Psyc 2

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  1. Damage to a region of the temporal lobe essential to recognizing face results in a condition known as
    A) Young-Helmholtz syndrome.
    B) synaesthesia.
    C) the McGurk effect.
    D) prosopagnosia.
    D) prosopagnosia.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Sensation is the
    A) organization and interpretation of environmental events.
    B) conscious awareness of a familiar stimulus.
    C) detection and encoding of stimulus energies by the nervous system.
    D) transformation of sound and light into meaningful words and images.
    C) detection and encoding of stimulus energies by the nervous system.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The absolute threshold is the minimum amount of stimulation that a person needs to detect a stimulus
    A) on a subliminal level.
    B) at the beginning of a sensory experience.
    C) reliably on any occasion.
    D) 50 percent of the time.
    D) 50 percent of the time.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. An exhausted forest ranger may notice the faintest scent of a forest fire, whereas much stronger but less important odors fail to catch her attention. This fact would be of greatest relevance to
    A) the Young-Helmholtz theory.
    B) frequency theory.
    C) opponent-process theory.
    D) signal detection theory.
    D) signal detection theory.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The process by which we organize and interpret sensory information in order to recognize meaningful objects and events is called
    A) perception.
    B) sensation.
    C) accommodation.
    D) sensory adaptation.
    A) perception.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Soothing musical recordings accompanied by unheard verbal messages designed to increase a desire to lose weight best illustrate
    A) difference thresholds.
    B) sensory interaction.
    C) subliminal stimulation.
    D) synaesthesia.
    C) subliminal stimulation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. After the invisible word “bread” was quickly flashed and then replaced by a masking stimulus, observers detected the related word “butter” much faster than the unrelated word “bubble.” This best illustrates the impact of
    A) Weber's law.
    B) priming.
    C) sensory adaptation.
    D) prosopagnosia.
    A) Weber's law.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus is known as
    A) accommodation.
    B) sensory adaptation.
    C) blindsight.
    D) transduction.
    B) sensory adaptation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. If we could stop our eyes from quivering as we stared at a stationary object, the object would probably
    A) appear to change colors.
    B) appear more brilliantly colored.
    C) stimulate feature detector cells located in the retina.
    D) vanish from sight.
    D) vanish from sight.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. The adjustable opening in the center of the eye is the
    A) fovea.
    B) pupil.
    C) iris.
    D) cornea.
    B) pupil.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the rods and cones, is the
    A) pupil.
    B) iris.
    C) retina.
    D) cornea.
    C) retina.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The area of the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye is called the
    A) lens.
    B) blind spot.
    C) cornea.
    D) visual cortex.
    B) blind spot.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The nerve cells that respond to specific aspects of a visual stimulus, such as its shape or its movement, are
    A) bipolar cells.
    B) rods and cones.
    C) ganglion cells.
    D) feature detectors.
    D) feature detectors.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Certain stroke victims report seeing nothing when shown a series of sticks, yet they are able to correctly report whether the sticks are vertical or horizontal. This best illustrates
    A) the McGurk effect.
    B) sensory interaction.
    C) serial processing.
    D) blindsight.
    D) blindsight.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. When most people stare at a red square and then shift their eyes to a white surface, the afterimage of the square is
    A) yellow.
    B) red.
    C) blue.
    D) green.
    D) green.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The coiled, bony, fluid-filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses is called the
    A) semicircular canal.
    B) vestibular sac.
    C) auditory canal.
    D) cochlea.
    D) cochlea.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Small differences in the intensity of a sound received by each ear enable us to identify the ________ of the sound.
    A) pitch
    B) location
    C) amplitude
    D) absolute threshold
    B) location
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Kinesthesis refers to the
    A) system for sensing the position and movement of bones, ears, tendons, and joints.
    B) diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
    C) quivering eye movements that enable the retina to detect continuous stimulation.
    D) process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural signals.
    A) system for sensing the position and movement of bones, ears, tendons, and joints.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. People who carry a gene that boosts the availability of ________ are less bothered by pain.
    A) growth hormones
    B) ganglion fibers
    C) endorphins
    D) nociceptors
    C) endorphins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Phantom limb sensations best illustrate that pain can be experienced in the absence of
    A) parallel processing.
    B) top-down processing.
    C) conscious awareness.
    D) sensory input.
    D) sensory input.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. People with persistent arm pain experienced a reduction in pain after receiving acupuncture with trick needles that retracted without puncturing the skin. The fake acupuncture treatment could best be described as a
    A) rubber-hand illusion.
    B) placebo.
    C) phantom limb sensation.
    D) nociceptor.
    B) placebo.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. With her eyes closed and her nose plugged, Chandra was unable to taste the difference between an onion and a pear. Her experience best illustrates the importance of
    A) synaesthesia.
    B) sensory interaction.
    C) retinal disparity.
    D) the McGurk effect.
    B) sensory interaction.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Which psychologists focused on principles of perceptual organization?
    A) psychoanalysts
    B) Gestalt psychologists
    C) behaviorists
    D) parapsychologists
    B) Gestalt psychologists
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The Gestalt principles of proximity and similarity refer to ways in which we
    A) organize stimuli into coherent groups.
    B) adapt to perceptual changes.
    C) see objects in three dimensions.
    D) activate meaningful perceptual sets.
    A) organize stimuli into coherent groups.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The perceptual tendency to group together stimuli that are near each other is called
    A) perceptual set.
    B) interposition.
    C) closure.
    D) proximity.
    D) proximity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The principle of continuity refers to the perceptual tendency to
    A) group stimuli into smooth, uninterrupted patterns.
    B) group elements that are similar to each other.
    C) fill in gaps so as to perceive a complete, whole object.
    D) group things that are near each other.
    A) group stimuli into smooth, uninterrupted patterns.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. The organization of two-dimensional retinal images into three-dimensional perceptions is called
    A) retinal disparity.
    B) depth perception.
    C) perceptual constancy.
    D) sensory interaction.
    B) depth perception.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Infants are especially likely to avoid crawling over the edge of a visual cliff if they
    A) have little previous experience with heights.
    B) lack vision in one eye.
    C) have a lot of previous crawling experience.
    D) lack a capacity for psychokinesis.
    C) have a lot of previous crawling experience.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Renny knew the red tulip was closer to her than the yellow tulip because the red one cast a larger retinal image than the yellow one. This illustrates the importance of the distance cue known as
    A) relative size.
    B) relative height.
    C) interposition.
    D) proximity.
    A) relative size.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. The convergence of parallel lines provides the distance cue known as
    A) interposition.
    B) closure.
    C) linear perspective.
    D) continuity.
    C) linear perspective.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. We compute motion based on the assumption that shrinking objects are
    A) fixation points.
    B) binocular cues.
    C) schemas.
    D) retreating.
    D) retreating.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The illusion of movement in animated neon signs is known as
    A) interposition.
    B) the McGurk effect.
    C) relative motion.
    D) the phi phenomenon.
    D) the phi phenomenon.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The visually perceived distance between ourselves and an object provides an important cue for our perception of the object's
    A) size.
    B) brightness.
    C) color.
    D) shape.
    A) size.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The Moon just above the horizon typically appears to be unusually
    A) large because we perceive it as unusually far away from ourselves.
    B) large because we perceive it as unusually close to ourselves.
    C) bright because we perceive it as unusually far away from ourselves.
    D) bright because we perceive it as unusually close to ourselves.
    A) large because we perceive it as unusually far away from ourselves.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The phenomenon of color constancy best demonstrates that
    A) the brain processes information about color and shape simultaneously.
    B) quivering eye movements help to maintain the perception of color.
    C) color vision depends on pairs of opposing retinal processes.
    D) an object's perceived color is influenced by its surrounding objects.
    D) an object's perceived color is influenced by its surrounding objects.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. The most crucial ingredient in all learning is
    A) intrinsic motivation.
    B) modeling.
    C) experience.
    D) shaping.
    C) experience.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Learning that certain events occur together is called
    A) shaping.
    B) observational learning.
    C) latent learning.
    D) associative learning.
    D) associative learning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Seals in an aquarium will repeat behaviors, such as slapping and barking, that prompt people to toss them a herring. This best illustrates
    A) respondent behavior.
    B) observational learning.
    C) spontaneous recovery.
    D) operant conditioning.
    D) operant conditioning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. In Pavlov's experiments, the taste of food triggered salivation in a dog. The food in the dog's mouth was the
    A) CR.
    B) UR.
    C) CS.
    D) US.
    D) US.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. If the sound of an electric can opener causes a child to salivate because it has previously been associated with the presentation of food, the child's salivation to the sound of the can opener is a(n)
    A) unconditioned response.
    B) unconditioned stimulus.
    C) conditioned stimulus.
    D) conditioned response.
    D) conditioned response.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. In Aldous Huxley's Brave New World, infants develop a fear of roses after roses are presented with electric shock. In this fictional example, the presentation of the roses is the
    A) conditioned stimulus.
    C) unconditioned response.
    B) unconditioned stimulus.
    D) conditioned response.
    A) conditioned stimulus.
  42. If a tone that regularly signals food triggers a salivation response, then a light that becomes associated with that tone may also begin to trigger salivation. This best illustrates
    A) the law of effect.
    B) higher-order conditioning.
    C) a variable-ratio schedule.
    D) latent learning.
    B) higher-order conditioning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. After Pavlov had conditioned a dog to salivate to a tone, he repeatedly sounded the tone without presenting the food. As a result, ________ occurred.
    A) negative reinforcement
    B) extinction
    C) generalization
    D) latent learning
    B) extinction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. After receiving a painful shot from a female nurse in a white uniform, 3-year-old Vaclav is fearful of any woman wearing a white dress. Vaclav's reaction best illustrates
    A) latent learning.
    B) generalization.
    C) spontaneous recovery.
    D) shaping.
    B) generalization.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Long after being bitten by a stray dog, Alonzo found that his fear of dogs seemed to have disappeared. To his surprise, however, when he was recently confronted by a stray dog, he experienced a sudden twinge of anxiety. This sudden anxiety best illustrates
    A) latent learning.
    B) delayed reinforcement.
    C) shaping.
    D) spontaneous recovery.
    D) spontaneous recovery.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Two-year-old Philip was recently clawed by the neighbor's cat. Philip's newly developed tendency to fear all small animals demonstrates the process of
    A) secondary reinforcement.
    B) generalization.
    C) spontaneous recovery.
    D) shaping.
    B) generalization.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Some of Pavlov's dogs learned to salivate to the sound of one particular tone and not to other tones. This illustrates the process of
    A) secondary reinforcement.
    B) discrimination.
    C) latent learning.
    D) shaping.
    B) discrimination.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Garcia and Koelling's findings on taste aversion in rats challenged the previously accepted principle that
    A) positive reinforcement is more effective than punishment in changing behavior.
    B) the US must immediately follow the CS for conditioning to occur.
    C) learning occurs only if a response is followed by reinforcement.
    D) learning is influenced by the frequency of association between the CS and US.
    B) the US must immediately follow the CS for conditioning to occur.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. After recovering from a serious motorcycle accident, Gina was afraid to ride a motorcycle but not a bicycle. Gina's pattern of fear best illustrates
    A) negative reinforcement.
    B) discrimination.
    C) conditioned reinforcement.
    D) shaping.
    B) discrimination.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. After repeatedly drinking alcohol spiked with a nauseating drug, people with alcohol dependence may fail to develop an aversion to alcohol because they blame their nausea on the drug. This illustrates the importance of ________ in classical conditioning.
    A) spontaneous recovery
    B) cognitive processes
    C) negative reinforcement
    D) biological predispositions
    C) negative reinforcement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Birds appear to be biologically predisposed to develop aversions to the ________ of tainted food.
    A) sight
    B) sound
    C) taste
    D) smell
    A) sight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Professor Kingston emphasizes that learned fears reflect the interacting influences of a person’s inborn emotional reactivity, family life history, and capacity to generalize from previous experiences. The professor’s emphasis best illustrates
    A) the law of effect.
    B) a biopsychosocial approach.
    C) prosocial behavior.
    D) behaviorism.
    B) a biopsychosocial approach.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Animals most readily learn the specific associations that promote
    A) survival.
    B) prosocial behavior.
    C) shaping.
    D) extrinsic motivation.
    A) survival.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Learning associations between one's own personal actions and resulting events is most relevant to the process of
    A) operant conditioning.
    B) classical conditioning.
    C) latent learning.
    D) observational learning.
    A) operant conditioning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Which of the following is most clearly an operant behavior?
    A) whining
    B) blushing
    C) blinking
    D) salivating
    A) whining
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The process of reinforcing successively closer approximations to a desired behavior is called
    A) intermittent reinforcement.
    B) shaping.
    C) secondary reinforcement.
    D) generalization.
    B) shaping.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. To teach an animal to perform a complex sequence of behaviors, animal trainers are most likely to use a procedure known as
    A) shaping.
    B) generalization.
    C) latent learning.
    D) delayed reinforcement.
    A) shaping.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Because Mandisa always picked up her newborn daughter when she cried, her daughter is now a real crybaby. In this case, picking up the infant served as a(n) ________ for crying.
    A) unconditioned stimulus
    B) positive reinforcer
    C) conditioned stimulus
    D) negative reinforcer
    B) positive reinforcer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Coffee shops that reward customers with one free cup of coffee after every ten coffee purchases are using a ________reinforcement schedule.
    A) fixed-ratio
    B) variable-interval
    C) variable-ratio
    D) fixed-interval
    A) fixed-ratio
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. An event that decreases the behavior that precedes it is a
    A) conditioned stimulus.
    B) negative reinforcer.
    C) secondary reinforcer.
    D) punishment.
    D) punishment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. A variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a(n)
    A) unpredictable number of responses have been made.
    B) specified time period has elapsed.
    C) specified number of responses have been made.
    D) unpredictable time period has elapsed.
    C) specified number of responses have been made.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. A child learns to stop fighting with his brother after the fight leads to suspension of the child’s TV-viewing privileges.In this case, the suspension of TV-viewing privileges is a
    A) positive punishment.
    B) positive reinforcer.
    C) negative reinforcer.
    D) negative punishment.
    A) positive punishment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Some psychologists believe that rats develop mental representations of mazes they have explored. These representations are called
    A) cognitive maps.
    B) discriminative stimuli.
    C) operant chambers.
    D) primary reinforcers.
    A) cognitive maps.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Latent learning can occur in the absence of
    A) reinforcement.
    B) any of these factors.
    C) experience.
    D) cognition.
    A) reinforcement.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. It is easier to train a dog to bark for food than to train it to stand on its hind legs for food. This best illustrates the importance of ________ in learning.
    A) primary reinforcement
    B) negative reinforcement
    C) generalization
    D) biological predispositions
    D) biological predispositions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. When one monkey sees a second monkey touch four pictures in a certain order to gain a banana, the first monkey learns to imitate that sequence. This best illustrates
    A) secondary reinforcement.
    B) spontaneous recovery.
    C) observational learning.
    D) shaping.
    C) observational learning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Researchers discovered that the regions of the frontal lobe activated when a monkey moves peanuts to its own mouth are also activated when the monkey simply observes other monkeys move peanuts to their mouths. This discovery pointed to the significance of
    A) mirror neurons.
    B) intrinsic motives.
    C) cognitive maps.
    D) extrinsic motives.
    A) mirror neurons.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Bandura's experiments indicate that ________ is important in the process of learning.
    A) generalization
    B) shaping
    C) secondary reinforcement
    D) modeling
    D) modeling
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Most researchers who have examined the effects of viewing televised aggression conclude that
    A) viewing violence takes people's minds off their own problems and thus reduces their aggressive urges.
    B) viewing violence leads children and teenagers to behave aggressively.
    C) there is no correlation between viewing aggression and behaving aggressively.
    D) although viewing violence is correlated with increased aggression, there is no evidence that viewing violence actually leads to aggression.
    B) viewing violence leads children and teenagers to behave aggressively.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Prolonged exposure to TV violence leads viewers to experience
    A) less sympathy for victims of violence and to become more upset by the sight of real-life violence.
    B) less sympathy for victims of violence and to become less upset by the sight of real-life violence.
    C) more sympathy for victims of violence and to become more upset by the sight of real-life violence.
    D) more sympathy for victims of violence and to become less upset by the sight of real-life violence.
    B) less sympathy for victims of violence and to become less upset by the sight of real-life violence.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Memory is best defined as
    A) the persistence of learning through the storage and retrieval of information.
    B) the retrieval of stored information in precisely the same form in which it was encoded.
    C) the conscious encoding of information.
    D) stored knowledge that has been semantically encoded.
    A) the persistence of learning through the storage and retrieval of information.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. The process of getting information into memory is called
    A) priming.
    B) registering
    C) encoding.
    D) chunking.
    C) encoding.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. The process of retrieval refers to
    A) the persistence of learning over time.
    B) the organization of information into manageable units.
    C) conscious repetition of information to be remembered.
    D) getting information out of memory storage.
    D) getting information out of memory storage.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. As compared with long-term memory, short-term memory is ________ permanent and ________ limited in storage capacity.
    A) less; more
    B) more; less
    C) more; more
    D) less; less
    A) less; more
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. To recognize the active information processing that occurs in short-term memory, researchers have characterized it as________ memory.
    A) working
    B) iconic
    C) implicit
    D) flashbulb
    A) working
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Encoding that occurs with no effort or a minimal level of conscious attention is known as
    A) automatic processing.
    B) priming.
    C) long-term potentiation.
    D) state-dependent memory.
    A) automatic processing.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Effortful processing can occur only with
    A) conscious attention.
    B) implicit memory.
    C) chunking.
    D) visual imagery.
    A) conscious attention.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Encoding and storing a friend's new cellphone number typically involves
    A) flashbulb memory.
    B) automatic processing.
    C) effortful processing.
    D) mood-congruent memory.
    C) effortful processing.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. The tendency for distributed study to yield better long-term retention than massed study is known as
    A) long-term potentiation.
    B) the spacing effect.
    C) state-dependent memory.
    D) the serial position effect.
    B) the spacing effect.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. The serial position effect best illustrates the importance of
    A) visual imagery.
    B) flashbulb memory.
    C) automatic processing.
    D) rehearsal.
    D) rehearsal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. On the telephone, Dominic rattles off a list of 10 grocery items for Kyoko to bring home from the store. Immediatelyafter hearing the list, Kyoko attempts to write down the items. She is most likely to forget the items
    A) at the end of the list.
    B) at the beginning and in the middle of the list.
    C) at the beginning of the list.
    D) in the middle of the list.
    D) in the middle of the list.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. The process by which information is encoded by its meaning is called
    A) long-term potentiation.
    B) rehearsal.
    C) semantic encoding.
    D) automatic processing.
    C) semantic encoding.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. The acoustic encoding of words refers to the processing of
    A) individual syllables.
    B) letter images.
    C) meanings.
    D) sounds.
    D) sounds.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Rephrasing text material in your own words is an effective way of facilitating
    A) implicit memory.
    B) mood-congruent memory.
    C) semantic encoding.
    D) proactive interference.
    C) semantic encoding.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. To remember a list of the school supplies she needs, Marcy mentally visualizes each item at a certain location in her house. Marcy's tactic best illustrates use of
    A) a mnemonic device.
    B) the serial position effect.
    C) the spacing effect.
    D) iconic memory.
    A) a mnemonic device.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. The letters Y, M, O, M, R, E are presented. Jill remembers them by rearranging them to spell the word “MEMORY.”This provides an illustration of
    A) chunking.
    B) the peg-word system.
    C) the spacing effect.
    D) automatic processing.
    A) chunking.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. By creating an outline in which specific facts and theories are located within the larger framework of major topics and subtopics, Jasmine can remember much more of what she reads in her textbooks. This best illustrates the benefits of
    A) the serial position effect.
    B) implicit memory.
    C) the spacing effect.
    D) hierarchical organization.
    D) hierarchical organization.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. For a fraction of a second after the lightning flash disappeared, Ileana retained a vivid mental image of its ragged edges.Her experience most clearly illustrates the nature of _______ memory.
    A) flashbulb
    B) iconic
    C) implicit
    D) explicit
    B) iconic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Peterson and Peterson asked people to count aloud backward after they were presented with three consonants. This study finds that ________ memories will quickly disappear without active processing and rehearsal.
    A) short-term
    B) mood-congruent
    C) flashbulb
    D) long-term
    A) short-term
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Our immediate short-term memory for new material is limited to roughly ________ bits of information.
    A) 24
    B) 12
    C) 7
    D) 3
    C) 7
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. The human capacity for storing long-term memories is
    A) greatly reduced after people reach the age of 65.
    B) typically much greater in young children than in adults.
    C) essentially unlimited.
    D) roughly equal to seven units of information.
    C) essentially unlimited.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. The increase in synaptic firing potential that contributes to memory formation is known as
    A) chunking.
    B) proactive interference.
    C) long-term potentiation.
    D) automatic processing.
    C) long-term potentiation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Exceptionally clear memories of emotionally significant events are called
    A) repressed memories.
    B) sensory memories.
    C) mood-congruent memories.
    D) flashbulb memories.
    D) flashbulb memories.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Most Americans still have accurate flashbulb memories of the 9/11 terrorist attacks in 2001. This best illustrates that memory formation is facilitated by
    A) retrieval cues.
    B) the body's release of stress hormones.
    C) source amnesia.
    D) the serial position effect.
    B) the body's release of stress hormones.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. The prolonged stress of sustained physical abuse may inhibit memory formation by shrinking the
    A) hippocampus.
    B) pituitary gland.
    C) sensory cortex.
    D) adrenal glands.
    A) hippocampus.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Conscious memory of factual information is called ________ memory.
    A) procedural
    B) implicit
    C) explicit
    D) mood-congruent
    C) explicit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Unlike implicit memories, explicit memories are processed by the
    A) hypothalamus.
    B) motor cortex.
    C) hippocampus.
    D) cerebellum.
    C) hippocampus.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. The cerebellum plays a critical role in ________ memory.
    A) iconic
    B) implicit
    C) echoic
    D) explicit
    B) implicit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Infantile amnesia is largely associated with a lack of ________ memory.
    A) explicit
    B) iconic
    C) implicit
    D) echoic
    A) explicit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Fill-in-the-blank test questions measure ________; matching concepts with their definitions measures ________.
    A) recall; recognition
    B) recall; relearning
    C) relearning; recall
    D) recognition; relearning
    A) recall; recognition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. The smell of freshly baked bread awakened in Mr. Hutz vivid memories of his early childhood. The aroma apparently acted as a powerful
    A) echoic memory.
    B) retrieval cue.
    C) implicit memory.
    D) spacing effect.
    B) retrieval cue.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. The discovery that words heard underwater are later better recalled underwater than on land best illustrates the value of
    A) the peg-word system.
    B) echoic memory.
    C) retrieval cues.
    D) the spacing effect.
    C) retrieval cues.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Lars was feeling depressed at the time he read a chapter of his history textbook. Lars is likely to recall best the contents of that chapter when he is
    A) unemotional.
    B) happy.
    C) depressed.
    D) relaxed.
    C) depressed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. In describing what he calls the seven sins of memory, Daniel Schacter suggests that encoding failure results from the sin of
    A) transience.
    B) repression.
    C) absent-mindedness.
    D) blocking.
    C) absent-mindedness.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. An inability to recall the location of the number 0 on your calculator is most likely due to
    A) proactive interference.
    B) source amnesia.
    C) memory decay.
    D) encoding failure.
    D) encoding failure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Using nonsense syllables to study memory, Ebbinghaus found that
    A) our sensory memory capacity is essentially unlimited.
    B) what is learned in one mood is most easily retrieved while in that same mood.
    C) the most rapid memory loss for new information occurs shortly after it is learned.
    D) iconic memory fades more rapidly than echoic memory.
    C) the most rapid memory loss for new information occurs shortly after it is learned.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. The disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information is called
    A) the spacing effect.
    B) the serial position effect.
    C) proactive interference.
    D) retroactive interference.
    C) proactive interference.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Retroactive interference refers to the
    A) disruptive effect of previously learned material on the recall of new information.
    B) decay of physical memory traces.
    C) disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of previously learned material.
    D) blocking of painful memories from conscious awareness.
    C) disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of previously learned material.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Learning a new ATM password may block the recall of a familiar old password. This illustrates
    A) the spacing effect.
    B) proactive interference.
    C) source amnesia.
    D) retroactive interference.
    D) retroactive interference.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. Philippe has just completed medical school. In reflecting on his years of formal education, he is able to recall the namesof all his instructors except the fifth grade teacher who flunked him. According to Freud, his forgetting illustrates
    A) retroactive interference.
    B) repression.
    C) the spacing effect.
    D) proactive interference.
    B) repression.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. When Loftus and Palmer asked observers of a filmed car accident how fast the vehicles were going when they“smashed” into each other, the observers developed memories of the accident that
    A) omitted some of the most painful aspects of the event.
    B) were influenced by whether or not Loftus and Palmer identified themselves as police officers.
    C) portrayed the event as more serious than it had actually been.
    D) were more accurate than the memories of observers who had not been immediately questioned about what they saw.
    C) portrayed the event as more serious than it had actually been.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. When asked misleading questions after observing an accident, eyewitnesses often reconstruct their initial memories of the event. This best illustrates
    A) implicit memory.
    B) repression.
    C) the misinformation effect.
    D) the spacing effect.
    C) the misinformation effect.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Researchers asked university students to imagine certain childhood events, including a false event such as breaking a window with their hand. They discovered that
    A) hypnotic suggestion is an effective technique for accurate memory retrieval.
    B) events from the distant past are less vulnerable to memory distortion than more recent events.
    C) it is surprisingly easy to lead people to construct false memories.
    D) people can easily distinguish between their own true and false memories.
    C) it is surprisingly easy to lead people to construct false memories.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. After hearing stories of things they both had and had not actually experienced with “Mr. Science,” preschool children spontaneously recalled him doing things that were only mentioned in the stories. This best illustrates
    A) source amnesia.
    B) implicit memory.
    C) mood-congruent memory.
    D) proactive interference.
    A) source amnesia.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Memories we derive from real experiences have ________ detail than memories we derive from imagination. Memories of imagined experiences are ________ restricted to the gist of the supposed event.
    A) more; less
    B) less; more
    C) more; more
    D) less; less
    C) more; more
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Donald Thompson, an Australian psychologist, was an initial suspect in a rape case. The rape victim confused hermemories of Thompson and the actual rapist because she had seen Thompson's image on TV shortly before she wasattacked. The victim's false recollection best illustrates
    A) mood-congruent memory.
    B) the spacing effect.
    C) the serial position effect.
    D) source amnesia.
    D) source amnesia.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Adults who have trouble remembering incidences of childhood sexual abuse have often been led by therapists to believe that their memory difficulties are due to
    A) memory storage failure.
    B) proactive interference.
    C) the misinformation effect.
    D) repression.
    D) repression.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Memory experts who express skepticism regarding reports of repressed and recovered memories emphasize that
    A) people rarely recall memories of long-forgotten unpleasant events.
    B) there is very little people can do to relieve the distress resulting from traumatic memories.
    C) most extremely traumatic life experiences are never encoded into long-term memory.
    D) therapeutic techniques such as guided imagery and dream analysis encourage the construction of false memories.
    C) most extremely traumatic life experiences are never encoded into long-term memory.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. Stressful life experiences such as being raped are not likely to be
    A) encoded.
    B) retrieved.
    C) repressed.
    D) stored.
    C) repressed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. Repeating someone's name several times shortly after being introduced to that person is an effective strategy for
    A) automatic processing.
    B) rehearsal.
    C) chunking.
    D) implicit memory.
    B) rehearsal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. Mentally re-creating the mood that accompanied your original learning of course material is an effective way to activate
    A) acoustic encoding.
    B) iconic memory.
    C) the spacing effect.
    D) retrieval cues.
    D) retrieval cues.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Answering practice test questions about text material you have studied is a useful strategy for
    A) activating your state-dependent memory.
    B) becoming aware of what you do not yet know.
    C) automatically processing complex information.
    D) facilitating the development of implicit memory.
    B) becoming aware of what you do not yet know.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Spoken, written, or signed words and the ways they are combined to communicate meaning constitute
    A) algorithms.
    B) heuristics.
    C) syntax.
    D) language.
    D) language.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. When Fred pronounced the words “this” and “that,” he noticed that they share a common
    A) morpheme.
    B) phoneme.
    C) algorithm.
    D) prototype.
    B) phoneme.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. The smallest speech units that carry meaning are called
    A) phonemes.
    B) concepts.
    C) prototypes.
    D) morphemes.
    A) phonemes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. In the words “lightly,” “neatly,” and “shortly,” the “ly” ending is a(n)
    A) morpheme.
    B) phoneme.
    C) prototype.
    D) algorithm.
    A) morpheme.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. When her teacher mentioned the arms race, Krista understood that the word “arms” referred to weapons and not to body parts. Krista's correct interpretation best illustrates the importance of
    A) semantics.
    B) prototypes.
    C) morphemes.
    D) syntax.
    A) semantics.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. A European visitor to the United States asked a taxi driver, “Can you please a ride to the airport me give?” This visitor has apparently not yet mastered the ________ of the English language.
    A) phonemes
    B) syntax
    C) semantics
    D) morphemes
    B) syntax
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. The ability to comprehend the meaning of speech is called
    A) receptive language.
    B) productive language.
    C) the representativeness heuristic.
    D) intuition.
    A) receptive language.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. The beginning of babies' receptive language development is best illustrated by their capacity to
    A) comprehend the meaning of languages they have never experienced.
    B) babble only sounds that are part of the household language.
    C) recognize the distinctive sound of their own voice.
    D) match another person's distinctive mouth movements with the appropriate sounds.
    D) match another person's distinctive mouth movements with the appropriate sounds.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. The spontaneous utterance of a variety of sounds by infants is called
    A) babbling.
    B) telegraphic speech.
    C) universal grammar.
    D) syntax.
    A) babbling.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. During the earliest stage of speech development, infants
    A) speak in single words that may be barely recognizable.
    B) alternate equally between verbal and manual babbling.
    C) make some speech sounds that do not occur in their parents' native language.
    D) make speech sounds only if their hearing is unimpaired.
    C) make some speech sounds that do not occur in their parents' native language.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. Two-year-old Dirk's sentences—“Dad come,” “Mom laugh,” and “Truck gone”—are examples of
    A) universal grammar.
    B) babbling.
    C) receptive language.
    D) telegraphic speech.
    D) telegraphic speech.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. Applying familiar learning principles to language development, B. F. Skinner emphasized that language is acquired through
    A) the positive reinforcement that adults give children for speaking correctly.
    B) the association of word sounds with various objects, events, actions, and qualities.
    C) all of these actions.
    D) children's imitation of the words and grammar modeled by parents and others.
    C) all of these actions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. According to Chomsky, the fact that young children generate all sorts of sentences they have never heard before suggests that
    A) parents overemphasize correct grammatical usage.
    B) language skills are not developed simply through the processes of imitation and reinforcement.
    C) language acquisition does not proceed in an orderly sequence.
    D) language acquisition develops normally even in the absence of social interaction.
    B) language skills are not developed simply through the processes of imitation and reinforcement.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. Chomsky's theory of language development suggests that children have an inborn
    A) algorithm.
    B) category hierarchy.
    C) language acquisition device.
    D) linguistic prototype.
    C) language acquisition device.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. Research suggests that humans can most easily master the grammar of a second language during
    A) late adulthood.
    B) childhood.
    C) early adulthood.
    D) adolescence.
    B) childhood.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. After she suffered a stroke, Mrs. Jacobitz had so much difficulty speaking that she had to communicate by writing. This suggests that her brain damage occurred in
    A) the angular gyrus.
    B) Broca's area.
    C) Wernicke's area.
    D) the occipital lobe.
    B) Broca's area.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. The part of the left temporal lobe that is involved in understanding language is known as
    A) Wernicke's area.
    B) Broca's area.
    C) the motor cortex.
    D) the sensory cortex.
    A) Wernicke's area.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. Damage to different cortical areas results in different forms of aphasia. This best illustrates that language processing involves multiple
    A) algorithms.
    B) critical periods.
    C) neural networks.
    D) prototypes.
    C) neural networks.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. When we refer to someone's intelligence quotient as if it were a fixed and objectively real trait such as height, we commit a reasoning error called
    A) reification.
    B) standardization.
    C) convergent thinking.
    D) factor analysis.
    A) reification.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. The ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations is known as
    A) intelligence.
    B) divergent thinking.
    C) validation.
    D) neural plasticity.
    A) intelligence.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. The sort of problem solving that demonstrates “school smarts” is what researchers have historically assessed in their tests of
    A) neural plasticity.
    B) intrinsic motivation.
    C) intelligence.
    D) divergent thinking.
    C) intelligence.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. Factor analysis is a statistical procedure that can be used to
    A) extract test norms from a standardization sample.
    B) derive IQ scores by comparing mental age with chronological age.
    C) provide a quantitative estimate of heritability.
    D) identify clusters of closely related test items.
    D) identify clusters of closely related test items.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. In 8 to 10 seconds, memory whiz Kim Peek can read and remember the contents of a book page. Yet, he has little capacity for understanding abstract concepts. Kim's mental capacities best illustrate
    A) autism.
    B) savant syndrome.
    C) emotional intelligence.
    D) Down syndrome.
    B) savant syndrome.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. The characteristics of savant syndrome most directly suggest that intelligence is
    A) largely unpredictable and unmeasurable.
    B) a diverse set of distinct abilities.
    C) dependent upon the speed of cognitive processing.
    D) a culturally constructed concept.
    B) a diverse set of distinct abilities.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. Which of the following persons best illustrates Sternberg's concept of practical intelligence?
    A) Gareth, a graduate student who generates many creative ideas
    B) Cindy, a young mother who prefers cleaning her house to supervising her children
    C) Shelley, a newspaper reporter who has established a large network of information sources
    D) Jamal, a student who quickly recognizes the correct answers to multiple-choice test questions
    B) Cindy, a young mother who prefers cleaning her house to supervising her children
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. The ability to produce novel and valuable ideas is called
    A) creativity.
    B) convergent thinking.
    C) savant syndrome.
    D) factor analysis.
    A) creativity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. Generating multiple possible answers to a problem illustrates
    A) the Flynn effect.
    B) divergent thinking.
    C) factor analysis.
    D) predictive validity.
    B) divergent thinking.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. Intrinsic motivation is thought to be an important component of
    A) predictive validity.
    B) savant syndrome.
    C) creativity.
    D) the g factor.
    C) creativity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. When Professor McGuire asks her students to answer questions in class, she can quickly tell from their facial expressions whether they are happy to participate. Professor McGuire's perceptual skill best illustrates
    A) factor analysis.
    B) analytical intelligence.
    C) divergent thinking.
    D) emotional intelligence.
    D) emotional intelligence.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. The ability to delay immediate pleasures in pursuit of long-range rewards is most clearly a characteristic of
    A) divergent thinking.
    B) heritability.
    C) emotional intelligence.
    D) savant syndrome.
    C) emotional intelligence.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. As adults age, the size of their brains ________ and their nonverbal intelligence test scores ________.
    A) increases; decrease
    B) increases; increase
    C) decreases; increase
    D) decreases; decrease
    D) decreases; decrease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. Postmortem brain analyses reveal that highly educated people have ________ when they die than do their less educated counterparts.
    A) less gray matter
    B) more reification
    C) less neural plasticity
    D) more synapses
    B) more reification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. Precocious 12- to 14-year-old college students with unusually high levels of verbal intelligence are most likely to
    A) perform at only an average level on tests of mathematical aptitude.
    B) retrieve information from memory at an unusually rapid speed.
    C) experience less loneliness and achieve happier marriages than the average college student.
    D) demonstrate unusually high levels of the practical managerial intelligence common to successful business executives.
    B) retrieve information from memory at an unusually rapid speed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. The nineteenth-century English scientist Sir Francis Galton believed that
    A) superior intelligence is biologically inherited.
    B) mental abilities cannot be measured.
    C) intelligence test performance depends on motivation rather than ability.
    D) academic aptitude involves divergent rather than convergent thinking.
    A) superior intelligence is biologically inherited.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. Binet and Simon designed a test of intellectual abilities in order to
    A) distinguish between academic and practical intelligence.
    B) assess general capacity for goaldirected adaptive behavior.
    C) provide a quantitative estimate of inherited intellectual potential.
    D) identify children likely to have difficulty learning in regular school classes.
    D) identify children likely to have difficulty learning in regular school classes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. For the original version of the Stanford-Binet, IQ was defined as
    A) chronological age subtracted from mental age and multiplied by 100.
    B) chronological age divided by mental age and multiplied by 100.
    C) mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100.
    D) mental age multiplied by 100.
    C) mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. A 12-year-old who responded to the original Stanford-Binet with the proficiency typical of an average 9-year-old was said to have an IQ of
    A) 115.
    B) 85.
    C) 133.
    D) 75.
    D) 75.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. In the early twentieth century, the U.S. government developed intelligence tests to evaluate newly arriving immigrants. Poor test scores among immigrants who were not of Anglo-Saxon heritage were attributed by some psychologists of that day to
    A) divergent thinking.
    B) savant syndrome.
    C) innate mental inferiority.
    D) stereotype threat.
    C) innate mental inferiority.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. A test of your capacity to learn to be an automobile mechanic would be considered a(n) ________ test.
    A) reliability
    B) aptitude
    C) achievement
    D) intelligence
    B) aptitude
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. If a test is standardized, this means that
    A) a person's test performance can be compared with that of a representative pretested group.
    B) the test will yield consistent results when administered on different occasions.
    C) most test scores will cluster near the average.
    D) it accurately measures what it is intended to measure.
    A) a person's test performance can be compared with that of a representative pretested group.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. The distribution of intelligence test scores in the general population forms a bell-shaped pattern. This pattern is called a
    A) factor analysis.
    B) standardization sample.
    C) reliability coefficient.
    D) normal curve.
    D) normal curve.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. It would be reasonable to suggest that the Flynn effect is due in part to
    A) the decreasing reliance on a single test score as an index of mental aptitudes.
    B) the failure to restandardize existing intelligence tests.
    C) the deteriorating quality of parental involvement in children's education
    D) increasingly improved childhood health and nutrition.
    D) increasingly improved childhood health and nutrition.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. If a test yields consistent results every time it is used, it has a high degree of
    A) standardization.
    B) content validity.
    C) predictive validity.
    D) reliability.
    D) reliability.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. A test that measures or predicts what it is supposed to is said to have a high degree of
    A) validity.
    B) standardization.
    C) reliability.
    D) the g factor.
    A) validity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. Women scoring in the highest 25 percent on the Scottish national intelligence test at age 11 tended to ________ than those who scored in the lowest 25 percent.
    A) be less creative
    B) talk at an earlier age
    C) experience more stereotype threat
    D) live longer
    D) live longer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Individuals with Down syndrome are
    A) unlikely to show obvious signs of mental retardation.
    B) born with an extra chromosome.
    C) mentally retarded due to neglect during infancy
    D) mentally retarded, except for one specific ability in which they excel.
    B) born with an extra chromosome.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. Terman's observations of 1500 California children with IQ scores over 135 contradicted the popular notion that intellectually gifted children are typically
    A) physically healthy.
    B) verbally skilled.
    C) in a different world.
    D) socially maladjusted.
    D) socially maladjusted.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. “Gifted child” programs can lead to ______ by implicitly labeling some students as “ungifted” and isolating them froman enriched educational environment.
    A) self-fulfilling prophecies
    B) the Flynn effect
    C) divergent thinking
    D) factor analysis
    A) self-fulfilling prophecies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. The heritability of intelligence refers to
    A) the percentage of variation in intelligence within a group that is attributable to genetic factors.
    B) a general underlying intelligence factor that is measured by every task on an intelligence test.
    C) the extent to which an individual's intelligence is attributable to genetic factors.
    D) the extent to which a group's intelligence is attributable to genetic factors.
    A) the percentage of variation in intelligence within a group that is attributable to genetic factors.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. Babies in an Iranian orphanage suffered delayed intellectual development due to
    A) savant syndrome.
    B) critical periods.
    C) a deprived environment.
    D) telegraphic speech.
    C) a deprived environment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. The “Mozart effect” refers to the now-discounted finding that cognitive ability is boosted by
    A) listening to classical music.
    B) nutritional supplements.
    C) Head Start programs.
    D) hybrid vigor.
    A) listening to classical music.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. Girls are most likely to outperform boys in a
    A) grammar test.
    B) chess tournament.
    C) computer programming contest.
    D) mathematical reasoning test.
    A) grammar test.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. Everyone would agree that intelligence tests are “biased” in the sense that
    A) numerical scores of intelligence serve to dehumanize individuals.
    B) test performance is influenced by cultural experiences.
    C) the reliability of intelligence tests is close to zero.
    D) the heritability of intelligence is very high.
    B) test performance is influenced by cultural experiences.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. Jim, age 55, plays basketball with much younger adults and is concerned that his teammates might consider his age to be a detriment to their game outcome. His concern actually undermines his athletic performance. This best illustrates the impact of
    A) extrinsic motivation.
    B) stereotype threat.
    C) the Flynn effect.
    D) divergent thinking.
    B) stereotype threat.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. Boys are most likely to outperform girls in a
    A) chess tournament.
    B) spelling bee.
    C) speech-giving contest.
    D) speed-reading tournament.
    A) chess tournament.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic components of emotion identified in the text?
    A) pupil contraction
    B) expressive behavior
    C) conscious experience
    D) physiological arousal
    A) pupil contraction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. Ten-year-old Vito tells his friend, “When you notice that your knees knock, your hands sweat, and your stomach is in knots, then you really get scared.” This statement best illustrates the
    A) catharsis hypothesis.
    B) Cannon-Bard theory.
    C) James-Lange theory.
    D) relative deprivation principle.
    C) James-Lange theory.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, the experience of an emotion
    A) occurs simultaneously with physiological arousal.
    B) can occur only after physiological arousal.
    C) precedes physiological arousal.
    D) depends on the intensity of physiological arousal. 
    A) occurs simultaneously with physiological arousal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. Which theory states that emotion results from the cognitive labeling of our physiological arousal?
    A) Cannon-Bard
    B) two-factor
    C) relative deprivation
    D) adaptation-level
    B) two-factor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. Which division of the nervous system arouses the body and mobilizes its energy in emotionally stressful situations?
    A) somatic
    B) central
    C) sympathetic
    D) parasympathetic
    C) sympathetic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. Turning in at her street, Dominique saw six fire trucks in front of her apartment building. Her heart beat wildly until someone yelled, “Just a false alarm.” Her pulse then began to return to normal, due to the action of her ________nervous system.
    A) sympathetic
    B) central
    C) parasympathetic
    D) somatic
    C) parasympathetic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. The emotions of anger and fear involve similar
    A) subjective thoughts and experiences.
    B) facial expressions.
    C) patterns of autonomic arousal.
    D) patterns of brain activity.
    C) patterns of autonomic arousal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. A small cluster of neurons, the nucleus accumbens, is highly active when people experience
    A) pleasure.
    B) anger.
    C) depression.
    D) fear.
    A) pleasure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. Mr. Hanson is strongly suspected of embezzling money from his employer. He has denied the allegation. To determine whether he is lying, investigators are most likely to ask Mr. Hanson to take a(n) ________ test.
    A) polygraph
    B) electrocardiograph
    C) tomograph
    D) myograph
    A) polygraph
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. One problem with the use of the polygraph for lie detection is that
    A) emotions involve expressive behaviors as well as autonomic nervous system arousal.
    B) polygraph assessments are more expensive than brain scans.
    C) innocent people are presumed to be guilty at the very beginning of any lie detector test.
    D) anxiety, irritation, and guilt feelings all prompt similar physiological reactivity.
    D) anxiety, irritation, and guilt feelings all prompt similar physiological reactivity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. Although newspapers reported that a murder victim had been stabbed with a knife, two police investigators knew that the actual murder weapon was a letter opener. While carefully monitoring the changes in heart rate and perspiration level of a prime suspect, the investigators asked him if he typically used a letter opener on his mail. The investigators were making use of the
    A) relative deprivation principle.
    B) guilty knowledge test.
    C) catharsis hypothesis.
    D) adaptation-level phenomenon.
    B) guilty knowledge test.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. Whether we feel angry or depressed in response to a low exam grade depends on whether we attribute the poor grade to an unfair test or to our own low intelligence. This best illustrates that emotions are influenced by
    A) cognitive appraisals.
    B) physical arousal.
    C) genetic predispositions.
    D) relative deprivation.
    A) cognitive appraisals.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. Couples who are passionately in love most frequently communicate intimacy by means of
    A) contraction of the pupils.
    B) winking.
    C) averted glances.
    D) prolonged eye gazing.
    D) prolonged eye gazing.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. The most unambiguous nonverbal clue to our specific emotional state is provided by our
    A) respiration rate.
    B) hand gestures.
    C) body posture.
    D) facial muscles.
    D) facial muscles.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. The facial expressions associated with particular emotions are
    A) more similar in adults than they are in children or adolescents.
    B) learned in early childhood.
    C) the same throughout the world.
    D) different in Eastern and Western cultures.
    C) the same throughout the world.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. North Americans are more likely than Japanese citizens to display their feelings openly. This cultural difference best reflects the American culture's greater emphasis on
    A) relative deprivation.
    B) the spillover effect.
    C) role-playing.
    D) individuality.
    D) individuality.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. Researchers have found that people experience cartoons as more amusing while holding a pen with their teeth than while holding it with their lips. This best illustrates the
    A) adaptation-level phenomenon.
    B) catharsis hypothesis.
    C) facial feedback effect.
    D) relative deprivation principle.
    C) facial feedback effect.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. When Laura acts happy, she experiences increased feelings of cheerfulness. This best illustrates
    A) the diminishing returns phenomenon.
    B) the behavior feedback phenomenon.
    C) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
    D) feel-good, do-good phenomenon.
    B) the behavior feedback phenomenon.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. The emotion of sadness is characterized by negative valence and ________ arousal.
    A) positive
    B) low
    C) high
    D) negative
    B) low
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. In experiments with adult monkeys who were fearful of snakes and their offspring who were not, Susan Mineka discovered that the younger monkeys developed a fear of snakes through the process of
    A) classical conditioning.
    B) observational learning.
    C) relative deprivation.
    D) catharsis.
    B) observational learning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. People are most biologically predisposed to learn to fear
    A) electricity.
    B) other people.
    C) spiders.
    D) guns.
    C) spiders.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. If intense fears of specific objects disrupt people's ability to cope, they are said to experience
    A) relative deprivation.
    B) phobias.
    C) catharsis.
    D) the spillover effect.
    B) phobias.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. The catharsis hypothesis refers to the idea that
    A) every emotion is preceded by cognition.
    B) humans tend to adapt to a given level of stimulation.
    C) successful performance is influenced by level of physiological ar
    D) anger is reduced by aggressive action or fantasy.
    D) anger is reduced by aggressive action or fantasy.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. Experts suggest that an intensely angry person should
    A) release the anger through some aggressive action or fantasy.
    B) avoid the offending person so as to alleviate the problem.
    C) mentally rehearse the exact reasons for the anger.
    D) take time to let the anger and emotional arousal subside.
    D) take time to let the anger and emotional arousal subside.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. Mrs. Chen asks her teenage son, Keith, to rake the leaves in the yard. Keith is most likely to want to help his mother after
    A) bringing home a less-than-satisfactory report card from school.
    B) hearing that a friend was involved in a minor automobile accident.
    C) receiving news that he has just won $1000 in a state lottery.
    D) washing the family's dishes.
    C) receiving news that he has just won $1000 in a state lottery.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. A sense of satisfaction with life is known as
    A) the feel-good, do-good phenomenon.
    B) the adaption-level phenomenon.
    C) the spillover effect.
    D) subjective well-being.
    D) subjective well-being.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. People's positive emotions typically ________ between the early and middle hours of the day and typically ________between the middle and late hours of the day.
    A) rise; fall
    B) rise; remain stable
    C) remain stable; fall
    D) remain stable; rise
    A) rise; fall
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. Over the long run, our satisfaction with life is typically ________ by a tragic event and ________ by a dramatically positive event.
    A) decreased; increased
    B) decreased; largely unchanged
    C) largely unchanged; largely unchanged
    D) largely unchanged; increased
    C) largely unchanged; largely unchanged
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. Our tendency to judge various stimuli relative to those we have previously experienced is called
    A) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
    B) the feel-good, do-good phenomenon.
    C) the behavior feedback phenomenon.
    D) the diminishing returns phenomenon.
    A) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. When Mrs. Van Dyke first acquired a new luxury car, she was ecstatic. After several months, however, she took the car for granted and it gave her little sense of emotional excitement. This change in her feelings can best be explained in terms of
    A) relative deprivation.
    B) the catharsis hypothesis.
    C) the spillover effect.
    D) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
    D) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. The concept of relative deprivation refers to the perception that
    A) one is worse off than those with whom one compares oneself.
    B) yesterday's luxuries are today's necessities.
    C) things are never quite as bad as they could be.
    D) happiness can't last forever.
    A) one is worse off than those with whom one compares oneself.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. You were happy with your grade of B on the psychology test until you learned that almost everyone else in the class received an A. This illustrates that happiness is influenced by
    A) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
    C) the feel-good, do-good phenomenon.
    B) relative deprivation.
    D) catharsis.
    B) relative deprivation.
  210. Research suggests that people experience the most happiness when they are
    A) absorbed in challenging activities.
    B) highly self-aware.
    C) daydreaming.
    D) eating.
    A) absorbed in challenging activities.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. Researchers have found that certain factors are related to happiness. One of these is that happy people tend to
    A) have a satisfying marriage or close friendship.
    B) have many children.
    C) be well educated.
    D) be physically attractive.
    A) have a satisfying marriage or close friendship.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. Differences among people's self-reported happiness levels are MOST strongly related to
    A) genetic differences.
    B) physical attractiveness differences.
    C) age differences.
    D) gender differences.
    A) genetic differences.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
Author
ID
311367
Card Set
Psyc 2
Description
Psyc
Updated
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