Detective Test 2016

  1. Any involved party is an individual that has been observed engaging in suspicious activity which may reveal a nexus to foreign or domestic terrorism when
    No indifinitive criminal activity can be identified.
  2. Which of the following is not one of the responsibilities of the Work Environment Liaison Division
    Assist with Employee Assistance programs and encourage employee participation in them
  3. The Cal/Gang System will automatically alert the Department when an individual's database file has had no criteria added for the preceding _____ period. In such cases, the individual's database file shall be purged from the CAl/Gang System
    5 years
  4. The Department of Justice has indicated they will accept the following reason for release of information
    Adoptions-absent parents
  5. The Hierarchy rule does not apply to the crime of _______
  6. The most important and possibly the most sensitive aspect of the homicide investigation is ______
    the preliminary investigation
  7. At a homicide crime scene, there are various ways to divide the area of concern to provide for a thorough, systematic search. The most common of these is ______
    the zone and grid methods
  8. What does not meet the definition of an Informant  ______
    Anytime a defendant charged in a criminal case provides information on a co-defendant in the same criminal matter
  9. The four C's of a Tactical Response Are
    • Containment
    • Control
    • Communications
    • coordinate
  10. What is the first objective that must be addressed to accomplish the Department's crowd control mission?
    Restore and maintain order
  11. Who shall be responsible for the preliminary and follow-up investigations of any crime committed through the use of computer stored information or sabotage to computer-stored information?
    Fraud Section
  12. Investigating officers shall have ____ from the date the Narcotics Report is assigned to them to complete and close-out the investigation:
    45 days
  13. Terrorism Laison Officers are responsible for all of the following except:
    collecting and disseminating information to the Public regarding terrorism related activity
  14. An officer has greater protection under the First Amendment and other laws when the officer is addressing a:
    Matter of Public Concern
  15. When officers become aware of an individual who demonstrates stalking, threats, unsolicited acts of visitation or harassment, officers shall contact the _____
    Threat Management Unit
  16. Evidence and non-evidence shall not be stored in personal possession of any employee, except _____
    certain forgery related evidence
  17. All of the following statements about False Personation are correct except _____
    False Personation arrest resulting from any other incident, excluding traffic incidents, shall be investigated by Forgery Section, Commercial crimes Division.
  18. Penal Code Section 1529 states that property to be seized must be described with _____
    reasonable particularity
  19. To be lawful, a detention must be based on Reasonable Suspicion that criminal activity has taken place or is about to take place, and that the person detained is connected to that activity. The suspicion must be supported by ____
    Articulable facts
  20. According to the Consent Decree, all the following are required of investigating officers working with informants except:
    arranging a meeting with the supervisor and an informant prior to creating an informant control packet for a particular enforcement
  21. When should detectives investigate category 2 cases?
    Only when all Category case have been handled.
  22. The UCR guidlines establishes criterea for an exceptional clearance, which the department identifies as a _________
    Cleared Other
  23. Cleared other shall be indicated when the following four circumstance exist
    • 1. the identity of the perp has definitely been established
    • 2. A loc at which the perp could be arrested now is known to the detective  and
    • 3. there is sufficient, admissable info and/or evidence to support an arrest for prosecution
    • 4. the reason further action cannot be taken is outside police control based on examples in DOM VOl I, section 152.21-152.24
  24. Sufficient, admissible info and /or evidence to support the filing of a complaint means that _______
    There is a strong & reasonable expectation that the arrestee would be convicted in trial.
  25. What is not a basis for clearance
    A witness' refusal to cooperate or testify
  26. All attempted crimes shall be reported in the same category as completed crimes except
    Attempt Murder
  27. Heirarchy Rule means ____-
    Locate the offence that is the highest on the list, recap that offense on th DAS, and ignore the other offenses involved in the incident.

    Requires counting only the highest offense on the list and ignoring all others, applies   to recapping crimes on the DAS
  28. The heirarchy Rule does not apply to the offense of ______. In cases when arson occurs in conjunction with other Part 1 crime both ________

    Both would be recapped
  29. Extraordinary Cases
    • Extensive personnel
    • extensive investigative expertise
    • potential for major press coverage
    • major city-wide problem
    • VIP Victim
    • serious or fatal inj to multiple victims
  30. The assigned detective shall immediately notify his _____ when, during an investigation, they discover that the investigation qualifies as an ______________
    commanding officer

    Extraordinary Case
  31. The invetigative unit having the responsibility for the filing of a booking charge shall
    also be responsible for filing any additional charges for which prima facie evidence exist in the arrest report.
  32. Due diligence requires detectives
    to diligently pursue efforts to apprehend suspects named on warrants
  33. Because probability of continued criminal conduct may be inferred from the following factors, a misdemeanor prosecution normally should not be considered if:
    The accused demonstrated they are a professional criminal by their M.O, The Tools Used in the Crime, Criminal Assoc, or a crime associated to gang activity or organized crime.
  34. The D.A. office will vigorously prosecute Dom. Violence case
    with or without victim cooperation, as long as there is sufficient evidence to support a conviction,
  35. Management Principle/We as peace officers should do our utmost to foster:
    a reverence for the law.
  36. Discriminatory conduct on the basis of race, color, ethnicity, national origin, gender, gender identity, gender expression, sexual orientation, or disability in the conduct of law-enforcement activities is prohibited.
    Biased Policing
    • Such immunity may properly be granted by a judge in a judicial proceeding;
    • however, neither the Department nor any of its members may grant any person
    • immunity from prosecution
    • Officers shall keep their supervisors informed of their relations and activities involving informants.
    • A commanding officer shall require that the identity of informants be disclosed to him/her.
    • At least two officers shall be present when
    • meeting with an informant in the field and both officers should understand the
    • informant’s language
  39. The Department's guiding value when using
    force shall be
    reverence for human life
  40. Shooting At or From Moving Vehicles/The moving vehicle in itself
    • shall not presumptively constitute a threat that justifies an officer’s use of deadly
    • force.
  41. Firearms shall not be discharged from a moving vehicle, except
    exigent circumstances and in the immediate defense of life.
  42. When a suspect is located as the result of a follow‑up investigation, who is in command?
    the senior investigative officer at the scene is in command
    is to analyze issues on an as needed basis and trends arising from significant use of force incidents.
  44. The UOFBPC is subcommittee of
    the TTRC
  45. Use of Force Best Practices Committee
    Responsibilities. The UOFBPC will be responsible to perform the following:
    Provide insight into significant or notable use of force incidents to assist in adjudication and identify lessons learned;

    Make recommendations regarding investigative protocols/tactics, or other issues arising from the analysis of use of force incidents;

    Make recommendations regarding improvements to field procedures; and, Provide advice and recommendations to the Chief of Police regarding improvements in field procedures, investigative protocols and tactics or other issues arising from the analysis of use of force incidents as needed.
  46. When the nature of the board of inquiry is such that the findings may be
    prejudicial to a Department employee, the concerned employee
    • shall be afforded the opportunity to appear before the board and present facts
    • in his or her own behalf.
  47. When the employee appears at the request of the board of inquiry the employee shall
    be informed of the nature of the inquiry prior to offering information in his or her own behalf. At the discretion of the chair, the employee may be permitted to present a reasonable number of witnesses in support of relevant issues raised by him or her before the board.
  48. The Secret Service Fund is used for
    • expenses incurred during criminal investigations arising within the City of Los
    • Angeles and for such expenses necessarily incurred in the detection of crime.
  49. Expenditures over ____  for narcotics investigations, ___or more for vice
    investigations, and _____  or more for vehicle rentals. All require approval of the _______ prior to the expenditure.



    commanding officer

    The following guidelines will apply to all releases of police record information. Department personnel should not release information if it is believed that it would
    jeopardize the investigation & the successful prosecution of a criminal case; affect the outcome of a civil case involving the City of Los Angeles; or infringe upon the person's right to privacy
  51. "Gross weight"
    is the weight of each individual package of narcotics including the packaging material.
  52. "Control weight"
    is the weight of a single box containing several individual packages.
  53. "Net weight"
    is the weight of the narcotics without any packaging material.
  54. Visually compare the amount of narcotics to the minimum net weight guide. If the
    amount of narcotics appears to be less than the minimum net weight,
    • do not conduct the chemical test. Book the evidence for testing by the
    • SID Laboratory;
  55. Dispose of used chemical test kits in the __________. Do not book the used kit; and record the chemical test results on the ________.
    containers provided

    Property Report
  56. The chemical test for methamphetamine requires
    the use of two test kits.
  57. Narcotics evidence may be stored at Area stations on a temporary basis when one
    of the following criteria exists:
    No arrestee is in custody.

    The arrestee is booked into the Area jail.

    The arrestee is released from custody (RFC).
  58. Excessive quantities of narcotics are those that exceed
    • 500 pounds or more of cocaine, heroin, or other narcotic substance in powder or
    • pill form; 100 pounds or more of plant material; or more than one‑half gallon of
    • liquid phencyclidine (PCP).
  59. The officers responsible for the seizure of excessive quantities of narcotics shall
    maintain control of the evidence until it is completely booked into existing or auxiliary property storage and they have been relieved of security of the evidence by a Metropolitan Division supervisor.
  60. A detective assigned to investigate a crime
    or incident motivated by hatred or prejudice shall:
    • Contact the victim within ten calendar days of the crime or incident and reassure the victim of the Department’s commitment to identifying the suspect and obtain follow-up
    • information; Document any additional information on a Follow-up Investigation, Form 03.14.00; Present all felony hate crime investigations in which the suspect is identified to the District Attorney Hate Crime Suppression Unit and, as appropriate, to the Office of the United States Attorney, Civil Rights Liaison for filing consideration; Present all misdemeanor hate crime investigations in which the suspect is identified to the Special Enforcement Section, Office of the City Attorney, and as appropriate, to the Office of the United States Attorney, Civil Rights Liaison; and, Provide the command’s Hate Crime Coordinator with a copy of all reports related to the incident.
  61. The detective responsible for the follow‑up investigation of a death classified as "undetermined" shall, as soon as possible but no later than 60 days after the initial Death Investigation Report, complete a Follow‑up Report indicating:
    The postmortem examination results, and the final classification and cause of death; or,

    That the postmortem examination is continuing and a statement as to why the examination and/or the investigation has not been concluded

    The assigned investigator shall ensure that:
    A separate Detective's Case Envelope, Form 15.15.00 is utilized for each adult felony arrestee.
    Investigations requiring use of a case package larger than the 15.15.00, or a Murder Book (4/710.30).
  64. The DNA sample and handprint impressions (i.e., palm impressions of each hand
    and right thumbprint) shall be collected from the following individuals,
    pursuant to Penal Code Section 296:
    Adults arrested on or after November 3, 2004, for violations of Penal Code Sections 187 and 192(a), felony sex offenses requiring registration pursuant to penal Code Section 290 and attempts to commit these crimes; Adults convicted of any felony offense;
  65. DNA Samples are required even if the defendant receives the following:
    a referral to Drug Court,

    a deferred entry of judgment,

    or Proposition 36 probation.
  66. The Area responsible for the
    booking of the non-compliant arrestee shall be responsible to
    transport the arrestee to the Los Angeles County Sheriff Department’s Inmate Reception Center to obtain the DNA sample and handprint impressions.
  67. DNA samples are required for the following individuals who are:
    Found incompetent (to stand trial); Found not guilty by reason of insanity; Found to be a mentally disordered sex offender; or, Found to be a sexually violent predator.
  68. Who is authorized for the RELEASE OF FIREARMS.
    Only sworn detective personnel shall approve the release of firearms

    • Any person appearing before an Area desk requesting the release of a firearm
    • shall be referred to the Area Detective Division detectives during their normal
    • operating hours.
  69. Search Warrant and Affidavit

    The affiant must state facts establishing __________ for the seizure of the described items at the described locations.
    probable cause
  70. The United States Supreme Court has expressed the standard of
    probable cause as follows:
    The task of the issuing magistrate is simply to make a practical common-sense decision whether, given all the circumstances set forth in the affidavit before him, including the ‘veracity’ and ‘basis of knowledge’ of persons supplying hearsay information,there in a fair probability that contraband or evidence of a crime will be found in a particular place.”
  71. United States v. Leon (1984) 468 U.S. 897 "Good Faith Exception" to the exclusionary rule when a search warrant is obtained
    The rule of the Leon case is that evidence seized pursuant to a search warrant will not be suppressed if officers obtained the warrant in good faith and acted in reasonable reliance on a warrant issued by a neutral and detached magistrate.
  72. Penal Code section 1529 also states that the property, thing, things, or persons to be searched must be described with
    “reasonable particularity.”
  73. The general rule is that descriptions in a search warrant
    should be of sufficient particularity so that if an officer with no knowledge of the case were to serve the warrant, the officer would have no difficulty in locating the place, recognizing the vehicle, or identifying the person to be searched. Adherence to this general rule will satisfy the Penal Code requirement of reasonable particularity
  74. Controlled Substances
    In a search warrant, the description should
    specify the type of controlled substance to be seized, such as heroin, cocaine, marijuana, amphetamines, etc.

    The use of the general terms, “controlled substances," "narcotics,” or “dangerous drugs,” without further description might be held by a reviewing court to be too indefinite
  75. Bank Records

    Financial Institutions are allowed the release of what information?
    financial institution are allowed to voluntarily provide to law enforcement information limited to the name of the account holder(s) and the account number(s)
  76. Financial records may be obtained pursuant to a search warrant. Such a warrant should be written following the general principles set forth in this manual. Note, however, that Government Code section 7475 sets forth
    additional conditions regarding search warrants for financial records. For Eaxmple
    the financial institution will notify the customer of the service of the warrant unless a court orders the financial institution to withhold notification to the customer upon a finding that such notice would impede the investigation. Also, the normal ten-day period for service and return of the warrant can be extended if the bank cannot reasonably make the records available within ten days.
  77. The United States Supreme Court, in the case of Illinois v. Gates (1983) 462 U.S. 213, specifically abandoned the “two-prong” test and announced a new “totality of the circumstances” test to be used in evaluating search warrants. The Supreme Court stated:
    it is wiser to abandon the “two pronged” test established by our decisions in Aguilar and Spinelli. In its place we affirm the totality-of-the-circumstances analysis that traditionally has informed probable cause determinations.
  78. With respect to establishing probable cause for the issuance of a search warrant, the affidavit must state sufficient factual information to establish probable cause: state the source of the information; and:
    Establish the reliability of the information

    Clearly state the affiant's conclusions

    Explain the evidentiary value of items sought

    Establish strong link between the item sought & a particular suspect.
  79. The affiant should begin the statement of probable cause by stating his rank, name, serial number and assignment. Thus should be followed by
    a detailed statement of his training and experience.
  80. It is important that the affiant state his training and experience in detail even though he may have never qualified as an expert in court. The courts have held that
    training and experience often will justify the affiant attaching special significance to the facts related in the affidavit.
  81. Illinois v. Gates recognizes that corroboration may be provided by non-criminal conduct.
    “Innocent behavior frequently will
    provide the basis for a showing of probable cause; . . . the relevant inquiry is not whether particular conduct is ‘innocent’ or ‘guilty,’ but the degree of suspicion that attaches to particular types of non-criminal acts.
  82. For search warrant purposes, night time is defined as those hours between
    10:00 PM and 7:00 AM
  83. Before a warrant may be served at night it must contain a
    • statement or “direction” that it can be served at night and its supporting affidavit must set forth facts and circumstances
    • establishing good cause for a nighttime search.

    The most significant factor in disclosure motions is
    whether or not the informant specifically named or described the defendant as possessing the contraband with which he is later charged
  85. Sealing the Affidavit to Protect Informant’s Identity -- “Hobbs Warrants”
    In a typical format involving the sealing of a portion of an affidavit pursuant to Hobbs, the
    affiant prepares
    the Statement of Probable Cause, including the affiant’s background and expertise, as well as any information relating to probable cause that does not need to be sealed.
  86. It should be noted that neither case law nor statute specifically requires display of the
    it is recommended that officers do display a signed copy of the warrant in order to make their authority clear.
  87. Return of the Warrant
    A warrant which was not returned within
    ___ days can be declared invalid only if the defendant can __________ as a result of the late return
    10 Days

    demonstrate prejudice
  88. Return of the Warrant
    The “return package” consists of the
    • original search warrant documents, an inventory of all the items seized and a “return form" in which the officer who executed the warrant (not necessarily the
    • affiant) swears that the inventory is a true list of everything seized during the execution of the warrant, including items not listed on the warrant.
  89. An Oral Affidavit is
    one in which the affiant orally states to the issuing magistrate the probable cause for the warrant. The affiant’s statement is recorded on a tape recorder or recorded and transcribed by a court reporter. No written statement of probable cause is presented to the magistrate.
  90. Telephonic Authorized Search Warrant is one in which the affiant
    calls the magistrate on the telephone, states the probable cause for a search warrant, and then obtains verbal authorization from the magistrate to sign his or her (the magistrate’s) name to the warrant. The entire telephone call must be tape recorded.
  91. Facsimile Search Warrants
    • is one in which the Search Warrant, Statement of Probable Cause and
    • accompanying documents are all prepared and signed by the affiant in the usual manner and are then sent by facsimile machine to the magistrate for review and signature. The affiant also calls the magistrate, is sworn over the phone (this need not be recorded) and verifies that the correct number of pages have been received and are all legible. The magistrate verifies that the affiant has signed the affidavit. The magistrate then reads all the documents and if the magistrate is satisfied the warrant is valid, he or she signs it (this will be deemed the “original”) and sends a facsimile of the signed warrant back to the affiant. This is marked “duplicate original” by the affiant and can then be served. The original search warrant, the duplicate original and all
    • supporting documents are filed with the return of the warrant.
  92. Electronic Mail Search Warrants
    • A search warrant may be obtained through the use of electronic mail. The procedure for
    • obtaining a search warrant by electronic mail is similar to the procedure for a facsimile search warrant. The Search Warrant, Statement of Probable Cause, and accompanying documents are sent to the magistrate by electronic mail. The affiant’s signature is in the form of a digital
    • signature. Over the telephone the magistrate will swear the affiant and confirm the receipt of the documents and verify the affiant’s digital signature as genuine. If the magistrate issues the warrant, he or she sends a copy of the signed search warrant to the affiant by electronic mail. The affiant acknowledges receipt of the search warrant over the telephone and writes the words
    • “duplicate original” on it. The warrant may then be served. The original warrant or any
    • affidavits or attachments are then returned as provided in Penal Code Section 1534.
  93. Knock and Notice Requirements
    “The officer may break open any outer or inner door or window of a house, or any part of a house, or anything therein, to execute the warrant, if, after notice of his authority and purpose, he is refused admittance.”
  94. Conduct a Thorough Search during the execution of a search warrant
    The officers should conduct an unhurried, thorough, and systematic search.
    Each officer searching must know what items are listed on the warrant and can search for those items only.
  95. A search warrant cannot be used as a pretext for a ________.
    general exploratory search.

    However, if searching officers observe items they reasonably suspect are stolen, it is permissible for them to call in other officers investigating the specific crime from which they suspect the observed items were taken and ask those officers to look at the items and verify whether or not they are stolen.
  96. Seizure of Items Not Described in the Warrant
    it is permissible for searching officers to seize
    • any items which are reasonably recognizable as “contraband,” (drugs, stolen property and other items illegal to possess) or “mere
    • evidence” of crimes if observed while searching for the listed items.
  97. On some occasions, a reviewing court will rule that there was insufficient probable cause to justify the search for one of the articles sought or locations listed. Such a ruling does not
    does not invalidate the remaining portions of the warrant for which probable cause exists.
  98. If a search warrant is declared invalid as a matter of law by a magistrate at a preliminary hearing, and if as a result of that ruling evidence is suppressed and the entire case or a portion thereof is dismissed, the prosecution can obtain an
    expeditious review of the magistrate’s ruling on the warrant by noticing a motion for review in the superior court pursuant to the provisions of Penal Code section 871.5.
  99. There have been several cases in which the courts have held that certain obviously clerical errors or “technical” mistakes
    Such mistakes do not invalidate the warrant
    The concerned I/O may conduct a preliminary investigation on an informant’s information prior to the informant being approved by the C/O ND. This preliminary investigation should be:
    limited in scope and only serve to corroborate the informant’s information.
  101. In processing the informant, if the information provided by the informant is corroborated, the I/O shall not take additional investigative steps towards the apprehension of the suspect or the seizure of evidence until:
    The informant has been processed and approved by the I/O's chain of command
    • method of compensation for an informant who is motivated by a pending criminal case. The informant’s cooperation and accomplishments are documented and
    • presented to the District Attorney’s Office for review and consideration.
  103. Department employees shall not request dismissal of a case on behalf of an informant. However, an informant may request that the Department submit a:
    • Letter of Accomplishment concerning
    • the informant’s sentencing on a pending criminal case in exchange for the information provided. Consideration at sentencing can only be granted by the judge or prosecutor.

    An I/O has no authority to independently promise leniency or immunity from prosecution.
  104. The use of informants is restricted to
    non-uniform personnel assigned to Department investigative entities, e.g., Area detectives and specialized detective divisions.
  105. Uniformed officers assigned to Area Gang Enforcement Details shall not use informants. In those situations where the informant will only communicate with a specific officer and the officer is not
    authorized to use an informant, the officer shall
    seek assistance from the DCIC
  106. Ramey Problems
    The case of People v. Ramey [(1976) 16 Cal.3d 263] limited
    the right of officers to enter a home to make an arrest without an arrest warrant. However, since officers serving a search warrant are lawfully within the premises and their entry is judicially authorized, warrantless arrests within the premises while serving a search warrant are legal.
  107. Which of the following shall determin whether a SWAT team shall be deployed in the service of a warrant?
    C/O, Metropolitan Division
  108. The following items should be considered when preparing a search warrant service briefing:
    The officer (regardless of rank) responsible for preparing, planning and implementing the search warrant. The I/O of the warrant service operation must be identified and should conduct the briefing. The I/O should be prepared to explain the search warrant "tactical plan" in full
  109. The homicide detective must remember that he/she has three major areas of
    concern that must be considered when he/she is investigating the actions and
    conducting the interrogation of a murder suspect:
    • Things the suspect did prior to the crime;
    • Things the defendant did during the crime;
    • Things the defendant did after the crime
  110. The homicide detective must remember that he/she has three major areas of concern that must be considered when he/she is investigating the actions and conducting the interrogation of a murder suspect. However, the most essential of the three areas is:
    is to determine those things the defendant did prior to the crime.
  111. There are three main types of prints that may be obtained in an investigation
    • latent
    • visible
    • molded
  112. Law affecting the search of a crime scene
    The U.S. Supreme Court decision
    in Mincey vs. Arizona, ruled that no
    “Murder Scene” exception to the Fourth Amendment would permit a warrantless search of a major crime scene; however,
    The police are still free to seize any evidence that is in plain view during the course of their cursory search, within “arms reach” of the suspect, or in other rooms where additional victims or suspects may reasonably be located
  113. If the victim of the homicide was the resident of the premises in which he/she was found can the premises be automatically searched?
    NO,it does not mean that the premises can automatically be searched.

    The rights of other possible residents may be violated in doing so. The possibility that an absent spouse or roommate may be involved in the crime or some other illegal activity is a possibility. It is necessary to preserve the admissibility of evidence that might link the co-resident to the crime.
  114. Examination of the scene of a homicide should begin with
    the area immediately surrounding the body
  115. The Department of Coroner has a “Security Hold” policy. Once the Coroner’s Office receives a written request on Department letterhead from detectives to place a file on “Security Hold,” information pertaining to the file is not accessible through their computer, public records or to most of
    their employees.
    Unless the Coroner’s Office receives a request for a “Security
    Hold,” the documents are

    • considered public records and will be released
    • upon request to the general public and media.
  116. A Murder Book is ________ for court. When a suspect is arrested and charges have been filed, a copy of the Murder Book shall be
    provided to the Deputy District Attorney assigned to the case upon his/her
    request. This copy may be in other than a three-ring binder.
  117. If a civil claim is filed involving any aspect of the murder, the contents of the murder book
    may be deemed discoverable

    Detectives should consult and coordinate with the assigned City Attorney and/or members of Risk Management Group for compliance with civil discovery motions.
  118. In a child abuse murder scene, special emphasis should be placed on
    photographs, measurements and descriptions.

    By providing detailed photographs, measurements and descriptions, expert child abuse doctors may be able to show that such a fall could not have caused the injuries in question.
    The interrogation should be conducted with a low-key approach.
    Build rapport by making the suspect believe that you understand and sympathize with him/her. Offer the suspect a way to rationalize the crime (theme development) so that he/she can confess but “save face.”
    If the suspect claims that the death was an accident, obtain the following
    detailed facts concerning the incident, then confront the suspect with medical and/or other evidence which disproves his/her story. Refute denials with evidence.
  121. Request both____   and ______   to respond to the scene when there is evidence or suspected evidence of a rape or sexual assault
    SID & Coroner’s criminalists
  122. Lacerations–
    • A laceration is a tear in the tissue and may be either external (skin) or internal (stomach wall, liver, etc.). Lacerations may be caused by either direct blunt force that produces crushing lacerations, or by indirect
    • blunt force.
  123. Stab And Puncture Wounds–
    • A stab or puncture wound is a piercing injury
    • of the skin, and may extend through the superficial tissue and bone to involve internal organs. Stab wounds are produced by penetration of tissue by rigid, slender weapons with or without a sharp edge, but possessing a fairly sharp point. Surface appearance tends to conform in pattern to the entry point. The point of entry and the extent of the external injury cannot
    • be interpreted as a measure of the internal damage.
  124. Incised Wounds–
    A cut, usually of the skin but may involve muscle,cartilage, bone, and internal organs. Characteristics: sharp, clean-cut,regular edges; no bruising of surrounding skin; depth of wound varies at theedges; bleeds freely.
  125. Self-Inflicted Wounds–
    If the wounds are suspected of being self-inflicted (suicide), determine if the area is accessible to the victim and if there are any hesitation marks. The injuries may be numerous but well localized. Occasionally, there may be extensive mutilation. In most cases, the weapon will be nearby.
  126. Mutilation–
    The method of mutilation can provide important clues regarding the suspect’s M.O. Be specific in describing the condition of the mutilated body. Obviously, if parts of the body are missing, this shall be documented.
  127. Gunshot Wounds–
    Detectives should bear in mind that gunshot wounds are sometimes similar in external appearance to stab wounds since both the bullet and stabbing weapon puncture the skin. There are, however, certain physical characteristics that will not only identify a particular wound as having been caused by a gunshot, but will give the detective vital information about the circumstances.
  128. Entrance Wounds–
    When a projectile strikes a part of the body that isn’tbacked by bone, the skin, which is both tough and elastic, indents andstretches under the impact. As the projectile, which may have rotation aswell as forward motion, forces its way through, a small area of skin comes incontact with the sides of the bullet wiping off smoke and grime which isdeposited around the entrance wound, causing a gray zone.
  129. Exit Wounds–
    As the projectile passes through the body, it packs the tissue in front of it. If it has enough momentum to go completely through the body, it will finally force its way out through the packed tissues causing a ragged and torn exit wound. Consequently, exit wounds are much larger than the projectile. The loss of blood is generally much greater at the exit than at the entrance wound. Often shreds of fat or other internal tissues will be protruding from the wound. Next to bone, the skin is the most resistant tissue in the body. It frequently happens that a projectile will go completely through the body, only to be stopped by the skin on the opposite side, where it can easily be felt. When a projectile strikes a bone, it is hard to predict where it will go.
  130. Exit wounds are
    usually much larger, more ragged, and generally more destructive.
  131. Gunshot Characteristics–The distance from which a firearm was discharged can be divided into three areas:
    contact shot, close shot, and distant shot. In practice, the following distinctions can be made between contact, close, and distant shots
  132. Contact Shot–
    A contact shot is where the muzzle of the weapon is pressed against the body when the shot is fired. The visible damage caused by the contact shot is caused more by the flame and expanding gases than by the penetration of the bullet. It is a dirty looking, star shaped wound. The skin edges are ragged and torn, with actual charring of the tissues caused by the tremendous heat of the muzzle blast. Tissue damage is especially noticeable when the muzzle has been held directly against the head. The skull provides definite resistance which impedes the expanding gases from the muzzle. As a result, the gases undermine the scalp, producing a ragged, torn, charred wound which is often larger than the exit wound. This frequently happens in suicide
  133. Two tell tale signs are present when a weapon is fired from a close distance
    smudging, stippling and tattooing
  134. Close Shot–
    A close shot is where the muzzle of the weapon is between approximately two and eighteen inches from the body when the shot is fired. Two telltale signs are present when a weapon is fired from this distance–smudging, stippling and tattooing
  135. Smudging/Sooting–
    Is the deposit of smoke and soot from the burned powder which is deposited around the entrance wound. It produces a dirty, grimmy appearance that is only on the surface of the skin and can be wiped off with a cloth. Smudging/sooting is important because it gives an indication that the gun was held close to the person but not in actual contact.
  136. Stippling–
    consists of multiple abrasions of the skin due to the impact of small fragments of foreign material. If this material is gunpowder, this form of stippling is called powder tattooing. If the material is not gun powder, but the abrasions produced, appear identical to those due to gun powder, the phenomena is referred to as pseudo-powder tattooing. Most stippling of a non-gunpowder origin does not resemble powder tattooing and can easily be differentiated from it. The exception is stippling from shotgun filler
  137. Tattooing–
    Is the residue of unburned powder granules and minute particles of molten metal from the bullet that are driven under the skin by the force of the blast. Tattooing is permanent and cannot be wiped off. With both smudging/sooting and tattooing, the size of the pattern will depend upon the caliber, powder charge, and the distance the firearm washeld from the victim.
  138. Distant Shot–
    A distant shot is where the muzzle of the weapon is farther than approximately 18 inches from the body when the shot is fired. Normally, none of the characteristics of a close shot can be detected at this distance.
  139. Which of the following is responsible for registering, photographing and maintaining special files on convicted sex offenders
    Area Detective sections
    • The Search Warrant and Warrant Service/Tactical Plan Checklist,
    • Form 12.25.01, is activated. This form is to be completed in addition to the Warrant Service/Tactical Plan Report, Form 12.25.00, when completing a search or Ramey Warrant
  141. In the 2012 revision of the Dept Search Warrant procedures, a Tactical Plan Report for search warrants targeting ____ is not required.
    (GPS) devices; for Third Party Records (e.g.,telephone or bank records); warrants are served at secure locations (e.g., police facilities, jail facilities, prisons, official police garages, etc.); or, for crime scene searches requiring a Mincey Warrant.
  142. The use of personal recording devices during criminal investigations is not a substitute for:
    Department-issued body cameras, Department digital cameras, the Digital In-Car Video System, or instances requiring the response of the Photographic Unit, Scientific Investigation Division.
  143. Rather, personal recording devices should only be used
    • in limited circumstanceswherein evidence could be lost or destroyed, video/audio
    • statements/actions of suspect(s) need to be quickly captured, or as an investigative tool when Department resources are not
    • immediately available such as
  144. An ADW with a motor vehicle does not constitute
    a traffic collision.
  145. Who handles the follow-up investigation concerning all ADWs in which the weapon used is a vehicle.
    The Area detective section
  146. If upon further investigation it is determined that the elements of an ADW w/ a VEH or lesser assault crime are met, the Area detective will ensure the
    traffic report is appropriately reclassified.
  147. Who has the authority to release homicide, death, or missing reports.
    Only the Area detectives or Robbery-Homicide Division detectives (RHD) shall have the authority to release homicide, death, or missing reports.

    The two main components of a
    successful gang enhancement allegation
    are the quality of the gang expert and his/her testimony, and predicate crimes committed by persons who are current or former members of the gang and exhibit a pattern of criminal activity as delineated in PC Section 186.22(e).
  149. The investigative steps that shall be completed prior to the release of information on any sex offender include:
    * Documentation on why the release is   necessary to protect the public;

    * Document the scope of the disclosure and reasons for determining the area (i.e., ½ mile area of the offender’s home address and areas frequented by the offender, parks, schools, community centers, etc.); and,

    * Verification of the documented information included on the Registered Sex Offender Advisory Form.
  150. Upon the release of information on any sex offender, what should be completed?
    The information is to be documented on an IR, entitled "Sex Offender Registrant Incident”.
  151. The Victims of Trafficking and Violence Protection Act requires that the immigrant victim has suffered substantial physical or mental abuse, however, the federal act does not provide a definition of:
    Substantial Abuse
  152. A pattern of felony  and /or misdemeanor domestic violence may also constitute
    substantial abuse, depending on specific circumstances of the case
  153. UC Operator:
    An officer or supervisor assigned to a non-uniformed operation requiring anonymity or blending into a group or environment to gather evidence or intelligence where the disclosure of the employee’s identity as a police officer would pose a significant safety risk to the officer.
  154. Which of the following is not one of the Crowd Management primary objectives?

  155. One, four-officer identification team in the Field Jail can intake ___ arrestees per hour.
  156. In defining "qualified immunity" the Supreme Court stated, "Defendants  (police officers obtaining search warrants) will not  be immune if, on an objective basis , it is obvious that no reasonable, competent officer would have concluded that a warrant should issue. A standard of "no reasonably competent officer" requires:
    a finding of gross negligence or recklessness
  157. When officers request the assistance of a private citizen to assist in the performance of a public function which involves a reasonable, foreseeable risk of injury, officers should:
    Ensure the witness/victim is informed that a potential threat to his/her safety exist

    when deemed necessary by the circumstances, inform the witness/victim of the witness protection program
  158. There is no enforceable duty to be a witness.

    Although it may be convenient and effective to have all potential witnesses transported
    to the police station for systematic interview, officers may not do so unless each witness
    voluntarily agrees to accompany the officers.
    • The fact that an individual may have
    • observed a crime or possess information that is useful to the police is NOT an adequate
    • justification for detention.
  159. When citizens are detained their resultant custodial status must be able to withstand
    Fourth Amendment scrutiny. The minimum requirement that must be satisfied to
    sustain a legal detention is the existence of
    "reasonable suspicion."

    That standard means that officers must have a specific articulable basis for believing detainees are themselves involved in criminal activity.
  160. Searches of Vehicles Pursuant to Arrest

    When Searches Can Be Conducted?
    The Supreme Court ruled that a search would be justified “when
    it is reasonable to believe evidence relevant to the crime of arrest might be found in the vehicle.
  161. The Court also said police can “search a vehicle incident to a recent occupant’s arrest only when
    the arrestee is unsecured and within reaching distance of the passenger compartment at the time of the search.
  162. Other Legitimate Grounds For a Warrantless Search
    Gant recognizes that there may be other legitimate grounds for a warrantless search of a secured arrestee’s vehicle. As before, officers should continue to identify all possible exceptions that might apply, including:
    including probation/parole searches, consent searches, inventory searches, etc
  163. When a sex offender reports to an area that maintains a REACT unit, employees shall refer that registrant to
    the area detective division
  164. When using predicate crimes as part of gang enhancement proceedings, the last predicate crime commited must have occured within____ of the current crime.
    3 years.
  165. Training update should be provided to department personnel who
    substantially participate in a CUOF, animal shooting or non-tactical/accidental or negligent discharge of a firearm.
  166. the SCAR review process will include determination as to wether the SCAR requires law enforcement investigation, and if it does:
    wether the SCAR warrants an immediate department response.
  167. The approval of the ____shall be obtained before any information regarding any sex offender is released.
    The area commanding officer
  168. Which of the following statement about identity theft investigation reports is correct?
    An identity theft report shall only be completed for an individual who resides in or a business that is physically locate in the city of Los Angeles.
  169. Restricted electronic survelliance equipment normally include all electronic surveillance equipment designed or adapted for:
    concealed use.
  170. An involved party (IP) is an individual that has been observed engaging in suspicious activity which may reveal a nexus to foreign or domestic terrorism when
    no definite criminal activity can be identified.
  171. Which of the following is NOT a provision of the Informant Admonishment and Consent Search Form
    the informant shall NOT be subject to a strip search or visual body cavity seach. 

    *note: special order 19 states the informant MAY BE subject to a strip search or visual body cavity seach.
  172. A Child Abudction Regional Emergency/AMBER Alert Form shall be completed when the following conditions apply:
    • a confirmed abduction has occured
    • the victim is 17 yrs of age or younger, or suffers from a confirmed mental physical disability
    • the victim is reasonably believed to be in imminent danger of serious bodily injury or death
    • there is sufficient information available that if disseminated to the general public, could assist in the safe recovery of the victim.
  173. According to the new Inter-Agency Operational Agreement for 17(b)(4) referral policy, for which of the following crimes is Direct Filing available ?
    unlawful sexual intercourse.
  174. Investigating Officers who recieve or become aware of recorded media associated with a criminal investigation which has been booked in the area/divisional evidence locker, must do all the following except:
    provide a copy of the recorded media to the area division watch commander/OIC.

    *you may make copies, provide copies to the CA/DA.
  175. In the absense of an immediate threat to the childs safety (physical or sexual abuse, sever neglect, etc), persons requesting police involvment in dependant child cases shall be reffered to:
    the area Juvenile Coordinator
  176. Area Detectives are responsible for the follow-up investigation of complaints involving:
    physical and or sexual abuse of a juvenile when the suspect is not identified as a parent or guardian.
  177. Detectives assigned cases of child abuse, in addition to normal investigative follow-up shall complete a Child Abuse Investigative Report, Department of Justice, and forward the form to _____ within 36 hours.
    • the DA's Office
    • the Child Abuse Unit/Juvenile Division
    • DCFS
  178. Juveniles 14 yrs of age or older taken into custody for a felony or an attempted felony, who personally use a firearm in the commission of a crime, shall be delivered to:
    Probation Department
  179. All of the following statements about juvenile detention are correct except:
    all juveniles taken into custody, who are under 14 years of age must be given a medical evaluation prior to acceptance for booking.
  180. Booking approval of a fugitive juvenile when there is a local substansive offense shall be obtained from:
    the responsible investigative division.
  181. An attempt should be made to obtain permission of parents or legal guardians prior to administering the polygraph examination to a juvenile. If unable to obtain parental permission:
    proceed with the polygraph.
  182. When a juvenile arrestee is declared unfit for handling as a juvenile the investigating officer should immediately:
    cause the juvenile to be arraigned within 48 hrs from the time of the signing of the Declaration of Unfitness when the juvenile remains in custody.
  183. Under what conditions may a Combined Arrest and Petition Request Report be filed for a juvenile?
    when the arrest of the juvenile is made by the investigating officer responsible for the follow-up investigation.
  184. Under what circumstances shall the area detective responsible for the investigation of a missing juvenile immediatley enter the information into NCIC?
    the juvenile is missing under suspicious circumstances.
  185. Detective arriving at the scene of a homicide should obtain a detained IASF from each officer at the scene documenting what they observed and what actions they took. Emphasis should be placed on:
    Their activity in the immediate area of the crime scene.
  186. The specialized Investigator shall ensure the Coroner's Investigator has access to the decedant, in order to conduct a preliminary exam of the body, as soon as possible. Particular consideration shall be given to those situations in which determining the time of death is a critical issue or in which:
    The recovery of biological evidence is crucial to the investigation.
  187. When booking evidence from the scene of a death all the following procedures should be followed except:
    All firearms connected with a death shall be booked; these firearms shall not be released or disposed of without authorization of the district attorneys office.

    *ONLY area Divisional Detectives can authorize the destruction or release of firearms
  188. Smudding, stippling, and tattooing are characteristics of:
    close shots.
  189. Fingerprints that have been made by transferring a foreign substance, such as ink, blood, grease or dust from the crestes of the capillary ridges to an object are:
    visible prints
  190. they key to an effective interrogation of the murder suspect is:
    knowing the suspects motive.
  191. Which of the following characteristics of the interrogator succesfully obtains more confessions:
    portrays the role of one who merely is seeking the truth.
  192. With respect polygraph examinations, which of the following is on the recommended list of "dont's" for detectives?
    dont interrogate immediatley before the polygraph.
  193. Normally which of the following is needed to seize a computer at a homicide scene?
    a seperate search warrant.
  194. It is possible that the bullet, gunpower residue, and primer residue will fall on the same spot on the victim. This can occure when:
    The muzzle of the gun is very close to the victim.
  195. The Violent Criminal Apprehension Database includes data on
    • Victims and Suspects
    • Weapons
    • M.O.
  196. What does not meet the defitition of an informant:
    Anytime a defendant chargd in a criminal case provides information about a co-defendant in the same crimunal matter.
  197. A criminal informant has a criminal background and may be motivated by personal reasons to be an informant or:
    is a suspect in a pending invistigation.
  198. Disclosure of the identity of an informant may be ordered by the court if the informant participated in or witnesses a crime that the defendant is being charged with, or:
    the defendant can show a reasonable possibility that the informant could testify in a manner tha would exonerate the defendant or benefit their case.
  199. Specifically, a DA's informant Contract Statement of Agreement describes the past accomplishments and future expectations of the informant with:
    the reasons the informant has entered into the agreement.
  200. Which of the following statements about searching informants is correct
    Under no circumstances shall an informant who refuses to cooperate with a search be allowed to participate in a field investigation.

    When investigating narcotics cases, periodic and random searches should be conducted during the investigation.

    an informant shall be searched following any field investigation in which the informant purchased or handled narcotics
  201. During large-scale operations involving complex legal issues (e.g. major fraud, high profile cases, etc.) consideration should be given to requesting that _______ be present at the search warrant service location.
    a Deputy Distric Attorney
  202. The Exceptional Handling Report shall be used to:
    Document the initial assessment of the informant's eligibility and suitability to serve as an informant.
  203. Which of the following are frequently used to hide contraband, and should be searched especially thoroughly
  204. The Asset Forfeiture Investigative Detail will provide direction when Department personnel are conducting a narcotics investigation and any one of the following conditions exist:
    $1000 or more in U.S. currency is seized

    A conveyance is connected with the investigation and appears to be worth $5000 or more

    evidence of other assets used to facilitate the narcotics activities are identified and their locations established.
  205. A a general rule, Department personnel should not search a roomalone during the execution of a Search Warrant. However, if personnel shortages make this necessary, an officer who searches a room alone should:
    Change rooms with another officer so that the room is searched twice.
  206. Field officers should not conduct a photographic lineups without prior approval from:
    the detective assigned to the case
  207. All of the following are correct about detentions:
    The refusal to answer questions alone does not provide probable cause for escalating a detention to an arerrest.

    A detention is legal at the beginning will become invalid if it is extended beyond what is reasonably necessary under the circumstances.

    It is possible for an officer's original suspicion to dissipate, while suspicion about a different unrelated offense arises, resulting in "switching offenses" for the detention
  208. Which of the following common forms of unlawful sexual harassment is referred to as quid pro quo harassment?
    Submission to sexual advances, requests, and/or conduct as either explicitly or implicitly made a term or condition of employment.

    When submission to or rejection of sexual advances, request, and/or conduct is used as the basis for employment decisions
  209. After the PIT maneuver is accomplished, the secondary unit will:
    approach the suspect vehicle and close within 1 to 3 feet of the suspect vehicle front bumper
  210. With respect to the Chief of the Department's Notice on Constitutional Policing and Biased Policing, it is crucial that you had reasonable suspicion or probable cause and are able to sufficiently articulate the reasons for your police actions in a manner that demonstrates the Constitutionality of all your actions. Equally as important, research has shown that in some instances:
    Allegations of biased policing are as much about courtesy and respect as they are about bias.
  211. For Abducted/Missing Child Alerts, the employee will distribute the Alert Citywide to the ACC's, MDCs, CAD workstations, and the RACR Division, with the approval of:
    The Watch Commander
  212. When the elements of Lewd or Lascivious Act Against Child are the only elements present, the IR must be entitled:
    According to the most appropriate sexual assault crime
  213. Acording to Hierarchy Rule, in cases where more than one offense occurs in an incident , only the highest ranking part 1 offense is counted. Which offenses ignore the Hierarchy Rule and are always counted, even in cases when multiple offenses occur in an incident?

    Human Trafficking - Commercial Sex Acts

    Human Trafficking - Involuntary Servitude
  214. Because some type of assault is an element of the crime of robbery, assault is not reported as a separate crime, as long as
    it was performed in the furtherance of a Robbery
  215. Larceny-theft is an element of Burglary and; therefore, is not reported as a separate offense if:
    it is associated with the unlawful entry of a structure
  216. Thefts from places such as churches, restaurants, schools, libraries, public buildings, and other public and professional offices during the hours when such facilities are open to the public are reported as
    Theft from Building
  217. Robbery, burglary, larceny-theft, motor vehicle theft and arson are crimes against property. For these crimes, one offense is counted for each distinct operation or attempt, except in the case of:
    motor vehicle theft
  218. Officers are confronted daily with situations when control must be exercised to effect arrests and to protect the public safety. Control may be achieved through the use of physical force or any of the following except:
    implied threat

    NOTE: Advice, warnings and persuasion are acceptable methods to achieve control and effect arrest
  219. The follow -up investigation should include additional information required to support a successful prosecution. When addressing Corpus Delicti include:
    elements of the crime(s) which are lacking in the original crime report
  220. Problems associated with show-up commonly occur when:
    detectives fail to notify Robbery Special Section, RHD immediately when a show-up has been ordered by the court
  221. If identification is made by a victim or witness in a photographic show-up, the investigating officer shall:
    attempt to obtain facts to cooberate the identification by a single victim or witness
  222. Where DNA pertains to a court case in which the defendant has been found guilty, and the evidence is eligible for destruction, the I/O shall place an Investigative Hold on the release or disposition of DNA evidence if:
    any of the listed parties responds requesting the evidence be held
  223. Extradition approval must be in writing. When obtaining approval for extradition, the detective shall; submit the original and a copy of the local warrant, and one copy of all reports, including the RAP sheet to Extradition Services; and
    Ascertain that the witnesses are available, the case is prosecutable and that there has been no restitution or change in the victim/witness testimony.
  224. When an investigating officer receives a request from a Deputy District Attorney to discover materials obtained from a criminal investigation, which appears to be unreasonable, the investigating officer may;
    Request that the deputy district attorney challenge it by filing a notice of non-compliance
  225. When a detective becomes aware of a credible threat, to a qualifying witness or family member(s), necessitating the need fortemporarily relocation, the concerned detective shall
    Determine that the threatened party agrees to be relocated; and

    Immediately notify the concerned field serviceswatch commander of the circumstances surrounding the threat and request protection for all endangered witnesses pending the arrival of the concerned detectives.

    Discuss the case withtheir immediate supervisor (D-3 or above)and obtain approval from the concerned commanding officer
  226. Which of the following shall be responsible for filing any additional charges for which prima facie evidence exists in the arrest report?
    the investigative unit has the responsibility for filing the booking.
  227. For TeamsII analysis, all sworn employees are assigned to a peer group based on the type of work the employee performs (eg, patrol, ged, vic etc) and or :
    the type or frequency of public contacts.
  228. In the risk management information system, if the employees activity exceeds the employees peer group performance threshold, RMIS will:
    Automatically generate an action item and forward it to the employees imediate supervisor.
  229. If an Officer who has a medical exemption has not qualified with his or her firearm within____ wether the reason is based on a temporary or permenant medical condition, the offcers authority to carry a firearm on or off duty, shall be resended and the officers powers of arrest shall be restricted to on duty only.
    1 year
  230. Which of the following shall determine whether proposed dispersal parking or temporary home, garaging, is an operational necessity?
    the employees imediate supervisor
  231. When a warrant has been issued for a juvenile, authorized employees may released the name, alleged offense, and physical description of any juvenile provided that:
    a juvenile is alleged to have commited a offense in the penal code

    an arrest warrant for a juvenile has been issued and the juvenile is not in custody

    the release of information would assist the apprehension of the juvenile and for the protection of public safety.
  232. An individual convicted of kidnapping with the intent to commit specified sex offenses, felony sexual battery, penetration with a foreign object by force, or assault with the intent to commit rape, oral copulation, or sodemy is classified as:
    serious sex offender
  233. Which of the following statements about the     in-car video system and deployement is correct?
    when preparing crime and or arrest reports, the reporting employees shall, when practicable, review the incident capture the video to refresh their recollection.

    prior to being interviewed regarding the use of force, officers shall when practicable, review video footage captured during the incident and or other relevant footage.

    the timely urgency associated with the public safety statement will, in most cases, preclude officer to review related captured video footage to providing the TSS.
  234. A categorical use of force is defined as:
    an incident involving the use of force by department employee

    all uses of an upper body control hold by department employee

    all deaths while the arestee or detainee is in the custodial care of the department.
  235. Area detectives may, at the dirrection of FID, be assigned the responsibility for investigating the criminal component of cases involving a CUOF and conducting the related follow-up investigation when:
    the crime commited by the civilian suspects is not against the officer involved in the CUOF.
  236. In CUOF investigations, the administrative section should be responsible for all the following:
    Liaising with Criminal Investigative Section during their investigation

    conducting the compelled interviews and walk-throughs of involved officers

    completion of the arrest, booking, reporting and investigative follow-up of a suspect involved in the CUOF incident.
  237. which of the following statement about the Alternate Complaint Resolution Process (ACRP) is correct?
    the acccused employee may not have an employee representative present, nor may a complaintant have legal counsel present.
  238. Which of the following shall be responsible for the preliminary and follow-up investigations of any crime committed through the use of computer-stored information or sabotage to computer stored information ?
    fraud section
  239. When the concerned bureau narcotics division, field enforcement section personnel are not available for adult felony narcotics arrests, prebooking processing shall be performed by:
    a court qualified narcotics expert is deployed in a geographic patrol division.
  240. Juvenile division detectives are responsible for investigating and processing the crime scene involving the undetermined death of a juvenile under 11 years of age:
    resulting from violations involving a storage of firearms acessible to children.
  241. All of the following are non-categorical use of force except:
    the use of force reasonable to over come passive resistance due to physical disability, mental illness, intoxication, muscle rigidity of a person (see firm-grip or join lock).
  242. which are non-categorical use of force:
    to comple a person to comply with an department employees dirrections

    to overcome resistance by a person during an arrest or detention

    defend any person from an agressive action by a suspect
  243. which of the following statements about identity theft is correct?
    an identity theft report should not normally be taken when an related crime report has been filed with any law enforcement agency

    the location of the occurance for the identity theft is the victims residence

    courtesy reports for identity theft shall not be completed

    if a business is the victim,  the location of occurrance for an identity theft is the business address.
  244. Upon determining that SID analysis is required for firearms booked, ______ shall telephonically notify SID of the desired analysis.
    Investigative Officer
  245. When the arrestee is charged with both a felony and misd offense the arrestee shall:
    the arestee shall not be arrigned on the misd prior to the completion of the felony investigation.
  246. The passive and active searching for information impacting operations, including information found in discussion forms, post, videos, and blogs is used for which of the primary law enforcement uses of social media:
    situational awareness
  247. investigators using fictitious online persona or conducting online undercover activity must:
    obtain approval from his or her commanding officer prior to using a Fictitious Online Persona or conducting Online Undercover Activity.
  248. The release of investigative details or photos on social media should be done only:
    Do not release investigative details or photos on social media
  249. What should be done in cases where the perpetrator is identified via a DNA match and a new reference sample is required to be analyzed for court purposes?
    The I/O shall request a new DNA sample be obtained from the perpetrator
  250. Which of the following statements about DNA Database Match Cases is  correct
    The inabilility of law enforcement to guarantee that the new DNA reference sample will be delivered to the lab within 24 hrs of an arrest/or next business day shall not be a bar to filing

    A DNA profile match alone does not necessarily provide evidence to meet filing requirements.

    When it is not possible to obtain a referance sample because the suspect's whereabouts are unknown, cases involving a violent felony may be filed for a warrant based on DNA dtabase match

    When evidence of identity is established via a database match or "cold hit," a new reference sample for DNA shall be obtained and analyzed in any case presented for filing.
  251. All request for cellular tracking, made concurrent with an investigation, shall be directed through:
  252. When any Department employee clears a crime in CCAD, a Follow-up Report, form 3.14, must be completed and approved identifying the cases status, (Cleared other, Cleared by Arrrest, Unfounded, or investigation completed). The Department employee will then enter the clearance code in CCAD. Additionally, Detective Bureau is now requiring:
    that the 3.14 identify the actual date the crime was solved and/or cleared in the 3.14 narrative
  253. All requests for analysis of Sexual Assault Evidence Kits (SAEKs) will be forwareded to RHD via request for Serology/DNA Analysis (RSDA). The I/O will complete the RSDA no later than five business days from the date evidence is booked for all sexual assaults involving a stranger or a person in a position of trust or:
    where the suspect has a history of similar allegations of sexual assault
  254. Each of the following is a Category II Serology/DNA request?
    Homicide where DNA is not a crucial element to make an arrest and file a case

    Sexual Assualt where the suspect is a Family Member, not including Spouse or Intimate Partner.

    Robbery/Kidnap involving great bodily injury
  255. On duty Area Detective personnel shall respond immediately to crime scenes/victim locations where any of the following has occurred:
    Sexual assaults with an identifiable crime scene and the potential for immediate folow-up

    robberies that involve discharge of firearm where there may be possible evidence (bullets/casings) where there are no injuries and significant evidence of shots fired.

    an attempted murder/assault with a deadly weapon, when the victim is likely to die or is admitted into the hospital for life threatening injuries.

    kidnapping that involves the potential for serious bodily injury or death, a demand for for ransom, or property damage
  256. At the conclusion of the detective's interview with a child at the Stuart House, the detective will:
    meet with the Stuart House Team and discuss interview results and merits of the case and develop a plan for follow up
  257. Generally, the standby personnel from the involved Area may be directed to repond to any incident requiring:
    Investigative resources
  258. In all cases where an employee is absent for ____ or more consecutive days due to illness or injury, the employee shall provide proof from a healthcare provider, which shall include the necessity for the absence, anticipated return-to-duty date, and duty restrictions, if any
    8 Days
  259. Regarding Off-Duty Standby Compensation, for purposed of computing the amount of compensation due for time spent on duty, the time spent on duty will commence:
    at the time the employee is notified
  260. The mere application of the hobble
    does not constitute a reportable use of force
  261. The primary objectives of crowd control are: protect life; Restore and maintain order; arrest violators; and:
    Protect vital  facilities

    Protect Property
  262. When pursuing a suspect to be armed in a foot pursuit, officers should generally do so in:
    containment mode
  263. Arrestees booked using Automated Mass Arrest must meet all the following requirements



    medical attention not required
  264. If a sex offender who reports for registration refuses to provide a BuccalSwab sample and right thumb print, the officer shall
    immediately notify a detective/REACT supervisor
  265. The Victim's Supplemental Financial Loss Report is used by victims to document additional financial losses after initial reports have been taken for:
    Identity theft and other forgery related thefts.
  266. All of the following statements about SCARs are correct:
    School cars and juvenile cars will not automatically be assigned to child abuse calls.

    Suspected child abuse and neglect must be reported to a law enforcement agency orthe county welfare department (DCFS).

    the response to a SCAR may be delayed for a period not to exceed 24 hours in furtherance of the investigation.
  267. All of the following statements about SCARs are correct except:
    SCARs will be evaluated by the watch commanderor OIC of the Area/division receiving the report.
  268. The method(s) employed in the release of information about sex offenders must be reasonable, relating to both the threat posed by the sex offender and:
    the likely proximity to potential victims.
  269. Initial and follow-up investigative responsibilities for a workplace violence incident remain with
    the respective operational or detective command.
  270. Officers conducting surveillance shall contact LA CLEAR (Los Angeles County Regional Criminal Information Clearinghouse).  Which of the following is not a service provided by LA CLEAR?
    Provides personnel and coordination for large-scale, multi-jurisdictional operations
  271. Officers conducting surveillance shall contact LA CLEAR (Los Angeles County Regional Criminal Information Clearinghouse). Which of the following are a service provided by LA CLEAR?
    Is a 24-hour, seven day a week war room and intelligence watch center.

    Provides access to government databanks and special operations center that support covert surveillance operations.

    Provides electronic pinpoint mapping that will alert the system if unitsare deemed to be in conflict
  272. Detectives should prepare a rough sketch of the crime scene in order to ensure proper documentation of the scene of a crime and to:
    avoid any change in the original position orlocation of evidence
  273. The use of an Authorization to use Restricted Electronic Surveillance Equipment is only required if:
    the equipment is used to breach a person's reasonable expectation of privacy
  274. Upon receipt of an SAR-related crime or arrest report Area detectives shall
    ensure the report has been screened by MCD personnel and referral back to the geographic area.

    complete the investigation per normal policies and guidelines
  275. If the DA notifies an employee directly of a change in the status of a court proceeding (e.g.placed on call, excused, etc.), the employee shall notify ______ and provide the case number, and the DA's name and contact information
    The subpoena control officer.
  276. Officers investigating a child abduction and/or missing child investigation shall notify the school within______ of the child's disappearance by completing the Emergency Notification Missing or Abducted Child Alert Form
    ten days
  277. The Law Enforcement Agency endorsement is prepared by the Department Area or division I/O attesting to the facts that thecrime committed against the victim qualifies under the VTVPA T-visa or U-visa categories and:
    The victim possesses information regarding the criminal activity
  278. Upon receipt of a "Cleared Other" Murder Follow-up Investigation report,an RHD senior detective will conduct a review of the report.  If RHD does not concur with the "Cleared Other" classification, RHD will
    meet with the investigating detective.
  279. Which of the following is cited as a Point to Remember when using the Hobble Restraint Device?
    Remove body weight from the hobbled individual's back as soon as possible.
  280. All undercover operations should be based on
    A  tactical plan
  281. One, four-officer identification team in the Field Jail Unit can intake _______ arrestees per hour.
  282. Penal Code Section 502 indicates that any person who intentionally and without authorizationaccesses any computer system, computer network, computer program, or data with knowledge that access was not authorized is guilty of a public offense.  Based on this law, which of the following statements is correct?
    Simply "browsing" through various computer formats may be a public offense
  283. As a general rule, officers do not have a duty to warn citizens of potentially dangerous persons.  However, such a duty may arise if:
    a "special relationship" develops between the officer and the victim
  284. Suspects in custody may be questioned regarding separate and distinct crimes which they have not been charged with even though they are represented by counsel on other charged crimes.  However, they may not be questioned in any manner whatsoever if they:
    invoke their 5th Amendment right to counse
  285. Based on Arizona v. Gant, vehicle searches incident to an arrest may be made only while the unsecured arrestee is within reach of the passenger compartment or
    where it is reasonable to believe that evidence of the arrest offense may be inside
  286. The protective sweep/search may be conducted throughout the entire residence in only those places where:
    possible suspects may be hiding.
  287. An arrestee shall be considered factually innocent when the detective has clearly established that the arrestee did not commit the crime or that
    the crime did not occur.
  288. Which of the following statements about clearances is correct?
    When a crime report is “cleared by arrest” or “cleared other,” it means that the detective has solved the crime and has taken all possible, appropriate action against at least one suspect
  289. Under which of the following conditions shall a complaint be sought even when the victim refuses to testify?
    Cases involving domestic violence.

    There is a strong likelihood of future crimes being committed by the perpetrator against the victim.

    The perpetrator is on probation or parole
  290. An Investigator's Final Report, Form 5.10, is initiated during the booking process whenever an adult arrestee is booked.  Form 5.10 is retained and will be completed when the arrestee has been booked for a felony crime or warrant, or
    a misdemeanor narcotics violation
  291. Which of the following is responsible for arranging for transcriptions of recorded interviews?
  292. For juvenile arrests, the original arrest report is sent to R & I Division and a copy of the report shall be:
    retained in the Juvenile Arrest Package
  293. Which of the following is a Part II crime?
  294. If the witness or victim does not meet the eligibility requirements for the California Witness Protection/Relocation Program set forth by the LA DA, the investigating officer shall contact:
    The Department's Witness Protection Program Coordinator
  295. The assigned detective at the crime scene or the senior detective, if no detective has been assigned the investigation, is in command of the crime scene and responsible for all of the following except:
    making a preliminary determination of the cause of death and whether or not a crime has been committed.
  296. The assigned detective at the crime scene or the senior detective, if no detective has been assigned the investigation, is in command of the crime scene and responsible for all of the following:
    maintaining control of the crime scene.

    ensuring that any arrestee at the scene is removed as early in the investigation as possible.

    maximizing the effective and efficient utilization of available police personnel
  297. The assigned detective at the crime scene or the senior detective, if no detective has been assigned the investigation, is in command of the crime scene and responsible for all of the following except
    satisfyingthe needs of news media personnel to the extent possible
  298. The assigned detective at the crime scene or the senior detective, if no detective has been assigned the investigation, is in command of the crime scene and responsible for all of the following
    providing for an appropriate radio broadcast concerning outstanding suspects or vehicles at the earliest possible time.

    determining the necessary resources needed to conduct an adequate investigation and making appropriate requests.

    providing for the collection of evidence.
  299. Personnel assigned to the Gun Section (GND) shall complete a Firearm Notification and forward it to the concerned area detective division or specialized detective division when
    an outside agency is in possession of a firearm wanted by the Department.

    a firearm in Department custody iswanted by an outside agency.

    a firearm in Department custody is wanted by a Department division other than the division responsible for booking the firearm
  300. If a missing child, under 12 years of age or "at risk", is found, a law enforcement agency must report this fact to ______ immediately
    Department of Justice.
  301. The detective responsible for the investigation of a missing juvenile shall maintain the Child Identification Form in the case package for ______ following the date of the formal missing report
    7 calendar days
  302. Perhaps the most valuable tool to the police officer or detective, who make an initial response,to prevent unlawful flight with a child is
    taking the child into protective custody.
  303. All of the following are the results of court findings regarding Juveniles except:
    The Sixth Amendment extends the requirement of a jury trial in Juvenile cases
  304. All of the following are the results of court findings regarding Juveniles
    The investigating officer should be prepared to give their compulsory Miranda warnings in terms that reflect the language and experience of today's Juveniles

    A Juvenile's request for his parents during an interview should be regarded as the same as requesting an attorney to be present.

    Low IQ does not necessarily invalidate a Juvenile's waiver of Miranda rights
  305. All of the following statements about the authority of the Department of Children and Family Services is correct except:
    DCFS workers cannot take a child into temporary custody without a court order
  306. In the General Guidelines for Child Abuse Investigation which of the following is correct?
    The officers must view and interview the child alone, not in front of the parents or guardians.

    • If the abuse occurred in the home,officers should determine the number,identity,and location of other siblings and examine them for abuse also.
    • A sexually abused juvenile shall be examined only by medical personnel
  307. When a juvenile is charged with "runaway" in the City of Los Angeles, which of the following shall be responsible for the investigation and arrest disposition of the juvenile
    The Area in which the juvenile resides with a parent or guardian
  308. A minor ______ years of age or older arrested for a 602 WIC violation may be placed in secure detention within a law enforcement facility for a period of time not to exceed ______ hour(s)
    14;  6
  309. Whenan arrestee claims to be or is suspected of being a juvenile undocumented alien, the officer transporting the arrestee to Juvenile Hall shall also deliver to the ID Unit the juvenile's fingerprint cards.  When any additional information is disclosed, such as true identity, aliases, outstanding wants or warrants, and alien status, the investigating officer shall be responsible for immediate notification of
    the Probation Department.

    the Juvenile Court.

    the District Attorney
  310. Which of the following is not an element of a dying declaration?
    A physician must inform the victim and officers that the victim is going to die and there is no hope of recovery.
  311. Which of the following are elements of a dying declaration?
    The victim must believe that he/she is going to die and there is no hope of recovery.

    The dying statement must refer to the manner and circumstances that brought about his/her present condition and ultimate death.

    The declarant must die
  312. If the suspect is in custody at the scene of a homicide, the detective must decide whether the suspect should be interrogated at the police station or at some point near the crime scene. The main point to remember in this regard is that:
    • the detective should remain flexible, taking into consideration all of the background
    • information available to him/her at a particular point in the investigation.
  313. Since any degree of intoxication may be relevant to prove or disprove diminished capacity, which of the following should be done in suspected diminished capacity case?
    A blood-alcohol sample of the suspect's blood, urine or breath shall be sought
  314. Coroner access to the deceased at a homicide scene shall only be delayed to:
    prevent destruction of crime scene evidence.
  315. Crime scene reenactments are especially important:
    in shootings.
  316. Approval to photograph unarraigned prisoners by news media representatives shall be granted only if it does not interfere with the investigation. Granting of approval to photograph unarraigned prisoners, if the prisoner is jailed in any jail other than Jail Division-Metropolitan Section, shall be the responsibility of:
    the convened investigating officer(s).
  317. Which of the following statements about murder/homicide is correct?
    A. Homicide is the lawful or unlawful killing of one human being by another.

    B. Every murder is a homicide, but not every homicide is murder.

    C. A homicide shall be considered to be criminal unless originally reported as, or subsequently determined to be, excusable or justifiable.

    D. All of the above.
  318. A Murder Investigation Progress Report on an unsolved murder shall be submitted by the
    detective to his/her commanding officer within ______ after the case is assigned.
    120 calendar days.
  319. When the livid stains on a deceased are light red to bright red, the type of poison used could be:
    carbon monoxide.
  320. The location of discoloration on a body is one of the best methods of determining:
    whether a body has been moved.
  321. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Coroner’s Investigator?
    Interviewing witnesses.
  322. A non-confidential informant (NCI) should only be used in those cases in which:
    traditional enforcement strategies prove ineffective.
  323. Which of the following require special review prior to receiving authorization for use as an
    • A. Persons on parole or probation.
    • B. Persons in privileged positions such as attorneys and doctors.
    • C. Persons in a witness protection program.
    • D. All of the above.
  324. Approved by the I/O’s C/O, the informant package shall be hand carried to ______ for final approval.
    C. the C/O Narcotics Division.
  325. Which of the following is required when the I/O desires to initiate telephonic contact with an
    The officer shall request supervisory approval prior to initiating telephonic contact, and notify the supervisor of the nature of the telephonic contact as soon as practicable after the contact.
  326. All informant packages subject to the control of the DCIC will be picked up by personnel from the Informant Coordinator's office and brought to the office of the C/O ND. All active, inactive and shared confidential informant packages through the Department, except those managed by
    ______, are affected by this directive.
    Counter Terrorism and Intelligence Bureau
  327. All of the following statements about search warrants are correct except:
    • An officer obtaining and serving an invalid warrant shall not be entitled to "qualified
    • immunity."
  328. Steagald is limited to situations involving
    the residence of a third party.
  329. When preparing a search warrant for computer-based evidence, the most important point is to:
    determine the role the computer plays in the offense.
  330. To minimize informant disclosure or "person in control" issues, it is best to:
    • serve the Search Warrant when the named and described suspect is alone and in actual
    • possession of the contraband.
  331. Manslaughter is the unlawful killing of a human being without malice. It is of three kinds.
    Which of the following is not one of these?
    • A. Voluntary.
    • B. Involuntary.
    • C. Negligent.
    • D. Vehicular
  332. A person is guilty of ______ when he or she unlawfully, under circumstances manifesting
    extreme indifference to the physical or psychological well-being of another person, intentionally causes permanent disability or disfigurement of another human being, or deprives a human being of a limb, organ, or member of his or her body.
    aggravated mayhem.
  333. Any person who, during the commission of a carjacking, kidnaps another person who is not a principle in the commission of the carjacking, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for:
    life with the possibility of parole.
  334. Carjacking is punishable by imprisonment in the state prison for a term of:
    three, five or nine years.
  335. Which of the following shall be considered indicators of human trafficking?
    A. The person lives and works in the same place.

    B. The person owes a debt to his or her employer.

    C. The person does not have control over his or her own government-issued identification or over his or her worker immigration documents.

    D. All of the above.
  336. Upon conviction of a battery committed against a spouse, a person with whom the defendant is cohabitating, or a person who is the parent of the defendant's child, and if probation is granted, the conditions of probation may include the requirement that:
    A. the defendant make payments to a battered women's shelter, up to a maximum of $5,000.

    B. the defendant reimburse the victim for reasonable costs of counseling and other reasonable expenses that the court finds are the direct result of the defendant's offense.

    C. the defendant avoid any in person or telephonic contact with the victim or the defendant's children residing with the victim for the duration of the period of probation or five years, whichever is greater.

    D. A or B.
  337. Robbery is the felonious taking of personal property in the possession of another, from his person or immediate presence, and against his will, accomplished by means of:
    force or fear.
  338. Any person who commits an assault with a firearm upon the person of a peace officer, and who knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a peace officer engaged in the performance of his/her duties shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for:
    4, 6 or 8 years.
  339. The Penal Code defines the "dominant aggressor" as the person determined to be the ______ aggressor.
    most significant
  340. Penal Code; 261, (a)(6)
    A threat to kidnap or falsely imprison, or to inflict extreme pain, serious bodily injury, or death refers to:
    threatening to retaliate.
  341. Which of the following is a proven way of demonstrably increasing the likelihood of convicting spousal abusers and ensuring appropriate sentences for those offenders?
    Vertical prosecution.
  342. All the following are elements in the offense of stalking except:
    • A. maliciously and repeatedly follows another person.
    • B. willfully and maliciously harasses another person.
    • C. makes a credible threat with the intent to place that person in reasonable fear for his or her
    • safety.
    • D. has the intent to actually carry out the threat to place that person in fear for his or her safety or the safety of his or her family.
  343. Penal Code; 653.2 (c)(1)
    A knowing and willful course of conduct directed at a specific person that a reasonable person could consider as seriously alarming, seriously annoying, seriously tormenting, or seriously
    terrorizing the person and serves no legitimate purpose refers to:
  344. Use of an electronic communication device to place another person in reasonable fear for his or her safety, or the safety of the other person's immediate family can be punished with up to
    ______ year(s) incarceration, by a fine of not more than ______, or both fine and imprisonment.
    one year; $1,000
  345. Any child is within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court which may adjudge that person to be a dependent child of the court who meets all of the following conditions except:
    A. the child exhibits a failure to thrive while residing in the home of a parent or guardian.

    B. the child has suffered, or there is substantial risk that the child will suffer serious physical harm or illness as a result of the failure or inability of his or her parent or guardian to adequately supervise or protect the child.

    C. the child is suffering serious emotional damage, as a result of the conduct of the parent or guardian.

    • D. the child has been sexually abused by the parent or guardian or a member of his or her
    • household.
  346. Section 300(e) of the Welfare and Institutions Code applies to children under the age of _____ who have suffered severe physical abuse by a parent, or by a person known by the parent, if the
    parent knew or reasonably should have known the person was physically abusing the child.

    300(e) of the Welfare and Institutions Code = Severe Physical Abuse
  347. Under which of the following conditions may a minor be adjudged to be a ward of the court?
    A. Habitual truancy (4 or more)

    B. Habitual refusal to obey reasonable and proper orders of school authorities.

    C. Failure to respond to directives of a school attendance review board.

    D. All of the above.
  348. WIC; 625 (a)(b)(c)
    A peace officer may, without a warrant, take into temporary custody a minor who meets any of the following conditions except:
    the minor is engaging in boisterous or tumultuous behavior.

    A. the officer reasonably believes the minor is a person described in Section 601 or 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

    • B. the minor is a ward of the juvenile court and the officer reasonably believes the minor has violated an order of the juvenile court.
    • C. the minor is engaging in boisterous or tumultuous behavior.
    • D. when a minor has committed no violation but is found in any street or public place suffering from sickness or injury
  349. An officer who takes a minor into temporary custody under the provision of WIC 625 may do any of the following:
    deliver the minor to the probation department office, or to a probation officer in the county in which the minor was taken into custody.

    release the minor.

    deliver or refer the minor to a public or private agency with which the city or county has an agreement or plan to provide shelter care, counseling or diversion services to minors.

    prepare a written notice to appear before the probation officer of which the minor was taken into custody.
  350. All suspected cases of Elder Abuse shall be reported to:
    Adult Protective Services.
  351. Investigating officers should obtain and view videotapes, digital images, or photographs that have captured a crime in progress and are in the possession of the victim or witness. If the victim or witness refuses to voluntarily release these items, the investigating officer shall:
    seek advice from Risk Management Group.
  352. An adverse employment action taken against an employee for engaging in protected activity is:
  353. Based on US v Jones, officers shall immediately cease the installation and monitoring of GPS devices on vehicles or other effects belonging to identified individuals without first obtaining a search warrant. Additionally, officers shall cease all monitoring of GPS devices installed prior to Jan. 23, 2012, and immediately obtain a search warrant to resume monitoring the GPS. This decision does not apply to the installation and monitoring of GPS devices on
    stolen vehicles.
  354. The three primary law enforcement uses of social media are: Situational Awareness;
    Investigations; and:
    Community Relations/Engagement.
  355. Which of the following statements about DNA procedures is not correct?
    A. When it is not possible to obtain a reference sample because the suspect's whereabouts are unknown, cases involving a violent felony may be filed for warrant based on a DNA database match.

    B. DA policy requires that when evidence of identity is established via a database "cold hit," a new reference sample for DNA shall be obtained and analyzed.

    C. The fact that the identity of the perpetrator is not dependent upon DNA does not relieve law enforcement of their obligation to obtain a reference sample.

    D. Department employees shall not guarantee that a new DNA reference sample will be delivered to the crime laboratory within 24 hours of filing.
  356. Following testing of the victim's Sexual Assault Evidence Kit (SAEK), the I/O will be contacted
    via email to confirm whether:
    additional items are still required for the investigations.
  357. The Area/Specialized Detective shall include the arrestee's State and County rap sheets (CII and CCHRS) and DMV history with all cases submitted to the City Attorney's or District Attorney's offices for filing. When multiple state records exist, detectives shall:
    • ensure the out-of-state rap sheet is also provided to the City Attorney's and District
    • Attorney's offices.
  358. Before classifying a sexual assault case as Unfounded, investigators should conduct a thorough investigation to determine that:
    the allegations are unequivocally false.
  359. When an employee requests family or medical leave, he/she must state the reason for the requested leave. When the necessity for a leave is foreseeable, the employee must provide at least ______ days notice.
  360. All of the following statements about Probation Searches are correct except:
    A. A probation search may be conducted without any probable cause at all.

    B. An illegal search will not be "cured" by the subsequent discovery that the defendant is on parole or has a probation search condition.

    C. Search of a suspect on probation without a warrant is permitted when warrantless searches are a condition of probation.

    D. A probation search may be conducted without any reasonable suspicion at all.
  361. There is no limit to the number of locations, vehicles, and persons which may be searched
    pursuant to a single warrant, as long as:
    the affidavit sets forth probable cause for each.
  362. Specificity in the description of property has two aspects:
    particularity and breadth.
  363. The telephone company must notify the customer of the search warrant for his telephone records unless there is a "certification of non-disclosure" contained on the face of the warrant. The certification is a statement that notification to the subscriber be withheld because:
    notification would impeded the investigation.
  364. Search Warrant Manual

    Analysis of the two prongs shows that each actually has two parts:
    factual basis and reliability.
  365. Individuals who are chance witnesses to or victims of crime are ______ informants.
  366. A valid warrant may be issued based upon information from an untested informant if:
    the information can be corroborated.
  367. Which of the following statements about "Sneak-and-Peak" warrants is not correct?
    Covert warrants typically require the same standards as do conventional warrants.
  368. Informants who may be determined to be material witnesses fall within two categories: those who are eyewitnesses to or actual participants in the charged crime; and:
    those who might provide evidence favorable to the defendant
  369. All of the following statements about the search of persons on the premises being searched in compliance with a valid search warrant are correct except:

    • A. persons who are occupants of premises at the time a warrant is served may not be detained during the search.
    • B. persons who are found within the premises being searched, but who are not named or described in the warrant may not be searched.

    C. a search warrant may authorize a search of a person if the person is particularly described.

    D. persons who are at the premises being searched pursuant to a warrant may be patted down for weapons.
  370. In a preliminary child abuse investigation, an officer of either sex may examine a juvenile
    who is ______ years of age or younger.
  371. In the preliminary investigation of a suspected child abuse case, ______ shall be contacted
    for advice
    Investigative Control Unit, Juvenile Division
  372. Which of the following statements about Limited Extradition is not correct?

    • A. The "hit" will indicate a specific area that the demanding state will extradite from.
    • B. Regardless of any limitations on the NCIC "hit," the suspect shall be booked.
    • C. A probable cause determination is not required.
    • D. Do not contact the demanding state for warrant information
  373. Local and state charges always take precedence over a fugitive warrant in the demanding state except:
    if the local charge is an offense eligible for release
  374. Which of the following is a misdemeanor?

    A. Stalking
  375. No prosecution for Rape of Spouse shall be commenced under PC262 unless the violation was reported within ______ after the date of the violation.
    one year
  376. If the detective has reasonable cause to believe that the return of a firearm or any other deadly weapon would likely result in endangering the victim or the person reporting the assault or threat, in a domestic violence incident, the detective shall advise the owner of the firearm or deadly weapon and within ______ of the seizure, initiate a petition in Superior Court to determine if the firearm or other deadly weapon should be returned.
    60 days
  377. Following are arrest figures for eight officers for the last six months of 2015. What is the
    average number of arrests for these eight officers?

    Lincoln 50
    Washington 75
    Jefferson 80
    Adams 40
    Jackson 30
    Grant 85
    Wilson 45
    Bush 70
  378. Based on the above table, the Chief of Police has directed all officers whose arrests are 30% lower and 30% higher than the peer group's average to meet with their supervisors and a member of the Training Division. Which of the officers in the table above fall into that category?
    Adams, Jackson, Jefferson, Grant.
  379. Five hundred students who attended D.A.R. E. sessions in middle school were compared to five hundred students who did not attend D.A.R.E. sessions in middle school. The drug offenses for both groups were tracked for the four years they were in high school or were of high school age. What conclusions can be drawn from the following data?

    Drug Offenses for High School Years
                 Freshman Sophomore Junior Senior
    With D.A.R.E. 40          69         79       89
    W/out D.A.R.E. 55        62         74       90
    • A. Overall, there was no significant effect of the D.A.R.E. program.
    • B. As students grew older, they increased their involvement in drug-related activity.
    • C. There was a short-term benefit of the D.A.R.E. program that quickly diminished.
    • D. All of the above trends occurred
  380. What percentage increase in the number of drug offenses was there between Freshman and Senior years for the students who did participate in D.A.R.E. in middle school?

                 Freshman Sophomore Junior Senior
    W/ D.A.R.E.  40 69 79 89
    W/out D.A.R.E. 55 62 74 90
    • 89-40=49
    • 49/40=1.23
    • 1.23X100=123%
  381. What score must you get on a 150-question test to pass when the pass point is 70%?
  382. The test of police effectiveness is:

    B. the absence of crime and the presence of public order.
  383. The administration of criminal justice consists of the identification, arrest, prosecution,
    punishment, and rehabilitation of a law violator, and it has as its objective:

    A. the voluntary compliance with the law as an alternative to punishment.
  384. Strength through interacting together and working together on common problems can be enhanced through officers and the people feeling at home with one another in an atmosphere of mutual cooperation. This may be described as utilization of:

    D. The Territorial Imperative.
  385. All occurrences of violent behavior between employees will result in:

    B. formal criminal and administrative investigations.
Card Set
Detective Test 2016
Lapd Exam