QA Software Testing

  1. Testing based on the knowledge of internal code structure and logic is called ______________
    White box or structural testing
  2. Why do we test software? (5 reasons)
    • 1. Because developers are not capable of developing defect free code
    • 2. To establish confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do
    • 3. To review attributes of the product (efficiency, maintainability, portability)
    • 4. To mitigate risk inherent in computer systems
    • 5. To find defects
    • 6. To satisfy the customer
  3. This is an attribute of a product or service
    Quality
  4. Define risk
    Risk is the probability that an unfavorable event will occur which will result in loss
  5. Many testing experts agree that it is not practical to test every component and task in a software system. Less than full testing is the norm. Who should make the determination on how much testing should be performed?
    Test Manager or Project Manager
  6. What is boundary value analysis?
    Test cases that focus on the upper and lower ranges of boundaries of a given function.
  7. This type of testing is normally NOT performed by developers and/or software testers
    Acceptance testing
  8. In preparation for developing the acceptance criteria, the user is responsible for all of the following except:




    B. Identify who tested the software
  9. If you are a software testing manager in your organization and you are responsible for testing software used by your organization, what reponsibility can you NOT outsource to the contractor developing the software?




    A. Responsibility of the quality of the software
  10. The provision in a contract in which the contractor guarentees that the deliverables will meet the specification is called ___________
    warranty
  11. This type of testing is performed by user personnel and may include assistance by software testers:
    Acceptance testing
  12. What is integration testing? (3 items)
    • 1. Tests the integration of components that have been successfully unit tested.
    • 2. Validates the technical quality of the design
    • 3. Tests the integration of the application with the environment
  13. Define acceptance testing
    Formal testing conducted to determine whether a software system satisfied it's established criteria and to enable the buyer to determine whether to accept the system.
  14. What is system testing? (2 things)
    • 1. Tests the entire assembled system
    • 2. Validates functional and non-functional requirements
  15. What is acceptance testing? (2 things)
    • 1. Validates system is 'fit for use'
    • 2. Evaluates how the system integrates with the manual business process
  16. A major difference between structural and functional testing is that ______________
    Structural testing (white box) focuses on coding structure and content.

    Functional testing (black box) focuses on business requirements with no knowledge of internal code.
  17. What is unit testing? (2 things)
    • 1. Testing individual programs or components to validate that the logic works according to specification.
    • 2. Validates techincal quality of code.
  18. This is BEST described as the application system, documenation and other products to be provided by the contractor:




    A. Deliverables
  19. Inspection of source code of a program is a function of:
    Quality Control
  20. The cost of quality includes:




    D. Both a. and c.
  21. Three examples of appraisal activities are:
    • 1. Software testing
    • 2. Reviews
    • 3. Inspections
  22. Which of the following is NOT a category of the Cost of Quality?




    C. Cost to build
  23. The Cost of Quality can be reduced by:




    B. Testing continuously through the SDLC
  24. Identifying defects in a program for the primary purpose of preventing defects is a function of:
    Quality Assurance
  25. This testing tequnique assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is known:
    White box or structural testing
  26. Regression testing can BEST be defined as:
    A revalidation that changes made do not influence other functions
  27. Dynamic testing is the testing that is performed when?
    During the execution of the program
  28. Stress testing is designed to determine:
    If the system can function when large activity is encountered
  29. The four components of FIT are:
    • 1. Data
    • 2. People
    • 3. Rules
    • 4. Structure
  30. When should boundary value analysis be used?
    To ensure that a function responds according to specifications
  31. Which of the following is NOT true regarding software acceptance?




    C. Let the producing organization perform final acceptance activities
  32. Who is responsible for Internal Control?
    While everyone, particularly management, has some responsibility for internal control, it is the CEO that ultimately is responsible for the company's Internal Control system.
  33. Selection and implementation of a development methodology is a function of:
    Quality Assurance
  34. Unit testing to validate that the program works is a function of:
    Quality Control
  35. Verification that computer jobs have been run for that day is a function of:
    Quality Assurance
  36. Analysis to determine whether computer jobs are being run on time is a function of:
    Quality Assurance
  37. Metrics collected to determine the effectiveness of system testing is a function of:
    Quality Assurance
  38. Identifying defects in a program for the primary purpose of correcting defects is a function of:
    Quality Control
  39. Analysis of defects to determine the start of origin is a function of:
    Quality Assurance
  40. Identifying whether attributes are part of a specific product is a function of:
    Quality Control
  41. What are the two views of quality?
    Producer and Customer
  42. Define the producer's view of quality.
    A product is a quality product if it meets or conforms to the statement of requirements that defines the product.
  43. The collection of metrics to measure the effectiveness of unit and system testing is a function of:
    Quality Assurance
  44. Define the customer's view of quality.
    A product is a quality product if it is 'fit for use'.
  45. This view of quality means that the requirement has not been met:
    Producer's view
  46. This view of quality means that the product or service has met the needs regardless of the requirements:
    Customer view
  47. Most IT groups have to two quality gaps. They are:
    Producer and Customer
  48. Which statement BEST defines the producer gap of quality?
    The difference between what is specified vs. what is actually delivered.
  49. This view of quality is based on that of the organization that provides the producer with products or services:
    Supplier view
  50. Identifying defects in a program for the primary purpose of correcting defects is a function of:
    Quality Control
  51. Testing is a:




    C. Process
  52. Define Cost of Quality:
    Money spent beyond the cost to build the product right the first time.
  53. Name the three costs associated with Cost of Quality:
    • 1. Prevention
    • 2. Appraisal
    • 3. Failure
  54. In a cost of quality analysis, the cost required to avoid errors to do the job right the first time is called:
    Prevention costs
  55. The P in the PDCA cycle stands for:
    Plan
  56. How would you measure Test Plan completeness?
    • 1. # of changes to the plan
    • 2. Test coverage - how many requirements are covered?
    • 3. For status reporting:
    • a. # test cases executed/total # test cases
    • b. # test cases failed
  57. How would you measure tool usuage?
    • 1. Effectiveness in finding defects
    • 2. Efficiency of tool
  58. How would you measure tester competency?
    • 1. # defects doscovered post implementation
    • 2. Customer satisfaction
    • 3. Professionalism and communication skills
    • 4. Completed checklists, plans, documentation
    • 5. # changes to test plans
  59. This role in acceptance testing begins with the determination as to whether acceptance testing will or will not occur:
    Software user (the customer)
  60. This role in acceptance testing may or may not be an active participant and cannot include defining the acceptance criteria:
    Software tester
  61. What are the four categories of acceptance requirements that a system must meet?
    • 1. Functionality requirements
    • 2. Performance requirements
    • 3. Interface requirements
    • 4. Overall software quality requirements
  62. Define "use cases"
    High level flow of business process. Use cases help in the understanding of the system flow.
  63. List the most important parts of an acceptance test plan:
    • 1. Testing objective
    • 2. Testing scope: In scope/Out of scope
    • 3. Roles and responsibilities
    • 4. Acceptance criteria
    • 5. Administrative items
  64. The extent to which a program satisfies its specificaitons and fullfills the user's mission ojectives is called:
    Correctness
  65. Effort required to locate and fix an error in a program is called
    Maintainability
  66. In defining the Cost of Quality, appraisal costs are BEST described as:
    Costs incurred to review interim products against requirements.
  67. In the PDCA cycle, training is provided during this piece:
    DO
  68. Retesting falls into which category of Cost of Quality?
    Failure costs
  69. The focus of this is on evaluating the function of a program or application against its specifications:
    Functional or black box testing
  70. Name four reasons why testing should stop:
    • 1. High defect discovery rate
    • 2. Changing requirements during the test phase
    • 3. Product doesn't pass the smoke (or proof) test
    • 4. Changing software during test phase (other than fixes) - no version control
  71. Some organizations have stated that testers make more defects in performing tests than developers make in building software. The most effective way to reduce testers defects is to:





    E. Develop QC checklists for testers to use.
  72. Tests that validate system requirements are often called:
    Functional tests
  73. Name two ways to demonstrate that the test process has been performed correctly:
    • 1. Perform quality control by comparing # of defects found during the testing process to previous test process.
    • 2. Use entrance and exit criteria.
  74. You feel that the V-MODEL should be implemented in your testing approach. What justification would you provide to your manager to sell this life cycle approach?
    • 1. Testing occurs in every phase of the life cycle.
    • 2. Adds structure & consistency to project.
    • 3. Evaluates the importance and risk associated with each work product.
    • 4. V-MODEL graphically illustrates structure of project life cycle.
    • 5. Reduces the overall effort required for delivering new business functionality.
  75. If your test group did not have enough time to complete all of the components in your test plan, what criteria would you use to determine which tests to eliminate and which tests to execute?
    Assess a risk and priority for each requirement. Remove from test plan those tests that do not pertain to high priority, high risk requirements.

    Risk = likelihood * loss
  76. Experience has shown that over half of all defects originate in:
    Requirements
  77. To test effectively, a tester should:




    D. All of the above
  78. What is normally NOT included on a problem identification worksheet that is prepared by the tester?





    A. Who caused the problem
  79. Which testing is associated with white box testing?





    D. All of the above
  80. Static testing is performed by which of these test processes?





    C. Code inspection
  81. In software testing there are at least four categories of testing. List the sequence in which those four categories or testing should occur from 1 - 4 and responsible party.
    • 1. Unit testing - devleoper
    • 2. Integration testing - developer
    • 3. System testing - independant test team
    • 4. Acceptance testing - end users
  82. The test plan should provide background on the software being tested, test objectives, risk and specific tests to be performed.

    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  83. How do you when when testing is complete?
    When the test plan has been completed.
  84. This piece of the test plan might include what will be and what will not be covered in testing:
    Test scope
  85. Test planning:




    D. Improves communication
  86. Who is normally responsible for conducting acceptance testing?
    The end users.
  87. When a software system is placed into production and there are defects in the system, who should be blamed?




    B. A and C
  88. Testing should begin during this phase where most of the critical system decisions are made:
    Requirements
  89. This phase shoudl be user dominated and involve specifying the business needs, constraints, risks and concerns.
    Requirements
  90. The objective of this phase of testing should verify that all requirements defined have been incorporated into the system.
    Design
  91. When people are presented with new ideas, their most common reaction is:
    Object to the new idea
  92. The developer who created the component usually conducts this test:
    unit test
  93. Unit and integration testing primarily focus on:
    Validation
  94. The relationship between testing and verification and validation (V&V) can best be described by which statement?




    B. Testing tasks are a subset if V&V tasks
  95. The concept of Six Sigma measures defects per million parts. The number of defects for FOUR Sigma is approx:




    C. 6200
  96. In defining the Cost of Quality, appraisal costs are BEST described as:




    A. Costs incurred to review completed products against requirements.
  97. Structural testing and functional testing typically require the same sets of experience, skills and knowledge.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  98. Which activity verifies whether a specific attribute(s) is, or is not, in a specific product or service?





    B. Quality Control
  99. Three parts of the PDCA cycle are ACT, PLAN and DO. The fourth part is:
    CHECK
  100. Regression testing can be performed in which test stage(s)?





    E. All of the above
  101. In a cost of quality analysis, the cost to run and maintain a help desk is called:




    B. Failure cost
  102. Name the 4 parts that make up the PDCA cycle
    • PLAN
    • DO
    • CHECK
    • ACT (or ADJUST)
  103. What type of testing is most closely associated with making system changes?




    A. Regression testing
  104. Which of the following is a well designed test objective?





    E. To ensure the account balance calcs can be completed in 10 seconds.
  105. Which of the following types of testing is considered dynamic testing?





    D. Unit testing
  106. Of all the tequniques for finding defects, which of these is more difficult to perform but is cost effective?




    A. Unit testing
  107. Unit and Integration testing primarily focus on:
    Validation
  108. A major difference between structural teasting and functional testing is that:
    Functional testing focuses on results of testing, while structural testing focuses on coding structure and content.
  109. Define Integration Testing:
    The phase of testing in which individual software modules are combined and tested as a group.

    Follows unit testing and preceeds system testing.

    Executed by development.
  110. What is the purpose of the PDCA cycle?
    Explains both how to build and improve software testing processes.
  111. The objective of this phase of testing should validate that all requirements defined have been incorporated into the system.
    Integration
Author
Anonymous
ID
31211
Card Set
QA Software Testing
Description
QA study guide covering the basics of QA software testing methodology
Updated