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RMA FINALS.txt

  1. A list of all employees and their earnings deductions and other info is called?
    Payroll register
  2. A payers own check is guaranteed by the bank is called a?
    Certified check
  3. Recording financial transaction in a book-keeping or accounting system is called?
    posting
  4. Paper towels are considered?
    expendable items
  5. Amounts charged with suppliers or creditors that remain unpaid are referred to as?
    accounts payable
  6. A colection ratio is?
    the total collections divided by net charges
  7. The portion of salary held back from payroll checks for the purpose of paying government taxes is known as?
    Witholding
  8. Which of the following may be used by a payer as a third-party check?
    payroll check
  9. A billing statement should include?
    all of the above
  10. Which of the following due dates for employers quarterly federal tax returns is NOT correct?
    june 30
  11. Aging accounts receivable
    is a tool to show the status of each account
  12. A piece of paper describing a purchase and the amount due is known as?
    invoice
  13. Evaluation of collection is based on?
    the collection ratio and the accounts receivable ration
  14. Which of the following statements regarding state unemployment tax is correct?
    a few states require both employess and empoyers to make payment
  15. The accounts receivable ratio shows?
    how fast the outstanding accounts are being paid
  16. What is the trial balance?
    a way of ceckin the accuracy of accounts
  17. Cash amounts that are paid out are called?
    disbursements
  18. A vendors invoice should be kept on file for at least how long?
    10 years
  19. Which of the following does debit mean?
    charge
  20. The reviewing of financial data to verify accuracy and completeness is called?
    auditing
  21. When new supplies are received, you should?
    place them in the back of the supply area
  22. A bank draft is a check drawn by a bank
    on its funds in another bank
  23. The credit policies of a medical facility?
    should included a specifiactionof when the practice requires payment and should be in writing.
  24. Petty cash may be used?
    for paying minor incidental expenses such as pubic transportation fares
  25. Which type of check is frequently used for payroll because it itemizes the purposes for the check and deductions?
    voucher check
  26. An amount that constitutes an addition to revenue is called?
    credit
  27. A disadvantage of single-entry bookkeepinhg is tha it?
    makes errors hard to spot
  28. Which of the following statements is true about a typical purchasing procedure in a medical office?
    all of the above
  29. Which of the following is an appropriate collection technique?
    sending a pyment reminder in the form of a statement or letter when the accoun is 30 days past due
  30. The calculation that results from adding deposits in transit and subtracting outstanding checks from the bank balance at the end of the month is the?
    adjusted bank balance
  31. Which of the following is one of the six Cs of charting?
    clients words
  32. A small surgical clamp for grasping blood vessels is called
    hemostatic forceps
  33. Which suture size listed below is the thickest?
    0-0
  34. The position in which the patient is lying flat on the back is known as
    supine
  35. needle holders are also called
    suture forceps
  36. During the preexamination interview, you notice some cuts on an adult patient's arm that you suspect might be signs of abuse or even of attempted suicide. You try to ask the patient about it, but the patient doesn't want to talk to you. What should you do?
    tell the examining physician, and prepare a list of community resources that can provide advice and suppor to the patient wven if the pt is not ready to talk to you
  37. Which of the following positions is used for vaginal and perineal are examination?
    lithotom
  38. Which of the following positions requires the examination table to be raised in the middle with both ends pointing down?
    proctological
  39. Surgical procedures that require less than 1 day to perform, with no overnight stay for the patient, are called
    outpatient surgery
  40. Color blindness is more common in
    males
  41. Minor cauterization procedures are preformed in the medical office by all of the following means except
    hemostats
  42. The best and most accepted method fo sterilization is
    moist heat sterilization
  43. A tomometer is used to detect
    glaucoma
  44. The time needed for dry heat sterilization is
    90 minutes to 3 hours
  45. The shelf life of a sterile package is
    4 weeks
  46. All of the following are responsiblities of the medical assistant in the physical preperation of the patient except
    obtaining and prescribing medication that are not expired
  47. Autoclave indicator tape changes color (after autoclaving) to
    black
  48. A method of screening auditory acuity by placing the stem of a vibrating tuning fork against the center of the patients fore head (to evaluate whether hearing is the same in both ears)
    weber's test
  49. The range of fees charged by most physicians in a community is called the
    customary fee
  50. If a child is covered by both of her parents insurance and the total medical charges come to 365, 280 of which is covered by the primary insurance how are the rest of the charges handled?
    a claim is submitted to secondary insurance for 85
  51. Which of the following is an example of fraud?
    altering a patients chart to increase the amount reimbursed
  52. A participating provider in a managed healthcare program must write off
    disallowed charges
  53. Which of the following medicare programs covers hospital charges?
    part A
  54. If medicare sends a check for payment to the medical office, the physician is considered which one of the following parties?
    participating
  55. If a person is covered under both medicare and medicaid to which program should the claim be sent first?
    medicare
  56. The amount due from the patient for a covered services froma a participating provider is the difference between?
    the allowed charge and the patients deductible and/or coinsurance
  57. which of the following types of medical insureance is designed to offset medical expenses resulting from prolonged injury or illness
    major medical
  58. which of the following is a third party health plan that is funded by the federal government?
    tricare
  59. which of the following is true about blue cross and blue shield?
    it offers prepaid health services and it follows a fee for service reimbursment plan
  60. Capitation is
    fixed payment made for each enrolled patient rather than reimbursment based on the type and number of services provided
  61. Providers are required by law to file which of the following for all eligible medicare patients?
    CMS-1500
  62. If a nonparticipating providers charge for a service is 65 and the allowed charge is 50 the amount due from the patient?
    15
  63. The most common insurance claim form is the?
    CMS=1500
  64. If a policy holder of an 80:20 plan had foot surgery that cost 3,600, how much of this bill is the subscriber responsible to pay?
    720
  65. An authorization to the insurance company to make payments directly to the physician is called
    assignment of benifits
  66. The primary difference between an HMO and a PPO is that
    An HMO locks patients into receiving services from providers with whom it has contracts whereas a PPO allows patients to choose in return for higher deductibles and copayments
  67. TRICARE is a health care benefit program for all of the following EXCEPT?
    families of veterans with service related disabilities
  68. Fee for service reimbursement is
    retroactive payment made after services are provided
  69. A patients medical fees come to a total of 600 from a participating provider and the EOB lists the following info
    $12
  70. Because coding info is revised annually medical assistants responsible for coding should
    attend at least one CPT and one ICD-9 class each year
  71. How many digits are assigned to the primary code in the CPT coding system?
    5
  72. Which of the following sections of the CPT book refers to evaluation and management?
    99201-99499
  73. According to the CPT, when a health care claim for the removal of a melanoma is coded, the code should be listed under which of the following body systems?
    integumentary
  74. The ICD-9-CM codes for classifying the causes of injuries, poisonings, or adverse drug reactions are?
    E codes
  75. The medicare level ll codes are included in which of the following?
    HCPCS
  76. Which of the following is a diagnostic coding system that is used to code morbidity?
    ICD-9-CM
  77. ICD-9-CM codes are revised, expanded, and refined annually to ensure?
    specificity of disease
  78. Which of the following is indicated by a triangle placed before a CPT code?
    a code description has been change or modified
  79. Which of the following is a coding system used by medicare providers to report supplies and injections?
    HCPCS
  80. When using ICD-9-CM codes which of the following will occur when the fourth and fifth digits are omitted?
    claim denials
  81. Which of the following ICD-9-CM codes indicates the cause of an accident?
    E811.0
  82. Changing a code to one you know the insurance company will pay for is called?
    coding for coverage
  83. Which of the following is the most important factor in coding?
    accuracy of codes
  84. Which of the following is a coding sysem used to document the procedure for suturing a laceration?
    current procedural terminology CPT
  85. A two digit modifier attached to the five digit CPT code indicates?
    a service or procedure has been altered
  86. Potentially infectious body fluids include all of the following EXCEPT?
    sqeat
  87. Which color code for hazard warning labels is NOT correct?
    yellow for radioactiviy hazards
  88. How long is Hep B virus capable of surviving in a dried state on environmental surfaces?
    1 weeks
  89. Clean technique is another term for?
    medical asepsis
  90. Instruments that penetrate a patients skin should be?
    sterilized
  91. Instruments that come in contact only with a patients mucous membranes should be?
    disinfected
  92. Instruments that touch only healthy intact skin should be?
    sanitized
  93. The vaccine against Hep B provides immunity for at least?
    7 years
  94. A syndrome resulting from HIV infection that generally involbes chronic systemic symptoms but lacks an opportunistic infection or Kaposis sarcoma is know as?
    aids- related complex
  95. Which of the following is the only readily available method to detect evidence of HIV infection?
    serological test
  96. Which of the following organ systems is the most commonly invlved in AIDS?
    lungs
  97. Kaposis sarcoma is a malignancy of the?
    skin and lymph nodes
  98. Anything that poses a risk to the human body or a living organism is called?
    biohazard
  99. Which of the following is a possible means of transmission of HIV?
    blood
  100. OSHA standards require which of the following?
    written schedule for cleaning
  101. Treating all human blood as if it were infectious is known as?
    universal precautions
  102. Hand washing is necessary at which of the following times?
    all of the above
  103. After you have rinsed your hands by using the aseptic hand washing method, what step should you take next?
    dry your hands with cleanpaper towels and turn off faucets using a clean paper towel
  104. Which of the following is NOT an example of personal protective equipment?
    uniform
  105. To dispose of a contaminated needle,
    drop it into the biohazardous waste container for sharps
  106. Surgical scrub involves washing
    hands and forarms
  107. The autoclave
    forces the temps of steam aboce the boiling point of water in order to sterilize equipment
  108. Standard Precautions are?
    used mainly in hospitals
  109. Medical asepsis is defined as which of the following?
    destruction of organisms before they enter the body
  110. Which of the following liquids is used in autoclave to sterilize instruments and supplies?
    distilled water
  111. The normal pulse rate ( in beats per min) for adults is
    60-100
  112. Which of the following thermometers is considered the most accurate indicator of body temperature?
    rectal
  113. The Artery most common used for taking a patients's pulse is
    radial
  114. You've taken a patient's temperature and recorded it as 96.9 degree F. Later, the physician asks you to convert this measurement to Celsius. What is the patient's temperature in Celsius?
    36.1
  115. Which of the following is not considered a vital sign?
    weight
  116. A patient has an oral temperature of 100.5 F. The medical term for this condition is
    pyrexia
  117. Which of the following respiratory terms means "difficulty breathing"?
    dyspnea
  118. When temperature is taken rectally, the thermometer should be left in the rectum for how long?
    5 minutes
  119. The adult normal range of respiration cycles per minute is
    14-20
  120. The absence of respiratation for periods lasting more than 15 seconds is called
    apnea
  121. Blood pressure readings should routinely be started at age
    5 years
  122. Which of the following refers to the process of determining the circumference of an infant's head?
    mensuration
  123. Which of the following areas of the body is the site at which to detect the popliteal pulse?
    knee
  124. Which of the following is an instrument used to amplify sounds?
    stethoscope
  125. Which of the following is included in a pt vital signs?
    respiration rate
  126. Which of the following are measured when obtaining a pt vital signs?
    blood pressure, respirations, pulse, temperature
  127. Which of the following body temperature is most likel fatal?
    103.8
  128. An infant's pulse is most accuratel measured at which of the following sites?
    over the apex of the heart
  129. In a normal adult, which of the following is the ratio of respiration to pulse rate?
    1:4
  130. Which of the following arteries is most commonly used to monitor lower limb circulation?
    dorsalis pedis
  131. Which of the following methods of obtaining body temperature is not appropriate for a pt with dyspnea?
    oral
  132. Which of the following pulses is measured when a medical assistant palpates the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line?
    apical
  133. The medical term meaning transmission of ECG signals via radio waves is?
    telemetry
  134. On an ECG tracing, an indication of the absence of electrical charge or activity represents?
    baseline
  135. A beat arising from a focus outside the heart is known as?
    ectopic beat
  136. Which of the following is the epicardium?
    outermost layer of the heart
  137. The sudden rush of blood pushed into the ventricles as a result of atrial contraction is known as?
    atrial kick
  138. The U wave represents?
    repolarization
  139. Which of the following is not necessary in administering and ECG?
    sterilizing the leads
  140. Which type of lead is lead III?
    bipolar limb lead
  141. Which of the following is represented by the Q-T interval?
    one ventricular contraction and recovery (repolarization)
  142. Leads aVR, aVL and a aVF are?
    limb leads, augmented leads
  143. Successful depolariation of the atria or ventricles by an artificial pacemaker is called?
    capture
  144. All of the following are causes of artifacts except?
    clean sensors
  145. Augmented leads are also called?
    unipolar leads
  146. The QRS complex represents?
    contraction of the ventricles
  147. The coronary sinus empties into the?
    right atrium
  148. The medical term meaning a falling or drooping of the heart is?
    cardioptosis
  149. Which of the following is the measurement of the atrial rate on the ECG tracing?
    the P waves
  150. Lead II is an?
    bipolar limb lead
  151. The hearts conduction system is measured by which of the following?
    exercise electrocardiogrpahy
  152. Which of the patients limbs serves as an electrical ground?
    right leg
  153. Depolarization of fast cells is dependent on which of the following electrolytes?
    sodium
  154. Which of the following devices may deliver a small amount of electrical energy to cause myocardial depolarization?
    electornis pacemaker
  155. A measurment of the actual absorbed dose of radiation is called?
    rad
  156. An image produced on film by a sweeping beam of radiation is known as?
    scan
  157. The study of the gallbladder by X-ray with an oral contrast medium is called?
    cholecystogrphy
  158. Which of the following statements regarding myelography is NOT correct?
    it is fluoroscopy of the central nervous system
  159. Radiation therapy for deeper tumors done on an outpatient basis is known as?
    teletherapy
  160. The best temperature for film storage is between?
    60-and 70 f
  161. Film artifacts are?
    areas that interfere with the diagnostic value of the radiograph
  162. The frequency of elecromagnetic radiation is measured in?
    hertz
  163. Excretory urography is also known as?
    intravenous pyelography
  164. A type of diagnostic radiology that uses high-frequency sound waves is?
    ultrasound
  165. Positions that are neither parallel nor perpendicular to the body are called?
    oblique
  166. The front to back position in radiology is known as?
    anteroposterior
  167. The process in which an atom may gain or lose electrons is called?
    ionization
  168. Which of the following statememts is NOT correct in regard to radiosensitivity?
    specialied cells are the most radiosnsitive
  169. Before a mammogram, a woman should?
    avoid wearing deodorant
  170. In preparing patients for such tests as barium enemas and CT scans, the medical assistant should?
    ask them whether they are allergic to contrast media, iodine, or shell fish
  171. Safety precautions are necessary because?
    radiation exposure is cumulative
  172. Xeroradiography is used primarily for?
    mammography
  173. The branch of medicine that is also a key component of rehabilitation is
    physiatry
  174. The degree to which a joint is able to move is known as
    range of motion
  175. Lateral deviation in the normal vertical curve of the spine is called
    scoliosis
  176. Which of the following paralysis of the lower portion of the bidy?
    paraplegia
  177. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment of a contustion?
    application of ice packs
  178. In thermotherapy, which of the following temperatures can cause burning?
    116 f
  179. How long does diathermy last?
    15-30 minutes
  180. Cryotheraphy is used for all of the following purposes except
    to reduce clotting
  181. Muscular weakness of one side of the body is called
    hemiparesis
  182. Patient's instructed on how to use crutches should be told to
    move crutches no more than 6 iches at a time
  183. Physical therapists are allied health professionals who have completed at least
    a 4-year baccalaureate training program
  184. Movement allowed by joints to decrease the angle between two adjoing bones is called
    flexation
  185. Correction of a fracture, dislocation, or hemia is called
    reduction
  186. Electromyography is the process of electrically recording muscle
    action potentials
  187. Diathermy is useful in treating all of the following conditions execpt
    myocarditis
  188. How far from the area being treated should a heat lamp be placed?
    2 to 4 feet
  189. Which of the following heat therapies uses radio waves to provide heat deep in the body?
    shortwave diathermy
  190. A way of assessing the patient's walking behavior is called
    gait testing
  191. When using a chemical hot pack in heat therapy, you should
    knead the pad and then cover it with cloth before placing it on the patien
  192. How high should the top of the cane be?
    level with the top of the femur
  193. What percentage of the body is involved in a burn that covers one arm and the head of an adult?
    18%
  194. The good samaritan low explicitly allows medical assistants:
    To administer first aid whithin the scope of their competence
  195. In emergency childbirth, at what point should the umbilical cord be tied and cut?
    when the infant starts breathing
  196. To treat frostbite, a medical assistant can:
    place warm clothing and blankets around the affected area
  197. Which of the following are symptoms of heatstroke?
    the pulse is rapid, the skin is hot and dry, and the pt feels weak
  198. When treating a second degree burn, a medical assistant should
    immerse the burned area in cold water
  199. When Bill Williams scratched his skin, he most likely got a(n)
    abraision
  200. Irreversible brain damage can be causes by tissue anokia lasting
    more than 6 minutes
  201. Which of the following is a correct way to treat a snakebite
    immobilize the bitten area and wash it with soap and water
  202. If a patient is bleeding from the lower arm and direct pressure and elevation do not stop the bleeding, where should pressure be applied?
    bracheal artery
  203. One possible cause of stroke is
    occlusion in the brain by a thrombus
  204. White, waxy or grayish yellow skin that also feels crusty and softness in thissue beneath the skin could indicate
    frostbite
  205. Which of the following is apossible treatment of syncope?
    all of the above
  206. The Heimlich maneuver is used for which of the following?
    choking
  207. Anaphylactic shock occurs following
    allergic reaction
  208. Which of the following should not be done by a patient with a concussion?
    take asprin
  209. The most severe and major complications for burn victims is
    infection
  210. Which of the following should not be done when a patient complains of abdominal pain
    apply heat to the patients abdomen
  211. Closed wounds are called
    bruises or conntusions
  212. When administering CPR, how many compressions should you do?
    60 in 1 minute
  213. According to Good samaritan laws
    emergency care is permitted when it is within the scope of competence of the person
  214. Chest pain might indicate
    cocaine use and myocardial infarction
  215. When you suspect neck injury, what action should you take to open the patient's airway before administering rescue breathing?
    Put your fingers behind the jawbone just below the ear and push the jaw forward
  216. Treat hypoglycemis by
    administering glucose
  217. What is the best location to check the pulse of a 48 year old male who is unconscious and not breathing?
    at the carotid artery of the neck
  218. An adult is un sudden cardiac arrest. Which of the following gives the victim the best chance of survival?
    immediate CPR and defibrillation within no more than 3 to 5 minutes
  219. Which of the following describes the best way to deliver rescue breaths with a pocket mask, but without additional oxygen?
    provide approximately the same volume as you with mouth to mouth ventilation ( with a volume suffeicent to make the chest rise), and deliver the breaths over 2 seconds
  220. You are babysitting your infant nephew. You are alone and find your nephew unresponsive. Which of the following is the best action?
    Begin the ABC's of CPR and the then phone 911 after 1 minute
  221. A 26 year old women has swallowed an overdose of prescribed sleeping pils. She is now unresponsive. When you open her airway you fine that she is gasping for breath and is not breathing normally at all. Using a pocket mask you provide 2 breaths and check for signs of circulation, including her pulse which is rapid but weak. What should you do next?
    Provide rescue breathing at a rate of one breath every 5 seconds
  222. Which of the following statements best describe the problems that are most commonly present in children or infants whose condition deteriorates to cardiac arrest?
    most cardiac arrests in children are preceded by servere airway and breathing problems, or shock
  223. You are providing rescue breathing to an unresponsive, nonbreathing child who shows signs of circulation. How often should you provide rescue breaths for this child?
    one every 3 seconds (20 breaths per minute)
  224. Your are alone, provide CPR for a 3 year old child. Which of the followinf describes the correct technique you should follow in performing chest compressions on this child.
    use the heel of the hand
  225. Which of the following is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations for child or infant CPR?
    5 to 1
  226. Which of the following is an appropriate site for capillary blood collection?
    earlobe and heel
  227. Which cells play a vital role in internal respiration?
    Erythrocytes
  228. What is the longest time a tourniquet should remain on a patients arm?
    1 minute
  229. Dysuria is?
    B Painful or difficult urination
  230. Which of the following devices might be used to collect blood from fragile veins?
    A butterfly needle
  231. A blue stopper indicates that a collection tube?
    Contains sodium citrate
  232. To test for substances that are sporadically released into urine, a physician might order which type of urine specimen?
  233. A 24-hour
  234. To follow Universal Precautions in phlebotomy you should?
    wash your hands, wear exam gloves
  235. A medical assistant or a phlebotomist should NOT attempt to obtain blood from any patient more than?
    Two times
  236. If a urinalysis cannot be performed within 30 mins after collection, the urine specimen must be stored?
    In a refrigerator
  237. Specific gravity may be measured by all of he following methods EXCEPT?
    Microscope
  238. The quality control log?
    Shows when the testing equipment was last calibrated
  239. Which of the following stains is specific to blood?
    Wright's
  240. The color code for an evacuation tube that does NOT contain an additive is?
    Red
  241. A creatine kinase test is done to help diagnose which of the following conditions?
    Muscular dystrophies and heart disease
  242. Which of the following describes a centrifuge?
    Machine used to separate particles
  243. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate test might be used to?
    Determine sickle cell anemia or inflammation and infection
  244. How should the patients arm be positioned when drawing blood in phlebotomy?
    Slightly downward
  245. Which of the following is used in direct examination of a specimen?
    Wet mount
  246. The venipuncture site most commonly used on adults is the?
    Median Cubital Vein
  247. After preparing a KOH mount,
    Let the specimen sit at room temperature
  248. Before inoculating a culture plate, you should?
    Label it on the bottom, agar side
  249. The first step in preparing a culture plate is to?
    Label it
  250. Albumin found in urine might indicate?
    All of the above
  251. Urine that is too acidic could indicate
    Gout
  252. If a drop of blood does not form after capillary puncture, which of the following should be done?
    Apply steady pressure
  253. Which of the following causes would give plasma or serum a milky appearance?
    Hyperlipidemia
  254. Which of the following is used in preparing a blood smear slide?
    Spreader slide
  255. Sensitivity testing is used to determine
    A pathogens suseptibility to antibiotics
  256. A diaper rash on a pediatric patient may indicate which of the following?
    Renal dysfunction
  257. The amylase test is used for disorders related to the?
    C Pancreas
  258. A physician may order a stool culture if he or she suspects?
    All of the above
  259. Fasting specimens are preferred for which of the following tests?
    Triglycerides
  260. The anticoagulant EDTA is most appropriate for a blood specimen that has been collected for?
    Complete blood cell counts
  261. Which of the following is a common route for the administration of parental medications?
    Injection
  262. A prefilled syringe is also know as a(n)
    Cartridge
  263. Which of the following muscles is commonly used for intramuscular injections in the infant?
    Vastus lateralis
  264. Which of the following is the most appropriate needle gauge for a subcutaneous injection?
    25
  265. Which of the following injection methods should be chosen for medications that are irritating or may cause discoloration of the skin?
    Z-track
  266. Medication applied in patch form is called
    Transdermal
  267. The needle gauges usually used for intravenous injection are
    20-21
  268. Which of the following is the most appropriate angle of injection to ensure accurate results of a mantoux test?
    15 degrees
  269. A drug combined with an oil based, resulting in a semisolid preparation, is a(n)
    Ointment
  270. The doctor has ordered has ordered a dose of medicine to be 300mg, but the medicine is available only in 50 mg tablets. What is the correct dose?
    6 tablets
  271. The doctor has ordered 120 mg of a drug that comes only in 30mg tablets. How many tablets constitute a dose?
    4
  272. The metric system employs a uniform scale based on powers of
    10
  273. A physican orders ranitidine ( zantac) 300mg if the drug is avalible in 150-mg tablets should be given to the patient?
    2.0
  274. Which of the following drug administration routes is the most approprite for patient who has nausea and vommiting?
    Rectal
  275. A physican prescribes 10 ml of a liquid suspension for a pediatric pt. How many teaspoons should the patient's parents administer?
    2
  276. The most commonly used sized of insulin syringe is the
    100 unit
  277. The angle of insertion for intradermal injections is
    15 degrees
  278. Which of the following needle gauges is used for the Mantoux test?
    26-27
  279. The physican asks you to convert 30 grains of medication into the metric system. Which of the following represents an accurate conversions?
    2 grams
  280. The last vaccination for rabies must be scheduled no later than how long after the first vaccination?
    4 weeks
Author
amythompson
ID
31161
Card Set
RMA FINALS.txt
Description
All RMA
Updated

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