Immunology Test 1

Biologic activites of the F_c fragment of an IgG molecule include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Binding to an antigen
B) Binding to macrophages
C) Binding to NK cells
D) Transport across the placenta
E) Complement binding

Diagnostic laboratory techniques most frequently used for the visual microscopic detection of antigens in tissue sections include:

A) Radioimmunoassay
B) Mixed lymphocyte reaction
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Precipitation
E) Agglutination

Secretory IgA antibodies:

A) Bind C1 in the activation of the classical complement pathway
B) Mainly exist as monomers
C) Cross the placenta when coupled to a J-chain
D) Are the predominate immunoglobulin in saliva
E) Are the predominate immunoglobulin in serum

The affinity of an anitbody is the measure of:

A) The strength of it binding to antigen
B) Its ability to neutralize toxins
C) How well it is bound by F_c receptors on phagocytes and mast cells
D) The number of antigen it can bind
E) The number of heavy chain domains

The component on the T-cell that actually binds antigen is:

A) CD8
B) CD3
C) CD4
D) An IL-2 receptor
E) A heterodimer of alpha and beta chains

The first Ig synthesized in response to initial exposure to antigen:

A) IgE
B) IgM
C) IgG
D) IgA
E) IgD

Most important for protecting a new-born from bacteria:

A) IgD
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgG
E) IgE

Important in protecting against parasitic infections:

A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgM
E) IgD

The major Ig in the globulin fraction of serum:

A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgE

Can bind the highest number of antigenic determinants:

A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgM

The major Ig produced in a memory response:

A) IgM
B) IgE
C) IgA
D) IgG
E) IgD

Role in B-cell maturation, but no known protective function:

A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE
E) IgD

MHC II proteins are typically found on which type of cell?

A) Neutrophils
B) All cells
C) Endothelial cells
D) Antigen presenting cells
E) All nucleated cells

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid tissue?

A) Lymph node
B) Appendix
C) Thymus
D) Tonsil
E) Spleen

A hapten:

A) Requires a carrier to initiate an immune response
B) Activates macrophages to enhance phagocytosis
C) Stimulates B-cell responses
D) Stimulates T-cell responses
E) Enhances the response of an antigen by forming a depot for the antigen

Adjuvants may be used to:

A) Suppress the immune system to self cells
B) Stimulate T-cell responses to virus-infected cells
C) Inhibit inflammation
D) Form a depot for the antigen, thereby enhancing the immune response of the antigen
E) Attract neutrophils to the site of infection

Which of the following cells is important in antigen processing and presentation?

A) Eosinophils
B) Endothelial cells
C) Neutrophils
D) T-cells
E) Langherans cells

Which of the following factors is secreted my macrophages to induce apoptosis?

A) Interferon-beta
B) Lysozyme
C) Interleukin-4
D) Tumor necrosis factor
E) Interferon-alpha

Generally taken into the cells by phagocytosis:

A) Exogenous antigens
B) Endogenous antigens
C) --

Synthesized within the cell:

A) Endogenous antigens
B) Exogenous antigens
C) --

Processed and expressed on surface of APC in MHC II molecules:

A) Exogenous antigens
B) Endogenous antigens
C) --

Generally recognized by CD4+ cells:

A) Endogenous antigens
B) --
C) Exogenous antigens

Generally recognized by CD8+ cells:

A) --
B) Exogenous antigens
C) Endogenous antigens

Viral antigens:

A) Exogenous antigens
B) Endogenous antigens
C) --

Bacteria:

A) --
B) Exogenous antigens
C) Endogenous antigens

Cytokines are polypeptides produced in response to microbes and other antigens. All of the follow are true of cytokines EXCEPT:

A) Bind to specific membrane receptors on target cells
B) Actions are pleiotropic in that many cytokines have the same effect
C) Result in changes in gene expression in target cells
D) Secretion is a brief, self-limited event
E) Actions may be autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine

Which of the following is not involved in innate immunity?

A) Inflammation
B) Fever
C) Phagocytosis
D) Antibody
E) Lysozyme

Which of the following are characteristic of serum IgM molecules?

1. Contains 5 monomeric Ig molecules
2. J chain
3. mu heavy chains
4. Can bind to more than 2 antigen molecules
5. Secretory component

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 3 only
C) 3, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 4
E) 1 only

All are required in the alternative pathway of complement activation EXCEPT:

A) C1, C2, C4
B) Factor B
C) C3
D) C5, C6, C7
E) C8, C9

Which Ig is the best agglutinin?

A) IgD
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgA

Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?

A) Tetanus anti-toxin
B) Human gamma globulin
C) Rabies immune globulin
D) Rhogam
E) SIgA in breast milk

Which of the following is most important in the specific immune response to intracellular bacteria?

A) Neutrophils
B) Prostaglandins
C) Antibody
D) Complement
E) T cells

All of the following are true of T-independent antigens EXCEPT:

A) Generally have a polymeric structure
B) Induce primarily IgM response
C) Are polyclonal B cell activators
D) Induce immunologic memory
E) Cross-link surface immunoglobulin on B cells

Mechanisms for antibacterial immunity include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Cytotoxic T cell bacteriolysis
B) Antibody and complement mediated bacteriolysis
C) Antibody neutralization of toxins
D) Antibody and complement mediated opsonization for enhanced phagocytosis
E) Intracellular destruction by activated macrophages

Defects in the complement system could result in:

A) Marked decrease in clotting factors
B) Impaired elimination of microbial antigens and circulating immune complexes
C) Increased resistance to viral infections
D) Failure to produce IgG
E) all of the above

Anaphylatoxin activity is associated with:

A) C1
B) C3a and C3b
C) Factor B
D) Properdin
E) C3b

Stimulates the production of IFN-g by NK cells and T cells:

A) IL-12
B) IFN-g
C) IL-10
D) IL-4
E) IL-6

Stimulates proliferation of plasma cells:

A) IL-6
B) IFN-g
C) IL-10
D) IL-4
E) IL-12

Inhibits IL-12 and TNF production:

A) IL-10
B) IL-12
C) IL-6
D) IFN-g
E) IL-4

Stimulates isotype switching to IgE:

A) IL-10
B) IL-12
C) IL-6
D) IL-4
E) IFN-g

Promotes differentiation of T_H1 cells:

A) IL-10
B) IFN-g
C) IL-12
D) IL-4
E) IL-6

Inhibits differentiation of T_H2 cells:

A) IL-12
B) IL-4
C) IL-10
D) IL-6
E) IFN-g

Stimulates development of T_H2 cells from naive CD4+ cells:

A) IFN-g
B) IL-4
C) IL-6
D) IL-12
E) IL-10

Stimulates expression of MHC molecules on APCs:

A) IL-10
B) IFN-g
C) IL-12
D) IL-6
E) IL-4

Asthma is an example of:

A) Delayed type hypersensitivity
B) An autoimmune disease
C) An immune complex disease
D) A complement-mediated disease
E) an IgE mediated syndrome

All of the following have specific receptors for antigen EXCEPT:

A) T_H1 cells
B) NK cells
C) B cells
D) T_H2 cells
E) Cytotoxic T-cells

Active immunization can be induced by all of the following except:

A) Antitoxins
B) Toxoids
C) Bacterial capsular polysaccharides
D) Attenuated micro-organisms
E) Vaccines

Type II hypersensitivity:

A) Requires immune complex formation
B) Is complement independent
C) Is antibody independent
D) Does not involve NK cells
E) Results from antibody dependent lysis

The immunogenicity of a molecule is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Chemical composition
B) Secondary structure
C) Molecular size
D) Degree of foreignness
E) Surface charge

If self-reacting T-cell clones are not surpressed, and individual may develop:

A) Serum sickness
B) Autoimmune disease
C) Cancer
D) Allergies
E) Hypergammaglobulinemia

An antiviral state is induced by:

A) Histamine
B) Prostaglandins
C) Leukotrienes
D) IFN-g
E) Type I interferons

All of the following are true EXCEPT:

A) A typical epitope recognized by B cells is 5 to 7 amino acids in length
B) Antigens generally have only one antigenic determinant
C) B cells and T cells may recognize the same epitope
D) A typical epitope recognized by T cells is 10-15 amino acids in length
E) Only B cells bind directly to antigens

Major component of mast cell granules:

A) Histamine
B) Serotonin
C) SRS-A
D) Platelet activating factor
E) ECF-A

Control mechanism for type I hypersensitivity:

A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) ECF-A
D) SRS-A
E) Platelet activating factor

Effects similar to histamine:

A) Histamine
B) Serotonin
C) ECF-A
D) Platelet activating factor
E) SRS-A

Secondary mediator of type I hypersensitivity leading to prolonged smooth muscle cell contraction:

A) Histamine
B) Serotonin
C) Platelet activating factor
D) ECF-A
E) SRS-A

Hypersensitivity- Skin testing:

A) Type II
B) Type I
C) Type III
D) Type IV

Hypersensitivity- chronic hepatitis B infection:

A) Type IV
B) Type III
C) Type I
D) Type II

Hypersensitivity- ADCC:

A) Type III
B) Type II
C) Type IV
D) Type I

Hypersensitivity- transfusion reactions:

A) Type IV
B) Type I
C) Type II
D) Type III

Hypersensitivity- epinephrine to combat systemic anaphylaxis:

A) Type IV
B) Type III
C) Type I
D) Type II

Hypersensitivity- mononuclear cell infiltrate:

A) Type I
B) Type III
C) Type II
D) Type IV

Hypersensitivity- poison ivy:

A) Type II
B) Type III
C) Type IV
D) Type I

All of the following are true of immunologic tolerance EXCEPT:

A) Induced more readily in mature lymphocytes
B) Can be induced by high doses of antigen
C) Can be induced by low doses of antigen
D) Antigen specificity
E) Can develop naturally

X-linked agammaglobulinanemia is due to:

A) Defective maturation of plasma cells
B) Defective pre-B cell maturation
C) Defective synthesis of adhesion molecules
D) Defective bacteriacidal activity of neutrophils
E) Defective maturation of T cells

Which of the following results from the build-up of toxic metabolites in T cells due to the absence of key enzymes?

A) Chronic granulomatous disease
B) SCID
C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D) Reticular dysgensis
E) Thymic aplasia

beta2-microglobulin is a part of:

A) MHC II
B) TCR
C) HLA-DQ molecules
D) MHC I
E) Surface Ig