemia is seen in patients with diabetes leads to microvascular changes. Which of the following complications can be seen as a result of these changes: 1. retinopathy 2. accelerated atherosclerosis 3. increase incidence of seizures 4. chronic kidney disease 5. loss of tactile sensation
    a. 1, 2, 4, 5
    b. 1, 2, 3
    c. 3, 4, 5
    d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    a. 1, 2, 4, 5
  55. The tongue is most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive person. The best way to lift the tongue away from the back of throat is to use the head tilt-chin lift if there is no apparent neck injury.



    D. both statements are true
  56. An A1c reading less than 7%, in a patient with diabetes, would indicate that he or she is well controlled. The lower the A1c, the higher the risk of developing complications related to diabetes.



    A. the first statement is true and the second statement is false
  57. Baseline date include which of the following:



    A. respiration, blood pressure, pulse
  58. Types of diabetes dependent on exogenous insulin


    C. Type 1
  59. Type of diabetes characterized by insulin resistance and a progressive insulin secretory deficit:


    B. Type 2
  60. Type of diabetes caused by destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to insulin deficiency:


    C. Type 1
  61. Type of diabetes that tends to occur in young, lean individuals with onset usually before age 30.


    B. Type 1
  62. Type of diabetes that has a strong correlation with obesity, diet and sedentary lifestyle


    A. Type 2
  63. Occurs during pregnancy and can be indicator for later development of diabetes type 2


    A. Gestational diabetes
  64. Accounts for 10% of the cases of diabetes


    A. Type 1
  65. Type of diabetes typically non-insulin dependent and insulin resistance develops later in life


    A. Type 2
  66. (T/F) Establishing or maintaining an airway is one of the most important steps in managing a medical emergency.
    True
  67. For patients with Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis, elective dental procedures can be performed at any time. These patients may have a tendency toward developing aphthous-like ulcers.



    A. the first statement is false and the second statement is true
  68. (T/F) Cadiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can be described as: emergency care performed to restore and maintain breathing and circulation and to provide oxygen and blood flow to the heart, brain, and other vital organs.
    True
  69. The primary therapeutic value of nitroglycerin is related to its ability to:



    D. cause vasodilation
  70. During an emergency that require CPR on an adult patient, which artery should be checked to asses for circulation?
    Carotid artery
  71. Your patient Hal is a large adult male. At the beginning of treatment you took an alginate impression of his dentition. What medication and what initial dose should be administered to your patient when he begins to experience a mild allergic skin reaction at the end of his appointment



    A. 50 mg of oral Benadryl
  72. Aspirin is a thromolytic agent. Your patient is experiencing first time chest pain, and you suspect MI. What is the proper dose and administration of aspirin for this patient:



    C. 325 mg non-enteric coated, chewed and swallowed
  73. You are seeing a recall patient that you have been providing routine
    hygiene care for during the last 2 years. You ask if there are any
    changes to her medical history and she replies "no." As you prepare to
    begin treatment you ask some additional questions. You inquire if the
    patient has been in the hospital since her last dental appointment 6
    months ago. She replies "yes." With further questions you find out she
    was in the hospital 6 weeks ago after experiencing a 'mild' heart
    attack. What is your next course of action?



    A. Explain the need and reschedule this elective treatment until it has been at least 6 months after the MI
  74. Oral complications of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus may include:
    a. xerostomia
    b. poor wound healing
    c. higher incidence of periodontal disease
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  75. Which of the following is not a S/s of Inflammatory bowel disease?




    C. weight gain
  76. Signs of mild hypoglycemia include confusion, disorientation, nausea, irritability, hunger, weakness, and pallor. There is no need for concern or management of the condition until the patient's progress to tachycardia, diaphoresis and unusual behavior.



    B. the first statement is true. The second statement is false.
  77. A patient reports a history of angina on their medical history form. They are experiencing pain or pressure in the chest are during dental treatment. Which of the following is an appropriate management technique for this patient?



    B. administer 1 tab or spray of sublingual nitroglycerine (a max. of 3 tablets or sprays in 10 minutes)
  78. The most common medical emergency complication of Diabetes Type 1 or 2 is:




    A. Hypoglycemia
  79. Which of the following statements regarding peptic ulcer disease is false:



    C. the primary causative agent is gram-positive, rod-shaped bacterium that is spread via droplet transmission
  80. Which of the following describes Type 1 diabetes?



    D. deficit in insulin secretion
  81. Which of the following are not s/s of MI?
    a. pain described as heavy and crushing on the middle to upper sternum
    b. all are signs and symptoms of MI
    c. shortness of breath, palpitations and nausea
    d. cold sweat, weakness and faintness
    e. back, neck and jaw pain
    b. all are signs and symptoms of MI
  82. What can be used to help manage almost any urgent medical emergency?
    Oxygen
  83. All of the following are ways to prevent a diabetic emergency except:



    D. schedule late afternoon appointments
  84. If a patient has completely recovered from viral hepatitis no special drug or treatment planning modifications are required. If a patient has chronic active hepatitis, consultation with a physician is recommended for treatment planning.



    B. both statements are true
  85. When considering medical emergencies in the dental office, who is the most likely to have some type of emergency event?




    D. it can happen to anyone at any time
  86. S/s of hypoglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis?

    1. sweaty, cold, wet appearance to skin
    Hypoglycemia
  87. S/s of hypoglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis?

    1. Hot, dry appearance of the skin
    diabetic ketoacidosis
  88. S/s of hypoglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis?

    1. slow onset of symptoms
    diabetic ketoacidosis
  89. S/s of hypoglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis?

    1. acetone (fruity, sweet) breath
    diabetic ketoacidosis
  90. S/s of hypoglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis?

    1. rapid onset of symptoms
    hypoglycemia
  91. Why should all health care providers be vaccinated against Hep-B?




    D. Chance of contracting HBV after accidental needle stick is about 40%
  92. Acute asthma is characterized by:



    A. all answers are correct
  93. List in order the steps to manage the following medical emergency: Patient is experiencing chest pain, no indication of heart problems on medical history. They begin sweating, report pain in their arm and jaw and you notice pallor.
    • 1. Terminate treatment and place patient in a comfortable position
    • 2. Activate EMS
    • 3. Start oxygen and epinephrine
    • 4. monitor and record vitals
    • 5. continue to monitor vitals until EMS arrives, be prepared to begin CPR
  94. The two primary causes of peptic ulcer disease are:



    B. regular use of NSAIDS and infection of H. pylori bacteria
  95. Your patient is a 65 year old woman with poorly controlled diabetes type 1. She has active periodontal disease. Which of the following is/are appropriate components of her periodontal treatment plan: (may be more than 1 answer)
    a. educate the patient regarding the correlation between poorly controlled diabetes and the impact on oral health
    b. reinforce the importance of good personal oral hygiene
    c. maintain periodontal maintenance appointments every 6-12 months
    e. all of the above
    • a. be sure to educate the patient regarding the correlation between poorly controlled diabetes and the impact on oral health
    • b. reinforce the importance of good personal oral hygiene
  96. COPD is a transient respiratory disorder. The most common contributing behavior to COPD is a history of cigarette smoking.



    D. the first statement is false and the second statement is true
  97. List in the proper order the steps for managing anaphylactic shock including: monitor vitals, oxygen, C-A-B, epi- EMS, positioning patient.
    • 1. position patient supine position with feet elevated
    • 2. assess circulation, airway, and breathing
    • 3. Activate EMS
    • 4. administer Epinephrine
    • 5. administer oxygen
    • 6. monitor vitals
  98. Which of the following is false regarding management concerns for patient with hepatitis?



    D. Patients with cirrhosis and/or alcoholic liver disease are at increased risk of clot formation
  99. Which of the following statements is false regarding pseudomembranous colitis?
    a. it is associated with high doses of antibiotics or long regimens, indicating a need for judicious administration of antibiotics by the medical and dental communities
    b. the causative agent is C. difficile
    c. bacterial toxins lead to mucosal necrosis of the GI
    d. it is not highly contagious as the causative agent does not survive well on environmental surfaces
    d. it is not highly contagious as the causative agent does not survive well on environmental surfaces
  100. What is diabetes type 2 most commonly treated with?






    F. Glucophage (metformin)
  101. What is peptic ulcer disease most commonly treated with?






    D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
  102. What is asthma most commonly treated with?






    C. albuterol
  103. What is MI most commonly treated with?






    F. aspirin
  104. What is angina most commonly treated with?






    D. nitrogylcerine
  105. What is anaphylactic shock most commonly treated with?






    B. epinephrine
  106. What is diabetes type 1 most commonly treated with?






    E. Insulin injections (Humalog)
  107. If an adult is conscious and showing signs of airway obstruction what is the proper order of steps to take:


    B. assess for airway obstruction, perform abdominal thrusts, call 911 if patient becomes unconscious
  108. A 52-year old man with diabetes II that is well controlled arrives for a
    9 am appointment for extraction. He has taken his oral medication as
    usual. He was advised by a friend not to eat before having oral surgery.
    He is given an injection of lidocaine containing 1:100,000 epi to block
    the IA nerve. About 5 minutes after the injection he has the following
    symptoms: sweating, pallor, hunger, trembling, headache, dizziness and
    weakness. His pulse rate is 105 and BP 135/85. Symptoms do not improve
    after placed supine. What is the most probable condition?



    A. hypoglycemia
  109. Syncope is one of the most common medical emergencies in the dental office. Please identify the primary steps in managing a syncope event in the proper order: including:
     positioning, C-A-B, oxygen, monitoring vitals, returning patient to sitting position
    • 1. position patient supine with feet elevated
    • 2. assess circulation, airway and breathing
    • 3. administer oxygen
    • 4. monitor patient vitals as they recover
    • 5. slowly return patient to sitting position in the chair and attempt to determine cause of event
  110. The most common cause of cardiac arrest is:



    D. Coronary artery disease
  111. Which of the following is not a s/s of acute viral hepatitis:
    a. pruritus
    b. lethargy
    c. bloody diarrhea
    d. jaundice
    e. myalgia
    c. bloody diarrhea
  112. In general the cause for adult cardiac arrest is ventricular fibrillation. The cause is defibrillation. The best course of action for an unresponsive victim who is not breathing or only gasping is to:



    B. Call 911 and get AED, check pulse, begin cycles of compressions and breaths, attach AED upon arrival
  113. Your patient Jim presents with a history of semi-regular alcohol
    consumption and a recent diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease with NO
    presence of H. pylori. His only current medication is famotidine
    (Pepcid) prescribed to treat his condition. The dentist has performed
    her exam and recommended antibiotics to treat infection of #30. The
    patient states he has taken 4 ibuprofen (NSAID) 304 times daily for the
    past two weeks for pain, and would like to continue this until pain
    subsides. What are your potential concerns regarding this patient? (Choose 2)


    • C. The patient's peptic ulcer medication famotidine (Pepcid) may lead to xerostomia
    • c. the patient's alcohol consumption and use of ibuprofen may result in gastrointestinal bleeding
  114. For a conscious patient experiencing a hypoglycemic reaction, what is the indicated medical emergency management of this situation in a dental office?



    B. position the patient upright and administer 3-4 ounces of oral carbohydrates every 5-10 minutes until patient recovers
  115. You have determined that an unresponsive victim has a pulse, but is not breathing or has very slow shallow breaths. You begin rescue breathing. What is the proper interval for rescue breaths for an adult?



    B. 1 breath every 5-6
  116. The acceptable range for fasting blood glucose levels for a patient with diabetes is 80-200 mg/dl. A 2 hour postprandial blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl or higher should be referred to a physician.



    D. the first statement is false and the second statement is true
  117. Many medical conditions have similar characteristics. Verbally reviewing the medical history with the patient prior to treatment allows the hygienist to identify areas of concern and potential emergencies.



    C. both statements are true
  118. The s/s (wheezing, breathlessness, cough, chest tightness) of this pathology may be triggered by allergens, exercise or dander:



    B. bronchial asthma
  119. Which of the following oral conditions are potential complications of peptic ulcer disease: (choose 2 or more)
    a. increased salivary production related to medications
    b. fungal infections related to antibiotic use
    c. enamel erosion related to regurgitation of gastric secretions
    e. all of the above
    • b. fungal infections related to antibiotic use
    • c. enamel erosion related to regurgitation of gastric secretions
  120. (T/F) Cirrhosis of the liver is only caused by excessive alcohol consumption.
    False
  121. When should EMS be called if a patient is experiencing a seizure during dental care?




    E. if the seizure lasts 5 minutes
  122. A/n___ consist of a solid mass of platelets and/or fibrin that forms locally in a vessel when the clotting mechanism is activated:



    A. thrombus
  123. What is the etiology of Hemophilia?



    D. genetic disorder
  124. Hemophilia is a deficiency in which of the following:



    B. serum proteins
  125. The client with a history of hemophilia is not at risk for hemorrhage after oral healthcare procedures. Most clients tolerate dental procedures well with medical managements involving, the administration of drugs to decrease bleeding or infusion of platelets or plasma containing clotting factors.



    B. the first statement is false and the second statement is true
  126. Which of the following is not typically a s/s of end-stage renal disease or chronic renal failure:
    a. malnutrition
    b. hypotension
    c. hyperpigmentation
    d. anemia
    b. hypotension
  127. What ASA classification would be indicated for a patient with history of seizures that are well controlled by medication with no acute seizure within the past 3 months. There are no other significant medical history conditions.




    D. ASA II
  128. Following a stroke or TIA, the patient must wait ___ before elective dental treatment.



    C. 6 months
  129. Which of the following is not considered a major risk factor for a cerebrovascular accident:



    C. hepatitis
  130. After positioning the patient and quickly assessing circulation, airway, breathing, which of the following would be most important to do first if your patient demonstrates signs of a stroke:



    D. activate EMS
  131. Which one of these is not an effective way to speak with a patient who has suffered a stroke?



    B. raise your voice while talking
  132. All of the following modifications to dental treatment are appropriate for the patient with cancer except:




    B. all of these answers are appropriate
  133. Patients who undergo chemo for acute leukemia are not at an increased risk for oral infections. All patients who undergo chemo for cancer will experience oral complications that are directly related to chemotherapy drug acitivity.



    A. both statements are false
  134. Side effects of HIV meds may include all of the following except:




    B. chest pain with inhalation
  135. Which of following is not an oral manifestation of HIV infection?




    A. increased salivary flow
  136. Your new patient Rhonda reports on her medical history that she chronically does not feel well, and she has not seen a physician or dentist in many years. She experiences symptoms of weight loss, fever, and malaise. She complains that her tongue has also been very "coated". Upon IO/EO exam, you note enlarged bilateral cervical and auricular lymph nodes. You also note her tongue is covered with white, curd like plaque that easily wipes off. Lastly, you not a large red to purplish brown macule on the attached gingiva adjacent to #2-3. What do you suspect the two intraoral findings to be and what systemic condition do you suspect your patient is suffering from?


    C. pseudomembranous candidiasis; kaposi sarcoma; HIV/AIDS
  137. Which of the following is a primary cause of chronic kidney disease:



    D. diabetes mellitus
  138. The clinical manifestations of this type of cerebrovascular accident features gradual onset of s/s, it also is frequently proceeded by transient ischemic attacks:



    A. cerebral infarction
  139. The following are appropriate modifications of dental treatment for a patient with hemophilia except:




    D. use of aspirin or NSAIDS for pain control
  140. A patient with a history of seizures may be precipitating factors. The dental clinician's familiarity of these may help minimize the risk factors for the patient during treatment. Precipitating factors may include:



    B. all answers may be correct
  141. Before chemo for the patient with cancer begins, patients should have all dental procedures, such as extractions, completed:



    B. at least one week prior to starting chemo
  142. S/s of lupus include which of the following?
    a. butterfly rash across nose and cheeks, photosensitivity
    b. swollen joints, fatigue
    c. fever, weight loss
    e. all answers are correct
    e. all answers are correct
  143. Patients with advanced HIV infection or aids may demonstrate all of the following lab values except:



    B. an increased WBC count
  144. (T/F) Lupus is an autoimmune disease that mostly affects women.
    True
  145. If a patient with a history of seizures reports to you during treatment that they are beginning to experience their aura what should you do?
    a. utilize stress reduction protocols and finish treatment as soon as possible.
    b. remove instruments and obstructions away from the patient as they may be experiencing the beginning of a seizure
    d. continue treatment with lighter working strokes
    b. remove instruments and obstructions away from the patient as they may be experiencing the beginning of a seizure
  146. What is the desired therapeutic INR range for a client taking Coumadin in order to prevent thromboembolism but minimize risk of excessive bleeding:



    A. 2-3
  147. (T/F) Cancer can best be described as: "a group of neoplastic diseases in which there is a transformation of normal cells into malignant ones".
    True
  148. (T/F) A medical consultation with the patient's physician is advised for the patient with lupus because complications of lupus can vary greatly, affecting multiple systems.
    True
  149. What is the potential adverse effect of the seizure medication Dilantin (phenytoin)?



    D. gingival hyperplsia
  150. Which of the following is not appropriate homecare instruction for a parent of a young child:




    A. select a time for brushing and flossing when the child is very tired, as they will be too tired to object
  151. What precautions should you make as a dental professional, to prevent a medical emergency relating to osteoporosis?



    D. help patient in and out of the dental chair to avoid falls
  152. Dementia is a progressive decline in cognitive function due to damage or disease in the brain beyond what is expected due to aging. Patients with dementia exhibit deficits in memory, attention, language, and problem solving skills, which can lead to dependence on a caregiver for daily functioning.



    D. both statements are true
  153. Which of these are important factors to teach the patient with dentures: (choose 3)



    • B. dentures need to be left out of the mouth overnight to provide rest for the oral tissues
    • c. dentures should be cleaned after each meal and oral mucosa should be gently brushed or massaged digitally
    • d. dentures need to be adjusted, repaired, reclined, and remade periodically.
  154. What is the most common oral complication of pregnancy that is usually apparent by the second month?



    C. pregnancy gingivitis
  155. (T/F) a pyogenic granuloma is a benign tumor containing exudate and blood vessels with inflammatory cells.
    False
  156. Root surface caries is a major concern for the older adult patient. Which of the following recommendations is appropriate to reduce the risk for root surface caries? (choose 3)




    • D. effective daily biofilm removal
    • c. fluoride varnish application
    • e. regularly scheduled maintenance procedures
  157. All of the following may be barriers to infant and toddler dental care except:




    E. all of the above are barriers to care
  158. You have determined that an unresponsive child has an adequate pulse, but is not breathing or has very slow shallow breaths, and you should begin rescue breathing. What is the proper interval for rescue breaths for a pediatric patient?



    B. 1 breath every 3 seconds resulting in visible chest rise
  159. All of the following are true regarding managing the patient with dementia except:



    D. memory lapses should be exposed or confronted in order to clear up any patient confusion
  160. What condition can be caused by taking bisphonsphonates, a common medication for osteoporosis patients?



    B. osteonecrosis of the jaw
  161. Which of the following statements is not true regarding Supine Hypotensive Pregnancy Syndrome:



    A. it is caused by the compression of the aorta by the uterus in the pregnant patient
  162. Most pediatric medical emergencies in the dental environment are stress related (syncope, seizures, bronchospasm, hyperventilation). Emergencies associated with local anesthetic administration are much less likely to occur with a pediatric patient than with an adult patient:



    D. the first statement is true and the second statement is false
  163. Cardiac arrest in children is most often related to _____; if the child displays signs of poor perfusion (i.e. pallor, mottling, cyanosis) and pulse rate is less than __ beats per minute, chest compression should be initiated.



    A. lack of adequate respiration; 60
  164. When providing care for an infant or toddler, which of the following are key points of education regarding oral health to provide to the parent: (choose 3)




    • B. dental decay and gingivitis are transmissible from parent to child
    • d. pacifiers should not be 'cleaned' in the parent's mouth as bacteria is transmissible.
    • e. babies and toddlers should never be put to bed with a bottle, unless it contains water only.
  165. Female patient should all be screened for the possibility of pregnancy prior to taking radiographs, including girls of 12 years of age and women over 50. Radiographic exposures of the pregnant patient are avoided, unless they are required to diagnosis and provide treatment.
    a. both statements are true
    b. both statements are false
    c. the first statement is true and second statement is false
    d. the first statement is false and second statement is true
    a. both statements are true
  166. Oral treatment planning for older adults is based on which of the following considerations: (choose 3)



    • D. older adults develop recurrent decay and root caries at a rate higher than younger adult populations
    • c. generally speaking there is a higher degree of loss of attachment related to chronic periodontitis among older populations
    • d. the older adult population is at increased risk of chronic medical conditions and need for medications which contributes to oral diseases
  167. Patients with dementia have high levels of oral disease because they are unable to adequately take care of their own oral hygiene. Caretakers typically have little to no training in management techniques for oral healthcare for patients with dementia.



    C. both statements are true
  168. Which of the following are appropriate treatment plan modifications for the pregnant patient? (Choose 3)
    a. if analgesic medication is needed, recommend ibuprofen to manage pain
    b. implement dental hygiene care and education early in the pregnancy to optimize patient health and minimize oral infections
    c. educate the patient regarding rinsing with water after episodes or regurgitation to minimize enamel erosion
    d. advise the patient to avoid the use of fluoride as it can be hazardous to the fetus
    e. for the pregnant patients with periodontitis, provide education regarding the link between periodontitis and preterm delivery and low birth weight babies.
    • b. implement dental hygiene care and education early in the pregnancy to optimize patient health and minimize oral infections
    • c. educate the patient regarding rinsing with water after episodes or regurgitation to minimize enamel erosion
    • e. for the pregnant patients with periodontitis, provide education regarding the link between periodontitis and preterm delivery and low birth weight babies.
  169. What is the main consideration for treating a patient with an implanted pacemaker?



    C. electrical interference from dental devices such as ultrasonic scaling devices may interfere with the pacemaker
  170. When parents react towards the dental treatment of their child in a hysterical way the child will most likely:


    A. mirror their parent's behavior and become quite reactive
  171. Which of the following is not a barrier to dental care for the geriatric patient?




    E. all of the answers are potential barriers to care for the geriatric patient
  172. Which of the following is not a potential denture related oral change:
    a. loss of height of the alveolar ridge
    b. thinning of the masticatory mucosa and submucosa overlying the alveolar ridge
    c. increased sensitivity to small objects in the mouth
    d. decreased perception of taste
    e. all of the above are correct
    c. increased sensitivity to small objects in the mouth
  173. It is not safe to scale and polish during the first trimester of pregnancy. During all trimesters of pregnancy only urgent care should be provided.



    B. both statements are false
Author
EmilyPrice
ID
317168
Card Set
DH139 Final Flashcards
Description
Medical emergencies based on past quizzes
Updated