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Anatomy part 2

  1. where are growing long bones prone to fracture
    Physis
  2. When do most physes close by what age
    one year
  3. How many Slater Harris Fracture types are there? List the and what they involve
    • Sh1-just the physis
    • Sh2-phsis and through the metaphysis
    • Sh3-physis and epiphysis (articular)
    • Sh4-through joint and across the physis
    • Sh5-compression fracture of the shysis
  4. why do type 3 and 4 physeal fractures have poorer prognosis than 1 and 2
    articular surfaces are involved, must be aligned anatomically or degenerative joint disease
  5. how are compression and traction physeal fractures treated
    • compressio: immobilization
    • Traction: immobilize and counteract pull of the attached muscles
  6. when the majority of the physes of the limbs closed?
    Exceptions?
    • 1year
    • exceptions- iliac crest 1-2.5 years
    • pelvic symphsis - 5-6 years
    • and head of humerus
  7. what are the last physes of the shoulder and stifle to close
    head of humerus (13 months) and the tibial tuberosity
  8. when does the physis of the anconeal process close
    4-6 months (considered ununited if opened at 6 months)
  9. why is the median nerve more in danger in the cat than the dog if the humerus is fractured
    it is the supracondylar canal
  10. what is the landmark for locating the heart valves during auscultation
    olecranon/ point of the elbow in the 5th intercostal space
  11. what is failure of the anconeal process to fuse with the ulna by six months of age
    ununited anconeall process
  12. what improper development commonly leads to arthritis of the elbow
    fragmented medial coronoid process
  13. what smallsesamoid bone on the medial side of the carpus may be mistaken for a chip fracture when seen in radiographs
    sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor(abductor pollicus longus) tendon
  14. what must be removed when declawing to prevent regrowth?
    dorsal part of the ungual crest
  15. fractures- bone twists apart
    spiral fracture
  16. fractures- what fractures do and do not penetrate through the skin
    compund do, simple don't
  17. fractures-fracture where a bone of the skull is pushed inward
    depression fracture
  18. fractures-what is the name for the separation of a small fragemnts of bone where a ligament or tendon attaches
    avulsion fracture
  19. fractures-fracture that is a small piece of bone chipped off a bone
    chip fracture
  20. Fractures - Flat piece of bone separates, common in horse carpal bones
    slab fracture
  21. fractures - fracture that splinters into many fragments
    comminuted fractures
  22. Fracture where the broken ends of the bone are driven into each other
    Impacted fracture
  23. what is inflammation or infection of bone
    osteomyelitis, osteitis
  24. what is a piece of dead bone separated from the rest of the bone in osteomyelitis(it must be removed to heal)
    sequestrum
  25. name three of four common sources to harvest cancellous bone
    tibial tuberosity, greater tubercle of the humerus, greater trochanter of the femur, wing of the ileum
  26. what is inflammation of a tendon? Tendon Sheath?
    tendinitis, tendosynovitis, tenosynovitis(tendovaginitis)
  27. what is osteochondrosis (OC)
    a defect in endochondral ossification which causes the deeper layers of articular cartilage to die
  28. what is osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD)
    osteochondrosis with a dissecting flap or separated piece of cartilage ("joint mouse")
  29. what is the most common place for osteochondrosis in dogs
    shoulder: the head of the humerus
  30. list names for inflammation of a joint
    arthritis, osteoarthritis, osteoarthrosis, osteoarthropathy
  31. what is an infection in a joint with bacteri, virus and or a fungus that causes cartilage damage
    septic (infectious, bacterial) arthritis
  32. DJD stands for what
    degenerative joint disease
  33. list a few radiographic signs of hip dysplasia
    shallow acetabulum, flattened femoral head<half of femoral head inside the acetabulum
  34. when can dogs be certified hip dysplasia free
    after 2 years
  35. what causes patellar luxation
    a shallow patellar (trochlear) groove
  36. what other lesions may accompany a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament
    medial collateral and medial meniscus tears
  37. how is cranial cruciate rupture physically diagnosed
    cranial drawer sign
  38. what is an osseous (bony) outgrowth seen radiographically
    osteophyte/bone spur
  39. what is the term for an increase in the density of a bone
    sclerosis
  40. what is immobility and consolidation of a joint due to disease, injury, or surgical procedure
    ankylosis
  41. what is destruction of a bone, seen as reduced density (blacker)
    lysis
  42. what is a luxation or a dislocation
    complete loss of contact between articular surfaces of a joint
  43. define a subluxation
    partial loss of contact between articular surfaces of a joint
  44. what is the most common direction of hip (coxofemoral) Luxation
    craiodorsal direction
  45. why are articular fractures difficult to treat
    must achieve anatomical reduction and rigid skeletal fixation to perfectly align the cartilage surface or it will rapidly lead to DJD
  46. what is possible sequela to Salter Type 5 fracture (compression)
    angular limb deformity (valgus and varus) deviation of bones from the axis of the limb past the joint
  47. what is valgus and varus? how do you remember which is which
    • VaLgus: lateral deviation of bones past the joint
    • Varus: medial deviation of bones past the joint
    • "L" in valgus for lateral deviation
  48. what results from twisting or overstretching a joint, causing a ligament to tear or separate from its bony attachment
    sprain
  49. What is inflammation of a bursae
    bursitis
  50. what muscles must be transected to remove the entire forelimb, including the scapula
    all the extrinsic muscles of the forelimb
  51. what is atrophy of supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles
    sweeny, suprascapular nerve damage
  52. what results from radial nerve paralysis to the extensors of the thoracic limb
    inablitity to stand (triceps can't extend the elbow) knuckling over of the digits
  53. what is the most important layer that must be opposed when closing a parmedian midline incision
    external rectus sheath
  54. what is the most important structure to close in a midline incision
    linea alba
  55. how would you locate the trahea for an emergency tracheostomy
    skin incision in the ventral neck, separate the strap muscles
  56. what muscle and nerve must be functional to bear weight on the pelvic limb
    quadriceps muscle, femoral nerve
  57. what muscles are paralyzed with obturator nerve damage, resulting in lateral slipping on a slick surface
    adductpr muscle
  58. why does an animal knuckle over on the pelvic lilmb with fibular (peroneal)nerve damage
    paralysis of the extensors of the digits
  59. what is the only laryngeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft
    cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
  60. what muscles does the facial nerve innervate? which is clinically signifficant
    muscles of facial expresion, orbicularis oculi muscle
  61. what muscles are innervated by the mandibular dividion of the trigeminal nerve
    muscles of mastication
  62. what do the 3rd, 4th, and 6th cranial nerve (occulomotor, trohlear, and abducens) innervate
    extrinsic muscles of the eye
  63. what does the hypoglossal nerve innervate
    motor to the muscles of the tongue
  64. what muscles are innervated by both cranial nerve 9 and 10
    muscles of the pharynx
  65. Why can a broken neck results in respiratory paralysis
    phrenic nervee to the diaphragm arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses
  66. what is the panniculus (cutaneous trunci) response
    contraction of the cutaneous trunci muscle in response to a pn prick to the trunk
  67. what is the reflex arc for the panniculus response
    sensation from the skin of the trunk over the thoracic and lumbar spinal nerve to the spinal cord, up the cord to the lateral thoracic nerve, out to the cutaneoud trunci muscle.
  68. clinically, what is the panniculus response used to evaluate
    level of the thoracic spinal cord damage
  69. where is the spinal cord damage if the panniculus response is absent caudal to the level of the 12th thoracic vertebrae
    level of T10
  70. for standing large animal flank surgeries, what must be blocked
    both the dorsal and ventral branches of the abdominal nerves as the dorsal branches are sensory to the top of the flank
  71. what nerve must be considered when removing the anal glands? why?
    Caudal rectal nerve. damage can result in paralysis of the external anal sphincter, thus, fecal incontinence (likely leading to an early demise)
  72. define clonus/clonic muscular spasms
    rapid alternating involuntary muscular contraction and relaxation (UMN sign)
  73. how does a tetanic animal present
    pump handle tail, saw horse stance, lockjaw, sardonic grin
  74. how does coonhound paralysis present
    ascending flaccid paralysis (pelvic limbs first then the front limbs
  75. describe the pathophysiology of tick paralysis
    blocks neuromuscular junctions resulting in a flaccid paralysis that ascends the spinal cord
  76. how does tick paralysis present
    flaccid paralysis that ascends the spinal cord
  77. describe the pathophysiology of a roarer/recurrent laryngeal nerve damage
    paraylsis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle (open glottic cleft) results in a roaring sound when breathing
  78. what is a common serious injury of all the nerves of the forelimb
    complete avulsion (tearing) of the brachial plexus assoicated with HBC
  79. what are the signs of complete avulsion of the brachial plexus
    complete paralysis, extended flaccid limbs, unable to support weight and dragging dorsum of paw
  80. what is sweeney
    damage to the suprascapular nerve, resulting in paralysis of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles acutel, thus, lateral instability of the shoulder joint. with time muscle atrophy corrects the instability, but results in a prominent scapular spine most common in horses
  81. what is the most common and clinically significant nerve problem of the forelimb
    radial paralysis
  82. what are the 2 types of radial nerve injury
    high and low radial nerve injury
  83. what are 2 signs of high radial nerve paralysis? and lower radial nerve damage
    • inability to bear weight on the limb, dropped elbow and knucking over on the digits
    • knuckling over on digits
  84. what sensory loss is diagnostic for radial nerve injury
    loss of sensation on dorsal manus
  85. what resluts from femoral nerve injury and why?
    can't bear weight, or extend stifle, analgesia medial limb (saphenous nerve)
  86. injury to which nerve causes lateral slipping on a slick surface
    obturator nerve
  87. what are the signs of fibular (peroneal) nerve damage
    knuckling over, analgesia of the dorsal pes
  88. how does an animal compensate for peroneal nerve damage
    by flipping the paw as advanced
  89. what is peroneal(fibular) nerve paralysis similar to in the thoracic limb
    low radial nerve paralysis, knuckling over
  90. what is an iatrogenic cause of ischiatic nerve damage, what does it result it
    IM injection in the rear limb, resulting in paresis/paralysis of the rear limb
  91. what is the definition of proprioception
    sensing movements and position of the body parts
  92. what tests are used to evaluate proprioception? example
    postural reactions (proprioceptive placing reaction: placing the animals weight on its dorsal paw should result in immediateadjustment to normal placement)
  93. what does loss of propriocetion tell you clinically
    dosen't localize the lesion but a sensitive indication of a neurological problem (anywhere along the proprioceptive pathway: peripheral nerve, spinal cord, brain stem, cerebrum or cerebellum)
  94. define paralysis
    complete loss of motor activity
  95. define paresis
    weakness, partial loss of voluntary motor activity
  96. what are the suffixes-paresis and plegia used to describe
    parsis and paraylsis, respectively
  97. differentiate flaccid and spastic paresis or paralysis
    • flaccid: decreased or no tone in muscles
    • Spastic: increased tone/hypertonicity
  98. define ataxia
    lack of coordination movements with or without spasticity or paresis
  99. what can cause ataxia
    lesions of the entire nervous system may cause ataxia. Although not specific, it shows up frequently and is indicative of a nervous system problem
  100. define intention tremor and what it indicates
    a tremor (small, rapid, alternating movements at rest) that becomes worse with initiation of a movement and disapears at rest, indicates cerebellar disease
  101. define nystagmus
    involuntary movement of the eyes in wither a rotary, vertical, or horizontal direction
  102. how does nystagmus at rest appear and what does it indicate
    eyes move to the side of the lesion and snap back. abnormality, usually indicates vestibular dysfunction
  103. define dysmetria and what it indicates
    improper measuring of distance in muscular activity, too short or too long (goose stepping) cerebellar disease
  104. how do you screen for neurological problems
    • 1. observe mental attitude and consciousness, behavior, seizures
    • 2. stance and head position
    • 3. gait and strength
    • 4. proprioceptive positioning
  105. why is mental attitude/consciousness behavior, seizures observed in a neuroscreening test
    screen for serebrum and brain stem problems
  106. what does observation of stance and head position of a neuroscreening test check
    cerebelllar problem
  107. what abnormal stance and head position indicate neurological problems (cerebellum/vestibular system)
    head tilt, wide based stance, head tremor/bobbing
  108. what does gait and strength observation evaluate
    entire nervous system
  109. what is gait checked for during a neurological screening test
    proprioceptive deficits, paresis, circling. ataxia, and dysmetria, scuffing, knuckling or atrophy
  110. what does abnormalities in gait indicate in a nerological screening
    nervous system problem (cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or vestibular lesions)
  111. do gait abnormalities localize a neurological lesion
    no, just a neurological problem that can be anywhere: cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or vestibular system
  112. how is strength tested during a neurological exam
    push down on the standing animal
  113. what does weakness indicate during a neurological screening
    nervous problem somewhere other than the cerebellum or peripheral vestibular system (cerebrum, brainstem or spinal cord injuries, peripheral nerves
  114. what is the only part of the nervous system that will not result in weakness
    cerebellum (and peripheral vestibular system)
  115. what is the most common postural reaction used to screen for neurological problems
    proprioceptive positioning (knuckling)
  116. what is a neuro screening test to indicate there is a neurological problem but doesn't localize where the problem is
    proprioceptive positioning (knuckling) postural reaction (gait and strength observation)
  117. for what does proprioceptive positioning (knuckling) test
    consious perceptive of the location of the limbs
  118. what does loss of proprioception tell you clinically
    doesn't localize the lesion, but is a sensitive indication of a neuological problem (anywhere alon the proprioceptive pathway:peripheral nerve, spinal cord, brain stem, cerebrum, or cerebellum)
  119. what is done once screening indicates a neurological problem
    other procedures done to localize the lesions to a specific part of the nervous system
  120. what is a CSF tap and where is it done
    removal of cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space in the cisterna magna or lumbas cistern
  121. what is epidural anesthesia, where is ti commonly given
    anesthetize the spinal nerve in the area, through the lumbosacral opening (L7-S1) into the epidural space
  122. what is the affect of UMNs damage on the LMN
    LMN increase their activity
  123. to where do LMN signs localize the lesion
    peripheral nerves, spinal cord, or segment of brain stem the LMN arises from
  124. define flaccid paresis or paralysis
    decreased or no tone with paresis or paralysis due to lesions of LMN
  125. define spastic paresis or paralysis
    extra tone (hypertonicity) with paresis or paralysis due to lesions of UMNs
  126. what does pointing your thumb down in LMN damage indicate
    everything decreased or disappears
  127. list 4 LMN disease signs (thumb down)
    • 1. decreased or absent tone (hypotonia to atonia)
    • 2. decreased to absent reflexes (hypo to areflexia)
    • 3. flaccid paralysis
    • 4. rapid atrophy (neurogenic atrophy) 1 week
  128. list 4 UMN disease signs (thumb up)
    • 1. normal to increased muscle tone
    • 2. normal to increased reflexes (hypereflexia)
    • 3. spastic paresis to paralysis
    • 4. slow (disuse atrophy)
  129. list how the reflexes are checked for the limbs
    withdrawal reflex
  130. how is a withdrawal relfex performed
    pinch the toe, normal response = normal withdrawal of the limb
  131. how is tone evaluated
    palpate the muscles of the limbs
  132. localize the lesions: flaccid paralysis, absent reflexes and tone, and rapid atrophy to the pelvic limbs with normal thoracic limbs
    L4-S1 spinal cord lesions (area 4) (LMN signs to pelvic limbs, normal thoracic limbs)
  133. localize the lesions: spastic paresis, increased reflexes and tone to the left pelvic limb and flaccid paralysis, decreased relfexes and tone to the left thoracis limb
    unilateral C6-T1 (area 2) on the left (LMN: left thoracic and UMN: lateral pelvic limb)
  134. localize the lesions: spastic paresis, increased reflexes and increased tone to all the limbs
    lesions cranial to C6 (area 1)
  135. localize the lesions:spastic paresis, increased reflexes and increasded tone to all limbs
    T3-L3 (area 3) (UMN:P limbs: Normal+- Shiff-Sherington)
  136. List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:
    C1-5 spinal cord
    all 4 limbs: UMN (thumb up) (no LMN signs to any limb)
  137. List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:
    cervical enlargement C6-T2
    • pelvic limb:UMN (thumb up)
    • thoracic limb: LMN (thumb down)
  138. List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:
    T3-L3
    • Pelvic limb: UMN (thumb up)
    • thoracic limb: no effect (+/- Shiff-Sherrington)
  139. List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord
    L4-S1
    • Pelvic limb: LMN (thumb down)
    • thoracic limb: NO effect
  140. what causes a coma
    complete disconnection of the reticular activation system form the serebral cortx, usually due to a sever brain stem lesion
  141. list 3 primay deficits that may be seen with lesions to the cerebrum
    seizures, behavior and mentation abnormalities, depression, abnomal posture with normal gait, bind with normal pupillary reflexes, compulsive pacing, head pressing, proprioception deficits
  142. unilateral cerebral lesions will cause ____ signs
    contralateral (opposite side)
  143. how is the brain stem disease characterized
    abnormal gait + abnormal posture and cranial nerve deficits, decreased mental states, proprioception deficits and weakness
  144. what is the range of decreased levels of consiousness due to brainstem lesions
    depression to coma
  145. what is the best evidence of brainstem lesions
    multiple dysfunction of cranial nerves 3-12
  146. when should brain stem disease be suspected
    if cranial nerve abnomalities + UMN paresis or decreased consiousness
  147. how does a cerebellar lesion present
    uncoordinated without paresis (noweakness) proprioceptive deficits, vestibular signs
  148. what do vestibular system lesions affect
    the ability to control posture in realtionship to gravity and eye movement in realtionship to head movement
  149. what are signs of vestibular disease
    head tilt, nystagmus, asymmetria ataxia with possibly circling
  150. what is the primary diagnostic concern with vestibular disease
    differentiating peripheral (no paresis or depression) from central (paresis and depression) vestibular disease
  151. what results in swelling or draining (pus) below the carnivore's eye
    carnissal tooth abscess (upper P4)
  152. How is aging of dog by their teeth used practically in dogs
    baby teeth in by 6 months
  153. which dog teeth have three roots
    last 3 on top
  154. which cat permanent teeth has 3 roots
    upper PM4 (carnassial)
  155. how is a nasogastric tube placed
    through the nostril and ventral nasal meatus or it will break the ethmoid turbinates, resulting in nasal bleeding (expistaxis)
  156. a laryngotomy to open the larynx goes throungh which paired muscles to expose the larynx
    sternohyoid muscle, middle strap muscle
  157. the esophagus is accessible to surgery in the ____ half of the neck region on the ___ side
    Caudal, left
  158. what surgical landmark indicates the ventral midline of the larynx
    cricothyroideus or bow tie muscle
  159. paralysis of what muscle results in "roarers" in horses
    cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
  160. how is a tranquilized dog intubated
    gently pull the tongue rostrally, push the soft palate up with the endotracheal tube, hold the epiglottis down with the tube, direct the tube between the vocal folds into the trachea
  161. what causes laryngeal paralysis (dogs and horses)
    damage to the recurrent larynegeal nerve resulting in paraylsis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle, the only muscle to open the glottice cleft, producing a roaring sound when breathing
  162. what is a roarer
    dog or horse with laryngeal paralysis due to the recurrent laryngeal paralysis due to the recurrent laryngeal nreve damage and resulting paralysis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
  163. what is the first deficit to show with a neurological deficit
    proprioceptive positioning
  164. what does BAR stand for
    bright alert and responsive
  165. what does multiple dysfunction of cranial nerves indicate
    brain stem lesion
  166. what would cause a dropped jaw
    paralysis of trigeminal nerve (CrN5)
  167. why is paralysis of the orbicularis oculi and loss of lacrimation the most vital results of facial nerve paralysis
    drying of eye, animal are not vain (facial paralysis)
  168. how is the auriculopalpebral nerve manipulated clinically? in what species?
    blocked to paralyze eyelids for eye procedures, large animals
  169. how is the facial nerve commonly injured in the horse
    lying on a halter buckle during surgery
  170. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    optic
    blindness
  171. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    sympathetic, parasympathetic
    anisocoria (unequal sized pupils)
  172. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    ocularmotor, trochlear, abducent,
    strbismus (uncontrolled deviation of the eye)
  173. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    trigeminal
    dropped jaw, head atrophy, increased or decreased facial sensation
  174. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    facial
    facial paralysis
  175. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    vestibulocochlear
    deafness and/or loss of balance
  176. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    glossopharyngeal, vagus
    dysphagia (difficult swallowing)
  177. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    vagus
    megaesophagus
  178. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    vagus, recurrent laryngeal nerve
    laryngeal paralysis
  179. what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
    hypoglossal nerve
    paralysis of the tongue
  180. paralysis of which nerve results in a weak tongue
    hypoglossal nerve
  181. how is the facial/trigeminal reflex arc checked
    prick the face, pulling away indicates intact trigeminal nerve, twist of face muscles indicated intact facial nerve
  182. what cranial nerve problem can be seen with middle ear infections
    paralysis of the facial nerve and resulting dry eye
  183. what procedure can be used to facilitate the exam of the eye? how?
    auriculopalpebral nerve (facial branch) block, eliminates blinking and closing of the eye ( rare in the dog, common in horses)
  184. what are signs of damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
    laryngeal paralysis/hemiplegia: failure of the glottic cleft to open. Seen in horses "roarers" and dogs. high pitched, whistling on inspiration and exercise intolerance occur
  185. discuss the clinical significance of the accessory nerve
    little clinical significance
  186. describe the pupillary light reflex and what structures it involves
    shining a light in the eye, nothing if the pupil constricts in that eye and then the other eye, checks both cranial nerves II and III
  187. describe the signs of facial nerve damage
    paralysis of the muscles of facial expression resulting in a distorted face, paralysis of the orbicularis oris muscle. and if proximal enough, the ANS fibers to the lacrimal gland, thus can result in a dry eye (rare)
  188. what is dysfunction of the sympathetic fibers to the eye
    horner's syndrome
  189. list the cardinal signs of Horner's syndrome
    Miosis (small pupil), enophthalmos (small eyes), ptosis(drooping eyelid), protrusion of the 3rd eyelid
Author
rreavis
ID
31313
Card Set
Anatomy part 2
Description
Part 2 - Overview
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