-
where are growing long bones prone to fracture
Physis
-
When do most physes close by what age
one year
-
How many Slater Harris Fracture types are there? List the and what they involve
- Sh1-just the physis
- Sh2-phsis and through the metaphysis
- Sh3-physis and epiphysis (articular)
- Sh4-through joint and across the physis
- Sh5-compression fracture of the shysis
-
why do type 3 and 4 physeal fractures have poorer prognosis than 1 and 2
articular surfaces are involved, must be aligned anatomically or degenerative joint disease
-
how are compression and traction physeal fractures treated
- compressio: immobilization
- Traction: immobilize and counteract pull of the attached muscles
-
when the majority of the physes of the limbs closed?
Exceptions?
- 1year
- exceptions- iliac crest 1-2.5 years
- pelvic symphsis - 5-6 years
- and head of humerus
-
what are the last physes of the shoulder and stifle to close
head of humerus (13 months) and the tibial tuberosity
-
when does the physis of the anconeal process close
4-6 months (considered ununited if opened at 6 months)
-
why is the median nerve more in danger in the cat than the dog if the humerus is fractured
it is the supracondylar canal
-
what is the landmark for locating the heart valves during auscultation
olecranon/ point of the elbow in the 5th intercostal space
-
what is failure of the anconeal process to fuse with the ulna by six months of age
ununited anconeall process
-
what improper development commonly leads to arthritis of the elbow
fragmented medial coronoid process
-
what smallsesamoid bone on the medial side of the carpus may be mistaken for a chip fracture when seen in radiographs
sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor(abductor pollicus longus) tendon
-
what must be removed when declawing to prevent regrowth?
dorsal part of the ungual crest
-
fractures- bone twists apart
spiral fracture
-
fractures- what fractures do and do not penetrate through the skin
compund do, simple don't
-
fractures-fracture where a bone of the skull is pushed inward
depression fracture
-
fractures-what is the name for the separation of a small fragemnts of bone where a ligament or tendon attaches
avulsion fracture
-
fractures-fracture that is a small piece of bone chipped off a bone
chip fracture
-
Fractures - Flat piece of bone separates, common in horse carpal bones
slab fracture
-
fractures - fracture that splinters into many fragments
comminuted fractures
-
Fracture where the broken ends of the bone are driven into each other
Impacted fracture
-
what is inflammation or infection of bone
osteomyelitis, osteitis
-
what is a piece of dead bone separated from the rest of the bone in osteomyelitis(it must be removed to heal)
sequestrum
-
name three of four common sources to harvest cancellous bone
tibial tuberosity, greater tubercle of the humerus, greater trochanter of the femur, wing of the ileum
-
what is inflammation of a tendon? Tendon Sheath?
tendinitis, tendosynovitis, tenosynovitis(tendovaginitis)
-
what is osteochondrosis (OC)
a defect in endochondral ossification which causes the deeper layers of articular cartilage to die
-
what is osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD)
osteochondrosis with a dissecting flap or separated piece of cartilage ("joint mouse")
-
what is the most common place for osteochondrosis in dogs
shoulder: the head of the humerus
-
list names for inflammation of a joint
arthritis, osteoarthritis, osteoarthrosis, osteoarthropathy
-
what is an infection in a joint with bacteri, virus and or a fungus that causes cartilage damage
septic (infectious, bacterial) arthritis
-
DJD stands for what
degenerative joint disease
-
list a few radiographic signs of hip dysplasia
shallow acetabulum, flattened femoral head<half of femoral head inside the acetabulum
-
when can dogs be certified hip dysplasia free
after 2 years
-
what causes patellar luxation
a shallow patellar (trochlear) groove
-
what other lesions may accompany a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament
medial collateral and medial meniscus tears
-
how is cranial cruciate rupture physically diagnosed
cranial drawer sign
-
what is an osseous (bony) outgrowth seen radiographically
osteophyte/bone spur
-
what is the term for an increase in the density of a bone
sclerosis
-
what is immobility and consolidation of a joint due to disease, injury, or surgical procedure
ankylosis
-
what is destruction of a bone, seen as reduced density (blacker)
lysis
-
what is a luxation or a dislocation
complete loss of contact between articular surfaces of a joint
-
define a subluxation
partial loss of contact between articular surfaces of a joint
-
what is the most common direction of hip (coxofemoral) Luxation
craiodorsal direction
-
why are articular fractures difficult to treat
must achieve anatomical reduction and rigid skeletal fixation to perfectly align the cartilage surface or it will rapidly lead to DJD
-
what is possible sequela to Salter Type 5 fracture (compression)
angular limb deformity (valgus and varus) deviation of bones from the axis of the limb past the joint
-
what is valgus and varus? how do you remember which is which
- VaLgus: lateral deviation of bones past the joint
- Varus: medial deviation of bones past the joint
- "L" in valgus for lateral deviation
-
what results from twisting or overstretching a joint, causing a ligament to tear or separate from its bony attachment
sprain
-
What is inflammation of a bursae
bursitis
-
what muscles must be transected to remove the entire forelimb, including the scapula
all the extrinsic muscles of the forelimb
-
what is atrophy of supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles
sweeny, suprascapular nerve damage
-
what results from radial nerve paralysis to the extensors of the thoracic limb
inablitity to stand (triceps can't extend the elbow) knuckling over of the digits
-
what is the most important layer that must be opposed when closing a parmedian midline incision
external rectus sheath
-
what is the most important structure to close in a midline incision
linea alba
-
how would you locate the trahea for an emergency tracheostomy
skin incision in the ventral neck, separate the strap muscles
-
what muscle and nerve must be functional to bear weight on the pelvic limb
quadriceps muscle, femoral nerve
-
what muscles are paralyzed with obturator nerve damage, resulting in lateral slipping on a slick surface
adductpr muscle
-
why does an animal knuckle over on the pelvic lilmb with fibular (peroneal)nerve damage
paralysis of the extensors of the digits
-
what is the only laryngeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
-
what muscles does the facial nerve innervate? which is clinically signifficant
muscles of facial expresion, orbicularis oculi muscle
-
what muscles are innervated by the mandibular dividion of the trigeminal nerve
muscles of mastication
-
what do the 3rd, 4th, and 6th cranial nerve (occulomotor, trohlear, and abducens) innervate
extrinsic muscles of the eye
-
what does the hypoglossal nerve innervate
motor to the muscles of the tongue
-
what muscles are innervated by both cranial nerve 9 and 10
muscles of the pharynx
-
Why can a broken neck results in respiratory paralysis
phrenic nervee to the diaphragm arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses
-
what is the panniculus (cutaneous trunci) response
contraction of the cutaneous trunci muscle in response to a pn prick to the trunk
-
what is the reflex arc for the panniculus response
sensation from the skin of the trunk over the thoracic and lumbar spinal nerve to the spinal cord, up the cord to the lateral thoracic nerve, out to the cutaneoud trunci muscle.
-
clinically, what is the panniculus response used to evaluate
level of the thoracic spinal cord damage
-
where is the spinal cord damage if the panniculus response is absent caudal to the level of the 12th thoracic vertebrae
level of T10
-
for standing large animal flank surgeries, what must be blocked
both the dorsal and ventral branches of the abdominal nerves as the dorsal branches are sensory to the top of the flank
-
what nerve must be considered when removing the anal glands? why?
Caudal rectal nerve. damage can result in paralysis of the external anal sphincter, thus, fecal incontinence (likely leading to an early demise)
-
define clonus/clonic muscular spasms
rapid alternating involuntary muscular contraction and relaxation (UMN sign)
-
how does a tetanic animal present
pump handle tail, saw horse stance, lockjaw, sardonic grin
-
how does coonhound paralysis present
ascending flaccid paralysis (pelvic limbs first then the front limbs
-
describe the pathophysiology of tick paralysis
blocks neuromuscular junctions resulting in a flaccid paralysis that ascends the spinal cord
-
how does tick paralysis present
flaccid paralysis that ascends the spinal cord
-
describe the pathophysiology of a roarer/recurrent laryngeal nerve damage
paraylsis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle (open glottic cleft) results in a roaring sound when breathing
-
what is a common serious injury of all the nerves of the forelimb
complete avulsion (tearing) of the brachial plexus assoicated with HBC
-
what are the signs of complete avulsion of the brachial plexus
complete paralysis, extended flaccid limbs, unable to support weight and dragging dorsum of paw
-
what is sweeney
damage to the suprascapular nerve, resulting in paralysis of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles acutel, thus, lateral instability of the shoulder joint. with time muscle atrophy corrects the instability, but results in a prominent scapular spine most common in horses
-
what is the most common and clinically significant nerve problem of the forelimb
radial paralysis
-
what are the 2 types of radial nerve injury
high and low radial nerve injury
-
what are 2 signs of high radial nerve paralysis? and lower radial nerve damage
- inability to bear weight on the limb, dropped elbow and knucking over on the digits
- knuckling over on digits
-
what sensory loss is diagnostic for radial nerve injury
loss of sensation on dorsal manus
-
what resluts from femoral nerve injury and why?
can't bear weight, or extend stifle, analgesia medial limb (saphenous nerve)
-
injury to which nerve causes lateral slipping on a slick surface
obturator nerve
-
what are the signs of fibular (peroneal) nerve damage
knuckling over, analgesia of the dorsal pes
-
how does an animal compensate for peroneal nerve damage
by flipping the paw as advanced
-
what is peroneal(fibular) nerve paralysis similar to in the thoracic limb
low radial nerve paralysis, knuckling over
-
what is an iatrogenic cause of ischiatic nerve damage, what does it result it
IM injection in the rear limb, resulting in paresis/paralysis of the rear limb
-
what is the definition of proprioception
sensing movements and position of the body parts
-
what tests are used to evaluate proprioception? example
postural reactions (proprioceptive placing reaction: placing the animals weight on its dorsal paw should result in immediateadjustment to normal placement)
-
what does loss of propriocetion tell you clinically
dosen't localize the lesion but a sensitive indication of a neurological problem (anywhere along the proprioceptive pathway: peripheral nerve, spinal cord, brain stem, cerebrum or cerebellum)
-
define paralysis
complete loss of motor activity
-
define paresis
weakness, partial loss of voluntary motor activity
-
what are the suffixes-paresis and plegia used to describe
parsis and paraylsis, respectively
-
differentiate flaccid and spastic paresis or paralysis
- flaccid: decreased or no tone in muscles
- Spastic: increased tone/hypertonicity
-
define ataxia
lack of coordination movements with or without spasticity or paresis
-
what can cause ataxia
lesions of the entire nervous system may cause ataxia. Although not specific, it shows up frequently and is indicative of a nervous system problem
-
define intention tremor and what it indicates
a tremor (small, rapid, alternating movements at rest) that becomes worse with initiation of a movement and disapears at rest, indicates cerebellar disease
-
define nystagmus
involuntary movement of the eyes in wither a rotary, vertical, or horizontal direction
-
how does nystagmus at rest appear and what does it indicate
eyes move to the side of the lesion and snap back. abnormality, usually indicates vestibular dysfunction
-
define dysmetria and what it indicates
improper measuring of distance in muscular activity, too short or too long (goose stepping) cerebellar disease
-
how do you screen for neurological problems
- 1. observe mental attitude and consciousness, behavior, seizures
- 2. stance and head position
- 3. gait and strength
- 4. proprioceptive positioning
-
why is mental attitude/consciousness behavior, seizures observed in a neuroscreening test
screen for serebrum and brain stem problems
-
what does observation of stance and head position of a neuroscreening test check
cerebelllar problem
-
what abnormal stance and head position indicate neurological problems (cerebellum/vestibular system)
head tilt, wide based stance, head tremor/bobbing
-
what does gait and strength observation evaluate
entire nervous system
-
what is gait checked for during a neurological screening test
proprioceptive deficits, paresis, circling. ataxia, and dysmetria, scuffing, knuckling or atrophy
-
what does abnormalities in gait indicate in a nerological screening
nervous system problem (cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or vestibular lesions)
-
do gait abnormalities localize a neurological lesion
no, just a neurological problem that can be anywhere: cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or vestibular system
-
how is strength tested during a neurological exam
push down on the standing animal
-
what does weakness indicate during a neurological screening
nervous problem somewhere other than the cerebellum or peripheral vestibular system (cerebrum, brainstem or spinal cord injuries, peripheral nerves
-
what is the only part of the nervous system that will not result in weakness
cerebellum (and peripheral vestibular system)
-
what is the most common postural reaction used to screen for neurological problems
proprioceptive positioning (knuckling)
-
what is a neuro screening test to indicate there is a neurological problem but doesn't localize where the problem is
proprioceptive positioning (knuckling) postural reaction (gait and strength observation)
-
for what does proprioceptive positioning (knuckling) test
consious perceptive of the location of the limbs
-
what does loss of proprioception tell you clinically
doesn't localize the lesion, but is a sensitive indication of a neuological problem (anywhere alon the proprioceptive pathway:peripheral nerve, spinal cord, brain stem, cerebrum, or cerebellum)
-
what is done once screening indicates a neurological problem
other procedures done to localize the lesions to a specific part of the nervous system
-
what is a CSF tap and where is it done
removal of cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space in the cisterna magna or lumbas cistern
-
what is epidural anesthesia, where is ti commonly given
anesthetize the spinal nerve in the area, through the lumbosacral opening (L7-S1) into the epidural space
-
what is the affect of UMNs damage on the LMN
LMN increase their activity
-
to where do LMN signs localize the lesion
peripheral nerves, spinal cord, or segment of brain stem the LMN arises from
-
define flaccid paresis or paralysis
decreased or no tone with paresis or paralysis due to lesions of LMN
-
define spastic paresis or paralysis
extra tone (hypertonicity) with paresis or paralysis due to lesions of UMNs
-
what does pointing your thumb down in LMN damage indicate
everything decreased or disappears
-
list 4 LMN disease signs (thumb down)
- 1. decreased or absent tone (hypotonia to atonia)
- 2. decreased to absent reflexes (hypo to areflexia)
- 3. flaccid paralysis
- 4. rapid atrophy (neurogenic atrophy) 1 week
-
list 4 UMN disease signs (thumb up)
- 1. normal to increased muscle tone
- 2. normal to increased reflexes (hypereflexia)
- 3. spastic paresis to paralysis
- 4. slow (disuse atrophy)
-
list how the reflexes are checked for the limbs
withdrawal reflex
-
how is a withdrawal relfex performed
pinch the toe, normal response = normal withdrawal of the limb
-
how is tone evaluated
palpate the muscles of the limbs
-
localize the lesions: flaccid paralysis, absent reflexes and tone, and rapid atrophy to the pelvic limbs with normal thoracic limbs
L4-S1 spinal cord lesions (area 4) (LMN signs to pelvic limbs, normal thoracic limbs)
-
localize the lesions: spastic paresis, increased reflexes and tone to the left pelvic limb and flaccid paralysis, decreased relfexes and tone to the left thoracis limb
unilateral C6-T1 (area 2) on the left (LMN: left thoracic and UMN: lateral pelvic limb)
-
localize the lesions: spastic paresis, increased reflexes and increased tone to all the limbs
lesions cranial to C6 (area 1)
-
localize the lesions:spastic paresis, increased reflexes and increasded tone to all limbs
T3-L3 (area 3) (UMN:P limbs: Normal+- Shiff-Sherington)
-
List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:
C1-5 spinal cord
all 4 limbs: UMN (thumb up) (no LMN signs to any limb)
-
List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:
cervical enlargement C6-T2
- pelvic limb:UMN (thumb up)
- thoracic limb: LMN (thumb down)
-
List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:
T3-L3
- Pelvic limb: UMN (thumb up)
- thoracic limb: no effect (+/- Shiff-Sherrington)
-
List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord
L4-S1
- Pelvic limb: LMN (thumb down)
- thoracic limb: NO effect
-
what causes a coma
complete disconnection of the reticular activation system form the serebral cortx, usually due to a sever brain stem lesion
-
list 3 primay deficits that may be seen with lesions to the cerebrum
seizures, behavior and mentation abnormalities, depression, abnomal posture with normal gait, bind with normal pupillary reflexes, compulsive pacing, head pressing, proprioception deficits
-
unilateral cerebral lesions will cause ____ signs
contralateral (opposite side)
-
how is the brain stem disease characterized
abnormal gait + abnormal posture and cranial nerve deficits, decreased mental states, proprioception deficits and weakness
-
what is the range of decreased levels of consiousness due to brainstem lesions
depression to coma
-
what is the best evidence of brainstem lesions
multiple dysfunction of cranial nerves 3-12
-
when should brain stem disease be suspected
if cranial nerve abnomalities + UMN paresis or decreased consiousness
-
how does a cerebellar lesion present
uncoordinated without paresis (noweakness) proprioceptive deficits, vestibular signs
-
what do vestibular system lesions affect
the ability to control posture in realtionship to gravity and eye movement in realtionship to head movement
-
what are signs of vestibular disease
head tilt, nystagmus, asymmetria ataxia with possibly circling
-
what is the primary diagnostic concern with vestibular disease
differentiating peripheral (no paresis or depression) from central (paresis and depression) vestibular disease
-
what results in swelling or draining (pus) below the carnivore's eye
carnissal tooth abscess (upper P4)
-
How is aging of dog by their teeth used practically in dogs
baby teeth in by 6 months
-
which dog teeth have three roots
last 3 on top
-
which cat permanent teeth has 3 roots
upper PM4 (carnassial)
-
how is a nasogastric tube placed
through the nostril and ventral nasal meatus or it will break the ethmoid turbinates, resulting in nasal bleeding (expistaxis)
-
a laryngotomy to open the larynx goes throungh which paired muscles to expose the larynx
sternohyoid muscle, middle strap muscle
-
the esophagus is accessible to surgery in the ____ half of the neck region on the ___ side
Caudal, left
-
what surgical landmark indicates the ventral midline of the larynx
cricothyroideus or bow tie muscle
-
paralysis of what muscle results in "roarers" in horses
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
-
how is a tranquilized dog intubated
gently pull the tongue rostrally, push the soft palate up with the endotracheal tube, hold the epiglottis down with the tube, direct the tube between the vocal folds into the trachea
-
what causes laryngeal paralysis (dogs and horses)
damage to the recurrent larynegeal nerve resulting in paraylsis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle, the only muscle to open the glottice cleft, producing a roaring sound when breathing
-
what is a roarer
dog or horse with laryngeal paralysis due to the recurrent laryngeal paralysis due to the recurrent laryngeal nreve damage and resulting paralysis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
-
what is the first deficit to show with a neurological deficit
proprioceptive positioning
-
what does BAR stand for
bright alert and responsive
-
what does multiple dysfunction of cranial nerves indicate
brain stem lesion
-
what would cause a dropped jaw
paralysis of trigeminal nerve (CrN5)
-
why is paralysis of the orbicularis oculi and loss of lacrimation the most vital results of facial nerve paralysis
drying of eye, animal are not vain (facial paralysis)
-
how is the auriculopalpebral nerve manipulated clinically? in what species?
blocked to paralyze eyelids for eye procedures, large animals
-
how is the facial nerve commonly injured in the horse
lying on a halter buckle during surgery
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
optic
blindness
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
sympathetic, parasympathetic
anisocoria (unequal sized pupils)
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
ocularmotor, trochlear, abducent,
strbismus (uncontrolled deviation of the eye)
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
trigeminal
dropped jaw, head atrophy, increased or decreased facial sensation
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
facial
facial paralysis
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
vestibulocochlear
deafness and/or loss of balance
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
glossopharyngeal, vagus
dysphagia (difficult swallowing)
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
vagus
megaesophagus
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
vagus, recurrent laryngeal nerve
laryngeal paralysis
-
what is the complaint associated with this cranial nerve:
hypoglossal nerve
paralysis of the tongue
-
paralysis of which nerve results in a weak tongue
hypoglossal nerve
-
how is the facial/trigeminal reflex arc checked
prick the face, pulling away indicates intact trigeminal nerve, twist of face muscles indicated intact facial nerve
-
what cranial nerve problem can be seen with middle ear infections
paralysis of the facial nerve and resulting dry eye
-
what procedure can be used to facilitate the exam of the eye? how?
auriculopalpebral nerve (facial branch) block, eliminates blinking and closing of the eye ( rare in the dog, common in horses)
-
what are signs of damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
laryngeal paralysis/hemiplegia: failure of the glottic cleft to open. Seen in horses "roarers" and dogs. high pitched, whistling on inspiration and exercise intolerance occur
-
discuss the clinical significance of the accessory nerve
little clinical significance
-
describe the pupillary light reflex and what structures it involves
shining a light in the eye, nothing if the pupil constricts in that eye and then the other eye, checks both cranial nerves II and III
-
describe the signs of facial nerve damage
paralysis of the muscles of facial expression resulting in a distorted face, paralysis of the orbicularis oris muscle. and if proximal enough, the ANS fibers to the lacrimal gland, thus can result in a dry eye (rare)
-
what is dysfunction of the sympathetic fibers to the eye
horner's syndrome
-
list the cardinal signs of Horner's syndrome
Miosis (small pupil), enophthalmos (small eyes), ptosis(drooping eyelid), protrusion of the 3rd eyelid
|
|