Microbiology Test 2 Study Guide

The study of the evolutionary history of life

The science of classifying and naming organisms

Matching characteristics of an “unknown” organism to lists of known organisms

A prokaryotic domain of life that is identified by the absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall

The eukaryotic domain of life

A prokaryotic domain of life that is identified by the presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall

Which of the following is false about scientific nomenclature?

A. Each name is specific
B. The names are standardized
C. Names vary with geographical location
D. It was designed by Linnaeus in the 1700s
E. Each name consists of a genus and specific epithet

Population of virions with similar characteristics that occupy a particular ecological niche

Closely related organisms that breed among themselves

Population of cells with similar characteristics that occupy a particular ecological niche

Provides phylogenetic information on bacteria and archaea

Population of prokaryotic cells derived from a single cell; a pure culture

Prokaryotic cells grown in laboratory media

Provides identification schemes for identifying bacteria and archaea

Genetically different cells within a clonal population

Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology differs from Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology in that the former?

A. Groups bacteria into species.
B. Groups bacteria according to phylogenetic
relationships.
C. Groups bacteria according to pathogenic
properties.
D. Groups bacteria into 19 species
E. All of the above

Identification method based on the type of phage that can infect the cells

Identification method that uses antibodies to detect specific bacteria

Identification method based on the amount of similarity between DNA/RNA sequences

Determines the presence or absence of specific prokaryotic enzymes; often using special culture media

Reveals the differences in the physical and chemical properties of cells under the microscope

Different body characteristics used to identify eukaryotes or shapes for prokaryotes

Bacillus and Lactobacillus are not in the same order. This indicates that which one of the following is not sufficient to assign an organism to a Taxon.

A. phage typing
B. Serology
C. biochemical characteristics
D. Morphological characteristics
E. amino acid sequencing

High G+C Actinobacteria

Domain of prokaryotic species discovered through rRNA genetic comparisons

Low G+C Firmcutes

Nonproteobacteria

Ribosomal RNA signature for Archaea cell wall gene that changes slowly

Proteobacteria

Ribosomal RNA signature for Bacteria cell wall gene that changes slowly

You have isolated a new prokaryotic cell.
The first step to assign the correct phylogeny is a(n)

A) flagella stain.
B) lactose fermentation test.
C) endospore stain.
D) Gram stain.
E) DNA fingerprint.

Enterobacteriales (enterics)belong to the

A) actinomycetes.
B) proteobacteria.
C) green sulfur bacteria.
D) spirochetes
E) gram-positive bacteria.

Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria because

A) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of
Neisseria.
B) it grows in disinfectants.
C) it is a gram-negative rod.
D) it causes melioidosis.
E) it causes infections in cystic fibrosis patients.

Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because
it

A) is transmitted by ticks.
B) is photoautotrophic.
C) is a pathogen.
D) is a rod.
E) possesses an axial filament

Which of the following bacteria is grampositive?

A) Enterobacteriales (enterics)
B) Rickettsia
C) Pseudomonadales
D) Bacteroidetes
E) Lactobacillales

How do all viruses differ from bacteria?

A) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid.
B) Viruses are not composed of cells.
C) Viruses do not reproduce.
D) Viruses are filterable.
E) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites

Virus Genus

Virus Family

Virus Species (Common Name)

Viruses with complex structures

Membrane covering around some viruses

Protrusions on the virus that bind to the host cell

The two general shapes for viruses

Viral protein coat

Single virus particle

Period of biosynthesis after penetration when very few virus particles are detected in the patient

Virus causes lysis and death of host cell

Viruses that only have a lytic cycle

Provirus DNA incorporated in host DNA

Viruses that have a lytic and lysogenic cycle

The process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus

Viruses must be grown in

Detect antibodies against viruses in a patient

Structural changes in host cells that are caused by viral invasion

Detect genetic material of viruses in a patient

Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?

A) bacterial cultures
B) animal cell cultures
C) embryonatedeggs
D) culture media
E) laboratory animals

The definition of lysogeny is

A) the period during replication when virions are not
present.
B) when the burst time takes an unusually long time.
C) attachment of a phage to a cell.
D) lysis of the host cell due to a phage.
E) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA

Budding (enveloped viruses) or rupture of cell

Sites on the virus attach to complementary receptor sites on cells

Production of nucleic acid and proteins

Nucleic acid and capsid proteins assemble

The protein capsid is removed by viral or host cell enzymes

Receptor mediated endocytosis or fusion

Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus
has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and
possesses an envelope. To which group does it most
likely belong?
A) togavirus
B) picornavirus
C) herpesvirus
D) retrovirus
E) papovavirus

Infectious RNA particles that do not have a capsid but can replicate in cells

Virus remains in asymptomatic host cell for long periods

Viruses that contain activated oncogenes (cancer promoting genes) that can cause cells to because cancerous after infection

Disease processes occurs over a long period

Host cells that become cancerous after viral infection

Proteinaceous Infectious particles that do not have a capsid but can convert normal proteins into prions

An infectious protein is a
A) retrovirus.
B) bacteriophage.
C) papovavirus.
D) viroid.
E) prion.

The sum of the chemical reactions in an organism

Energy storage molecule for the cell that participates in coupling reactions

Reactant molecules that bind to the active site of an enzyme

Provides energy and building blocks for anabolism

Catalytic protein that lowers the activation energy for chemical reactions in the cell (names usually end in –ase)

Uses energy and building blocks to build large molecules

States that chemical reactions can occur when reactants collide and that the reaction rate can be increased by increasing the collision between reactants

The energy required in a chemical reaction to bring the reactants to a transition state so that the reaction can proceed

An inhibitor molecule that is similar in shape to the substrate competes for the active site on an enzyme.

A non-protein molecule that activates an enzyme by binding to it before a reaction occurs.

Inhibition of an early enzyme in a metabolic pathway by the final end product in the pathway to regulate the activity of the pathway.

When environmental conditions like pH or Temperature are outside of an enzyme’s optimal range, the bonds that maintain the
3D shape of the enzyme fails and the enzyme unfolds

An inhibitor molecule that is not similar in shape to the substrate binds to an allosteric site and causes a change in the shape of the
active site that prevents the substrate from binding

Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic.
A. True
B. False

The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a chemical reaction.
A. True
B. False

Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form.
A. True
B. False

A reaction product that has gained an electron and energy during a redox reaction

A reaction product that has lost an electron and energy during a redox reaction

Production of ATP during by electron transport chain that couples with an ATP synthase enzyme to convert the energy in a electrochemical gradient into stored ATP energy.

Chemical reactions where electrons are lost from one reactant and added to the other reactant making oxidized and reduced products

Production of ATP during an enzyme reaction by the transfer of a phosphate group from the reaction substrate

A cellular molecule that stores energy in phosphate groups that can be coupled with anabolic reactions so that the reactions can proceed.

Production of ATP during the light reactions of photosynthesis by using the energy from the sun to power an electron transport chain and ATP synthase enzyme.

Uses pentose sugars (5-C sugars) and NADP+
; Operates with glycolysis; Produces 2 NADPH and 1 ATP

Found in Gram- bacteria; Does not involve glycolysis; Produces 1 NADPH, 1 NADH and 1 ATP

Extension of glycolysis; Does not require oxygen; organic molecule as the final electron acceptor; produces 2 ATP; Many different end products

Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE?
A. One molecule of ATP is expended.
B. Two molecules of water are generated.
C. Two pyruvate molecules are generated.
D. Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation
E. Two NADH molecules are generated.

Stored energy created by electron transport chain from NADH and FADH2 electron carriers that is used to generate ATP

Molecule that that is the final recipient of the electrons from the starting reactant in the metabolic pathway (O2 / aerobic; NO3–, SO4–, CO32 –/ anaerobic; organic compounds / fermentation)

Enzyme that transfers the energy in an eletrochemical proton (H+) gradient to ATP

Test that contains a pH indicator to detect acid products of fermentation enzymes, and an inverted Durham tube, which is used to capture gas products of fermentation enzymes.

Determines the presence or absence of specific prokaryotic enzymes; often using special culture media

Test broth contains a pH indicator that turns yellow from acids produced by glucose breakdown and an indicator that turns purple when amino acids are decarboxylated by catabolic protease enzymes

Test that contains a pH indicator that detects the presence of urease enzyme by the production of basic ammonia from urea in the media.

Test that detects H2S production by desulfanase enzymes through the
formation of a iron precipitates in a solid peptone media.

Electrons released from chlorophyll in by light in photosystem I return to chlorophyll after the passage along the electron transport chain and energy is transferred to ATP only.

Electrons released from chlorophyll in photosystem II are replaced by electrons from the hydrogen atoms of water, energy from the electron transport chain is transferred to ATP, and electrons released from photosystem I are passed to NADPH.

Photosynthesis in plants, algae, and cyanobacteria that uses water as a hydrogen donor, releasing O2

Photosynthesis in sulfur and green sulfur bacteria use H2S as a hydrogen donor, producing sulfur granules

Energy source is chemicals, carbon source is organic compounds, and examples are fermentative bacteria (Alphaproteobacteria, Firmicutes, and Actinobacteria)

Energy source is light, carbon source is organic compounds, and examples are green and purple nonsulfur bacteria (Phylum Chloroflexi; gram -)

Energy source is chemicals, carbon source is CO2, and examples are iron-oxidizing bacteria (Acidithiobacillus; Betaproteobacteria)

.Energy source is light, carbon source is CO2
, and examples are oxygenic cyanobacteria and anoxygenic green and purple sulfur bacteria (Phylum Chlorobi; gram -)