-
What are the first line therapies for allergic rhinitis
- glucocorticoids (beclomethasone)
- antihistamines (azelastine; loratadine)
- sympathomimetics (in conjunction to relieve congestion)
-
What are adverse effects of inhaled glucocorticoids?
- drying of nasal mucosa
- burning or itching sensation
- sore throat
- epistaxis
- headache
- adrenal suppression (rare)
- slowing of linear growth in children (rare)
-
How long does inhaled glucocorticoids take effect?
- seasonal: week or more
- perennial: 2-3 weeks
-
Oral antihistamines are most effective when taken when?
- prophylactically
- admin on regular basis even when symptoms are absent during allergy season
-
What are the two intranasal antihistamines?
-
Intranasal cromolyn is most effective when given when?
- Prophylactically; before symptoms present
- may take 1-2 weeks for responses
-
Examples of sympathomimetics? MOA? Admin?
- phenylephrine (intranasal/oral)
- ephedrine (PO)
- pseudoephedrine (PO)
- they activate alpha1 adrenergic receptors --> vasoconstriction
-
AE of phenylephrine/pseudoephedrine?
- rebound congestion
- CNS stimulation (irritability, anxiety, restlessness, insomnia)
- cardiac (systemic vasoconstriction)
- abuse (ephedrine & pseudoephedrine)
-
How to reduce rebound congestion caused by phenylephrine/pseudoephedrine
- limit use for 3-5 days only
- often occurs w/ topical agents
- d/c med one nostril at a time
-
Diff bet topical and oral sympathomimetics?
- Topical more effective, works faster, more rebound congestion
- oral: more systemic effects (vasocontstiction, CNS stimulation)
-
Which 2 sympathomimetics are used for abuse? prevention?
- ephedrine and pseudoephedrine
- thay have similar effects w/ amphetamine
- placed behind counter w/ PX
-
What other drugs are used for allergic rhinitis? (3)
- Atrovent (anticholinergic): reduce secretions
- singulair (leukotriene antagonist):relieve nasal congestion
- xolair-omalizumab (antibody): off-label use
-
SE of montelukast (singulair)?
- neuropsych effects
- agitation, aggression, hallucinations, depression, insomnia, restlessness, suicidal thinking
-
2 major groups of antitussives?
- opioid (codeine; hydrocodone)
- nonopioid (dextromethorphan; diphenhydramine; benzonatate)
-
benzonatate MOA; how to take?
- decrease sensitivity of respiratory tract stretch receptors
- need to be swallowed intact d/t risk of bronchospasm, laryngospasm, circulatory collapse
-
combination cold remedies usually include:
- decongestant
- antitussive
- analgesic
- antihistamine (to decrease secretion)
- caffeine (offset sedative effects)
-
OTC cold remedies should not be used by:
children younger than 2 years old
-
Which instruction by the nurse should be the priority for a patient scheduled to start intranasal cromolyn [NasalCrom]
relief may take a week or two
-
Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching for a patient prescribed cetirizine [Zyrtec] for seasonal allergic rhinitis?
"Take the medication daily throughout the allergy season.
-
Which class of drugs is most effective in preventing and treating seasonal and allergic rhinitis?
intranasal glucocorticoids
-
Which instruction should be included in the teaching for a patient being started on the antihistamine azelastine [Astelin]
You may experience an unpleasant taste in your mouth when using azelastine."
-
Goals of treatment of TB
- eliminate symptoms
- prevent relapse
-
Sputum cultures of TB takes how many weeks? faster way?
- 2-3 weeks
- NAA nucleic acid amplification
-
The principal cause of emergence of resistance in TB is
inadequate drug therapy
-
Rule in TB therapy; rationale
- must always contain two or more drugs
- decr risk of resistance and relapse
-
2 phases of TB therapy
- initial phase (induction) -eliminate actively dividing tubercle
- second phase (continuation) eliminate persisters
-
Patients with HIV cannot take which TB med? why?
- Rifampin; because it speeds up metabolism of antiviral drugs
- can replace w/ rifabutin
-
2 tests for latent TB
- TB skin test
- IGRA (interferon gamma release assay)
-
Treatment of latent TB
- isoniazid daily for 9 months
- isoniazid + rifapentine weekly for 3 months
-
First line drugs for TB
- isoniazid
- rifampin
- rifapentine
- rifabutin
- pyrazinamide
- ethambutol
-
AE of isoniazid
- hepatotoxicity
- peripheral neuropathy
-
Admin of isoniazid
take on empty stomach
-
Isoniazid can raise levels of which drug? s/s?
- phenytoin
- ataxia, incoordination
-
Besides TB, rifampin is also used for? 4
- leprosy
- meningitis
- influenza
- staph
-
AE of rifampin (2)
- hepatotoxicity
- red-orange color urine, sweat, saliva, tears
-
Rifampin can decrease effectiveness of which meds? (3)
- contraceptives
- warfarin
- HIV meds
-
AE of pyrazinamide? (2)
- hepatotoxicity
- nongouty polyarthralgias
-
AE of ethambutol? (1)
- optic neuritis: blurred vision, reduced color discrimination
- not recommended for children < 8
-
Which med is used instead of ethambutol for children?
PAS (para-aminosalicylic acid)
-
The injectable drugs used for TB can cause? 2
- renal damage
- 8th nerve damage
-
Cycloserine AE? level?
- CNS effects ( anxiety, depression, confusion..)
- 25-35 mcg/ml
-
Bedaquiline is used for? AE?
- multidrug-resistant TB
- prolonged QT interval
-
MB leprocy tx regimen?
- Rifampin
- Dapsone
- Clofazimine
- for 12 months
-
Single-lesion leprosy tx?
- single dose ROM
- rifampin, ofloxacin, minocycline
-
Clofazimine SE?
red color of feces, urine, sweat, tears
-
A patient who has tuberculosis is treated with isoniazid. The nurse should monitor for which symptoms, which could indicate a vitamin B6 deficiency caused by the medication?
Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes
-
What are the agents used to promote follicular maturation and/or ovulation?
- clomiphene
- menotropins
- follitropins
- hCG
-
how is cervical mucus restored?
ethinyl estradiol
-
What is the mechanism of action of clomiphene?
promote follicular maturation and ovulation by blocking estrogen receptors
-
Before starting therapy with clomiphene, what two things need to be ruled out?
- pregnancy
- pituitary and ovarian fn intact
-
What is the admin schedule of clomiphene?
- during menses, start 5 days after
- no menses, start anytime
-
What is the most serious AE of menotropin?
ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
-
Monitoring of menotropin therapy:
US; estrogen level
-
Menotropin consists of what?
equal amounts of LH and FSH
-
What is the AE of hCG?
ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
-
hCG admin routes? w/ clomiphene? w/ menotropin/follitropin?
- hCG (IM)
- Choriogonadotropin (SQ)
- 7-9 days after
- 1 day after
-
what is the pretreatment for hCG?
menotropin, follitropin or clomiphene to induce follicular maturation
-
Which medication is a dopamine agonist used to correct amenorrhea and infertility d/t high prolactin?
cabergoline
-
Which of these instructions should a nurse give a patient who is to start taking clomiphene [Clomid]? "Have intercourse every other day for 5 to 10 days after the last dose of this medication."
-
When evaluating the effects of leuprolide [Lupron] in a patient who has endometriosis, a nurse should monitor the laboratory results for which hormone or hormones?
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
-
he nurse is aware that goserelin [Zoladex] has several uses, including which? (Select all that apply.)
- Endometriosis Correct
- Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Correct
- Prostate cancer Correct
- Breast cancer
-
Prinicipal inidication for androgens?
hypogonadism
-
Hormone therapy has 3 indications
- -mod to severe vasomotor symptoms
- -mod to severe vulvar and vag atrophy
- -prevention of osteoporosis
-
Which 2 antidepressants are being used to treat hot flashes?
- (escitalopram) Lexapro
- (desvenlafaxine) Pristiq
-
Admin of estrogen patch? cream? gel? spray? ring?
- abdomen or trunk
- top of both thighs or back of both calves
- after showering, one arm from shoulder to wrist
- inner forearm; dry for 2 minutes
- into vagina
- leave in place for 3 mos
-
During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, estrogen has which effects on the female reproductive organs?
Proliferation of the endometrium
-
What is the primary difference between the selective estrogen receptor modulators tamoxifen and raloxifene?
Raloxifene does not increase the risk for uterine cancer.
-
Progestins may be used to treat which conditions?
- Endometrial hyperplasia Correct
- Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Correct
- Endometriosis Correct
- Breast cancer
- Amenorrhea
-
Which 2 progestins have the greatest risk for thrombosis?
-
Risk factors that increase risk of thromboembolism: 3
- smoking
- hx of thromboembolism
- hx of thrombophilias
-
OCs should be DC'd when before surgery?
4 weeks
-
Which meds REDUCE the effects of OCs?
- rifampin
- ritonavir
- antiSZ
- St john's wort
-
Which meds need be increased when used with OCs?
- warfarin
- oral hypoglycemics
-
IUDs should only be used by who?
monogamous women with low risk of STD
-
Mifepristone (Mifeprex) is used for what?
- abortion; it blocks receptors for progesterone and glucocorticoids
- can be given within 7 wks of conception
-
A patient who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) medication is scheduled to begin taking the Yaz oral contraceptive (OC). Which laboratory results should the nurse monitor during the first cycle of use?
potassium
-
A nurse obtains a health history from a patient who is scheduled to take a combination OC. Which factor in the patient's history should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to this treatment?
breast CA
-
he nurse is aware that which 28-day regimen is least likely to simulate ovarian production of estrogens and progestins?
monophasic
-
What is the main diff between NRTIs and NNRTIs?
- NNRTIs cause DIRECT inhibition of reverse transcriptase
- given in active form
-
Efavirenze (Sustiva) AE 4
- CNS symptoms
- rash
- teratogenic
- liver damage
-
AEs of protease inhibitors (5)
- hyperglycemia
- fat redistribution (pseudo-Cushing's)
- hyperlipidemia
- increased bleeding
- reduced bone mineral density
-
Scultpra is used to
restore or correct loss of facial fat in people with HIV
-
Tesamorelin (Egrifta) is used for
reducing excess visceral abdominal fat of HIV pts
-
Most common AE of Lopinavir/Ritonavir (Kaletra)
diarrhea
-
A cardiac AE of Lopinavir/Ritonavir (Kaletra) is
prolonged PR and QT interval
-
Oral solutions of Lopinavir/Ritonavir (Kaletra) should not be given to
- full-term/preterm infants
- pts taking disulfiram and metronadizole
-
Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) is a? MOA? admin?
- HIV fusion inhibitor
- blocks the entry of HIV into CD4 cells
- given subQ BID
-
Maraviroc (Selzentry) is a? MOA? use of drug is low bc?
- CCR5 antagonist
- blocks viral entry
- dosing is complex; adjusted based on other drugs; expensive testing prior to therapy
-
What are the lab tests performed in HIV therapy?
- CD4 T-cell count
- Viral load
- HIV drug resistance
- HLA-B 5701 (for Abacavir)
- CCR5 tropism (for Maraviroc)
-
Postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be initiated
ASAP; within 1-2 hrs; no later than 72 hours
-
When should antiretroviral be given when a mother is infected with HIV; which med?
- during gestation and labor
- to infant up to 6 wks postpartum
- zidovudine
-
Drug of choice for pneumocystis pneumonia
TMP/SMZ
-
What 4 meds are used to tx CMV in HIV pts
- ganciclovir
- valganciclovir
- cidofovir
- foscarnet
-
Med used for meningitis in HIV pt
- amphotericin B w/ flucytosine
- maintenance: oral fluconazole
-
med used to tx HSV in HIV pts
acyclovir
-
tx of chlamydia for adults and adolescents
- single 1 gm azithromycin
- 100 mg doxycycline BID x 7 days
-
tx of chlamydia for pregnant women
- single 1 gm of azithromycin
- 500 mg og amoxicillin TID x 7 days
-
tx of urethral, cervical, and rectal gonorrhea
- ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1
- azithromycin 1 gm PO or doxycycline 100 mg PO BID x 7 days
-
tx of PID
cefoxitin or cefotetan with doxycycline
-
-
If pt is allergic to PCN, syphyllis can be tx with?
doxycycline or tetracycline
-
bacterial vaginosis is tx with?
- nonpregnant: flagyl PO or flagyl/clindamycin cream
- pregnant: clindamycin or flagyl PO only
-
tx for trichomoniasis
flagyl
-
tx of genital herpes 3; MOA; admin
- acyclovir
- famciclovir
- valacyclovir
- these meds only reduce symptoms and shorten the duration of pain and viral shredding
- every day or only when symptoms occur
-
A patient who has HIV and is taking the nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) zidovudine [Retrovir] reports vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, and hyperventilation. Which laboratory result is the priority for the nurse to evaluate?
arterial blood lactate
-
A patient has been prescribed efavirenz [Sustiva]. The nurse should instruct the patient to use which administration approach to minimize central nervous system (CNS) adverse effects?
bedtime dosing
-
Which is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease (STD) in the United States, for which the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has recommended annual screening in certain populations?
chlamydia
-
A nurse instills 1% silver nitrate topically into the eyes of a neonate on delivery to prevent conjunctivitis caused by what?
-
How does sildenafil work?
inhibits PDE5, which preserves cGMP levels in penis
-
AE of sildenafil
- hypotension
- priapism
- NAION nonarteritic ischemic optic neuropathy
- sudden hearing loss
-
Vardenafil causes
QT prolongation
-
How long is the effects of tadalafil
36 hrs
-
the PDE5 inhibitors are contraindicated to
pts taking nitro or nitrates and alpha blockers
-
Nonoral drugs for ED are usually given
as injection or inserted in the urethra
-
Papapverine and alprostadil is given
via injection into corpus cavernosum
-
what are the 2 groups of BPH drugs
5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride; dutasteride)
-
Finasteride MOA? how long does it take to show effect?
- ihibits 5-alpha reductase; promote regression of prostate epi tissue; decrease mechanical obstruction of urethra
- 6-12 months
-
AE of finasteride
- decreased ejaculate
- decreased libido
- gynecomastia
-
What is the diff of dutasteride v finasteride?
- dutasteride reduces DHT better
- has a longer half-life
-
Alpha1 adrenergic antagonists
decreases dynamic obstruction of urethra
-
3 of the alpha 1 blockers are nonselective
- alfusozin
- terazosin
- doxazosin
-
A patient has received a toxic dose of an antihistamine. It is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for what?
seizure activity
-
Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching for a patient who is to be started on zileuton [Zyflo]?
"Have your blood drawn once a month for the next 3 months so that your liver function can be checked."
-
A patient who has active TB is to start a medication regimen that includes pyrazinamide. The nurse identifies a risk for complications if the patient also has which medical condition?
alcoholism
-
How is the transdermal contraceptive patch applied?
- once a week x 3 weeks
- off for 1 week
-
Contraceptive ring is placed?
every month
-
When is combo OC initiated?
- 1st day of menses OR
- 1st Sunday after onset of menses
- 21 days active pill
- 7 days (off) can be inert, no pill, or iron
-
Loestrin Fe is? dosing?
- combo OC
- 26 days active
- 2 days off
-
Introvale, Jolessa, Quasense, Seasonale dosing?
-
Amethyst and Lybrel dosing?
continuously
-
Guideline for postpartum use of combo OCs
- can be started 2 wks after delivery as long as not breastfeeding
- if breastfeeding, "mini-pill" is indicated
-
Causes of female infertility (5)
- anovulation and failure of follicular maturation
- unfavorable cervical mucus
- hyperprolactinemia
- endometriosis
- PCOS
-
Baseline data needed for zodovudine
- hgb and granulocyte d/t risk of hematologic toxicity
- NRTI
-
abacavir baseline data
- screen for HLA-B 5701
- NRTI
-
Didanosine implementation
- take 30 mins before meals or 2 hrs after
- pour powdered drug into 4 oz of water (not juice or acid-containing drinks)
-
Ribavirin should not be combined with
allopurinol d/t risk of toxicity
-
Efavirenz implementation
- taken on empty stomach, preferably at bedtime (reduce CNS symptoms)
- NNRTI
-
Which beneficial metabolic effects does estrogen have in nonreproductive tissues?
- It promotes and suppresses coagulation. Correct
- It reduces low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). Correct
- It suppresses bone resorption. Correct
-
Progestins may be used to treat which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
- Endometrial hyperplasia Correct
- Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Correct
- Endometriosis Correct
- Amenorrhea Correct
-
A patient tells the nurse, "I use a foam contraceptive by applying it 2 hours before having sex, and I have not gotten pregnant." What is the nurse's best response?
"Foam contraceptives should be applied no more than 1 hour before intercourse."
-
The nurse is aware that the primary use for misoprostol [Cytotec] is what?
induction of abortion, cervical ripening, and induction of labor.
-
Which statement is true about the NuvaRing?
One ring is inserted once each month, left in place for 3 weeks, and then removed; a new ring is inserted 1 week later.
-
The nurse is aware that which 28-day regimen is least likely to simulate ovarian production of estrogens and progestins?
monophasic
-
A nurse should report which finding of ovarian hyperstimulation in a woman receiving menotropins?
ascites and weight gain
-
he nurse is aware that goserelin [Zoladex] has several uses, including which? (Select all that apply.)
- Endometriosis Correct
- Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Correct
- Prostate cancer Correct
- Breast cancer Correct
-
Which measurements should a nurse obtain to evaluate the effects of androgen therapy on the epiphyses of a patient with hypogonadism?
Periodic hand and wrist x-rays Correct
-
A nurse monitors for which adverse cardiovascular effects in a male patient taking testosterone [Androderm]? (Select all that apply.)
- Pedal edema and weight gain Correct
- Decrease in high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels Correct
-
Which statement should a nurse include when providing teaching to a patient who is scheduled to start taking dutasteride [Avodart]?
"You cannot donate blood while on this medication or for 6 months after stopping it." Correct
-
The nurse is aware that mother-to-child transmission of HIV occurs primarily during labor and delivery. Which of the following can reduce the risk of transmission? (Select all that apply.)
- ART during gestation to minimize maternal viral load Correct
- IV zidovudine to the mother during labor and delivery Correct
- Oral or IV zidovudine to the infant for 6 weeks following delivery Correct
-
Which finding does the nurse expect when assessing a male patient with secondary syphilis?
Skin lesions and flulike symptoms Correct
-
H pylori causes PUD likely d/t (4)
- enzymatic degradation of mucus layer
- cytotoxin that injures mucosal cells
- infilitration of neutrophils
- produces urease which forms CO2 and ammonia
-
H pylori promotes
gastric cancer
-
Zollinger-ellison syndrome is
- a rare disorder
- caused by a tumor that secretes gastrin
-
Goal of therapy in PUD is to (4)
- alleviate symptoms
- promote healing
- prevent complications
- prevent recurrence
- *drugs do not alter disease process (except abx)
-
5 major groups of antiulcer
- abx
- antisecretory
- mucosal protectant
- antisecretory w/ enhancement
- antacids
-
Tx for NSAID-induced ulcers? (2)
-
Drugs that reduce acidity should be admin in doses enough to
raise pH at 5 and above
-
Tests for H pylori (5)
- invasive: endoscopy and bx
- noninvasive: breath, stool, blood
-
Abx used to tx H pyrlori
- clarithromycin (inhibit protein synthesis)
- amoxicillin (disrupt cell wall)
- bismuth (disrupt cell wall; inhibit urease activity)
- metronidazole
- tetracycline (inhibit protein synthesis)
-
Bismuth SE
harmless black coloration of tongue and stool
-
Metronidazole can cause
disulfiram-like reaction when used with ETOH
-
Antibiotic regimens for H pylori
- if resistance to clarithromycin is low: chlarithromycin-based triple therapy: chlarit + amox + PPI
- if resistance to clarithromycin is high:
- bismuth-based quadruple therapy: bismuth + flagyl + tetracycline + PPI/H2RA
- sequential therapy: PPI + amox x 5 days; then PPI + clarithromycin + tinidazole x 5 days
-
H2RA promote; examples
- ulcer healing by suppressing gastric acid secretion
- ranitidine
- cimetidine
- famotidine
- nizatidine
-
Cimetidine absorption; therapeutic effects
- decreased by food
- 4-6 weeks of therapy
- may be given prophylactically
-
Cimetidine is drug of choice for tx
- preventing aspiration pneumonitis
- given 60-90 mins before anesthesia
-
AE of Cimetidine (5)
- gynecomastia
- reduced libido
- impotence
- CNS effects
- pneumonia
-
Cimetidine can increase levels of
- warfarin
- phenytoin
- theophylline
- lidocaine
-
Compared to cimetidine, ranitidine (3)
- more potent
- has fewer SE
- has fewer drug interactions
-
Most effective drug for suppressing gastric acid secretion
PPIs (omeprazole, pantoprazole, -prazole)
-
Omeprazole (Prilosec) MOA
irreversible inhibition of H K ATPase (enzyme that generates gastric acid)
-
Omeprazole tx should be
limited to 4-8 weeks
-
Omeprazole is used for (5)
- duodenal ulcers
- gastric ulcers
- erosive esophagitis
- GERD
- long term zollinger-ellison syndrome
-
ulcer prophylaxis should only be done (4)
- in ICU pts
- multiple trauma
- spinal cord injury
- prolonged mech ventilation
-
AE of omeprazole (4)
- pneumonia
- fxs
- rebound acid hypersecretion
- hypomagnesemia (tremors, muscle cramps, SZ, dysrhythmias)
-
PPIs have been associated with
dose-related C diff
-
Omeprazole decreases the effects of
- Plavix
- for pts with risk factors for GI bleeding, combining the drugs is OK
-
Esomeprazole is used for
prophylaxis of NSAID-induced ulcers
-
Sucralfate inidication; AE
- duodenal ulcers
- create protective barrier against acid and pepsin
- constipation
-
Misoprostol is; therapeutic use; MOA; pregnancy category
- an analog of prostaglandin E
- prevention of gastric ulcers cause by NSAIDs
- replaces endogenous prostaglandins
- Cat X
-
Pts about to start Misoprostol
- comply with birth control measures
- given oral and written warnings
- negative serum pregnancy
- start therapy 2-3 day of menstrual cycle
-
ondansetron MOA; SE (3)
- blocks 5HT (serotonin) receptors
- headache, diarrhea, dizziness
-
Most effective antiemetic caused by cisplatin and other antiCA drugs
serotonin antagonists (zofran)
-
Serious AE of ondansetron?
- QT prolongation
- caution: electrolyte abnormalities, heart failure, bradydysrhythmias
-
Dose of zofran for post op n/v
16 mg PO 1 hr before anesthesia
-
Dolasetron AE
fatal dysrhythmias when given in high doses
-
Palonosetron compared to other serotonin antagonists
- has longer half life
- effected against both acute and delayed emesis
- IV only
-
Which 2 glucocorticoids are used to suppress CINV?
- solu-medrol
- dexamethasone
- IV, short term, intermittent
-
Aprepitant (Emend) is approved for? MOA? instruction?
- preventing postop N/V and CINV
- it blocks neurokinin1-type receptors
- must be combined with other antiemetics (ie glucocorticoid, serotonin antagonist)
-
Fosapretitant (Emend) is? indication?
- prodrug convert to aprepitant in the body
- indicated only for CINV
-
Which benzo is used in combination with other antiemetics? benefits? (4)
- lorazepam
- sedation
- suppression of anticipatory emesis
- production of anterograde amnesia
- control EPS
-
Dopamine antagonist (phenothiazine) MOA; SE? (4)
- block dopamine2 receptors
- EPS
- anticholinergic effects
- hypotension
- sedation
-
Promethazine can cause
- respiratory depression
- tissue injury
-
Promethazine is CI in
children < 2 yrs
-
Which route is preferred for promethazine?
- IM
- IV route: 25mg/mL rate of 25mg/min
-
Butyrophenones drugs used for anti NV? MOA? SE?
- haloperidol; droperidol
- block dopamine2 receptors
- EPS, sedation, hypotension, QT prolongation
-
Which 2 cannbinoids are used to prevent CINV?
- dronabinol (Marinol)
- nabilone (Cesamet)
- considered 2nd line d/t potential for abuse
-
Dronabinol is also used to
increase appetite in pts with AIDS
-
Cannabinoids SE
- temportal disintegration
- dissociation
- depersonalization
- dysphoria
- CI for pts w/ psych issues
-
Dronabinol is classified as
Schedule III d/t its slow onset and no interest in streets
-
Regimens for CINV
- High risk: aprepitant + dexamethasone + ondansetron
- Moderate: dexamethasone + palonosetron
- Low: Dexamethasone
-
First-line therapy for NV in pregnancy
- doxylamine + vit B6 (pyridoxine)
- trade name: Dicletin, Diclegis
- start with 2 tabs at bedtime
-
Most effective drug for motion sickness; SE? (3)
- scopolamine
- dry mouth, blurred vision, drowsiness
-
Most effective antidiarrheal agents (5)
- opioids
- dcrease intestinal motility
- allow more time for absorption of fluid and electrolytes
-
Opioids used for diarrhea
- diphenoxylate (+atropine)
- difenoxin (+ atropine)
- loperamide
- paregoric
- opium tincture
-
Infectious diarrhea is
usually self-limiting and requires no treatment
-
tx for infectious diarrhea
- cipro or norfloxacin
- children and pregnant women: azithromycin
-
Prohyplaxis vaccine for diarrhea
Dukoral
-
nonspecific drugs for IBS include
- antispasmodics
- bulf-forming agents
- antidiarrheals
- TCAs
-
IBS-specific drugs include
- alosetron (IBS-D)
- lubiprostone (IBS-C)
- tegaserod (IBS-C)
-
Alosetron is indicated
- ONLY for women with IBS-D lasting 6 mos
- selectively blocks 5HT receptors
- improvement should be seen in 4 weeks
-
Alosetron should be discontinued when
constipation occurs and ischemic colitis
-
Tegaserod is CI
in women with known CV disease
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2 IBD are
Crohn's and ulcerative colitis
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5 drugs for IBDs are
- 5-aminosalicylates
- glucocorticoids
- immunosuppressants
- immunomodulators
- antibiotics
- these drugs are NOT curative
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Sulfasalazine is indicated for; AE?
- IBD (mild to mod) and RA
- hematologic disorders (CBC needed)
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Indications for Mesalamine, olsalazine, balasalazide
- mesalamine: mild to mod IBD
- olsalazine: maintenance therapy of ulcerative colitis
- balsalazide: mild to mod active ulcerative colitis
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immunosuppressants used for IBD and crohn's
- azathioprine & mercaptopurine
- cyclosporine
- methotrexate
- used for LONG term therapy
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Immunomodulators used for IBD and crohn's
- infliximab (remicade) TNF inhib
- certolizumab
- adalimumab (humira) TNF inhib
- natalizumab (tysabri) interfere with alpha4 integrin
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Infliximabd (remicade) AE
- infection (TB, opportunistic)
- infusion reactions
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Abx (Flagyl and Cipro) are only effective against
- Crohn's
- it is not helpful in ulcerative colitis
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Reglan has 2 actions
- suppress emesis
- increase upper GI motility
- AE: sedation, diarrhea, tardive dyskinesia
- CI: GI obstruction, perforation, hemorrhage
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Pralifermin is indicated for
- oral mucositis of pts with hematologic malignancies
- AE: rashe, erythema, edema, discoloration of tongue
- should be stopped 24 hrs before chemo and should not resume until after 24 hours
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A nurse administers which medication to inhibit an enzyme that makes gastric acid in a patient who has a duodenal ulcer?
omeprazole
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The nurse is reviewing the prescriber's orders and notes that omeprazole [Prilosec] has been ordered for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient's record?
plavix
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An 80-year-old patient with a history of renal insufficiency recently was started on cimetidine. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient may be experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
disorientation
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A nurse is planning care for a patient undergoing chemotherapy. The care plan includes medications to reduce chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV). Which regimen should the nurse recognize as effective?
aprepitant & zofran
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A nurse teaches a patient who has ulcerative colitis about the side effects of the treatment medication, sulfasalazine [Azulfidine]. Which statement by the patient would indicate understanding of the information?
report any fatigue or sore throat
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Laxatives arre contraindicated in pts with
- abd pain, nausea, cramps
- symptoms of appendecitis
- fecal impaction or obstructions of bowel d/t risk of perforation
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4 classifications of laxatives based on MOA
- bulk-forming
- surfactant
- stimulant
- osmotic
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classification of laxatives based on therapeutic effect
- Group I: within 2-6 hours; watery stool
- Group II: intermediate; 6-12 hours; semifluid
- Group III: slow 1-3 days; soft but formed
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Metamucil; methylcellulose (bulk-forming agent) should be taken
with full glass of H2) to prevent esophageal obstruction
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Colace is a ? MOA?
- surfactant laxative
- lowers surface tension; inhibit fluid absorption
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example of stimulant laxatives?
- bisacodyl: group II
- senna: group II
- castor oil: group I
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stimulant laxatives are indicated only for
- opioid induced constipation
- constipation d/t slow intestinal transit
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castor oil is indicated for rapid and thorough evacuation of bowels (prep for procedures)
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Osmotic laxative (mg salts) are CI in
pts with kidney disease
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sodium phos is a? CI?
- osmotic laxative
- HF, HTN, edema
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what are the fat-soluble vits?
A D E K
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what is the first indication of vit A deficiency?
night blindness
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Vit A deficiency can lead to
xeropthalmia and keratomalacia
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Vit A toxicity is referred to as? it can lead to?
- hypervitaminosis A
- birth defects
- liver injury
- bone-related disorders
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Vit A (retinol) therapeutic use?
vit a deficiency
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What is the UL of vit A?
3000 mcg/day
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classic effects of vit d deficiency
- rickets (children)
- osteomalacia (adults)
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Vit E helps
protect against peroxidation of lipids
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High-dose vit E increases risk of
- hemorrhagic stroke
- doses above 200 IU/day should be avoided
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Vit K is required
for synthesis of clotting factors and prothrombin
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Vit K deficiency can cause
bleeding tendencies and spontaneous hemorrhage
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In order to prevent neonatal hemorrhage,
Vit K (.5-1 mg) is given after delivery
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Ther uses for Vit K
- thrombinemia
- bleeding caused by Vit K deficiency
- control of hemorrhage causes by warfarin
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Vit C deficiency leads to
scurvy: faulty bone and tooth devt; loosening of teethc; gingivitis; poor wound healing; heamorrhage
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the UL for vit C is
2 gm/day
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niacin deficiency is called
pellagra "rough skin"
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riboflavin (B2) deficiency results in
- sore throat
- angular stomatitis
- cheilosis
- glossitis
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thiamine (b1) deficiency has two forms
- wet beriberi (primary symptom is leg edema
- dry beriberi (neuro and motor deficits)
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Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency results from
- poor diet
- isoniazid therapy
- inborn errors of metabolism
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Pyridoxine UL is
100 mg/day
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Which vit B interferes with levodopa?
B6 (pyridoxine)
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folic acid deficiency results in
- neural tube defects
- anencephaly
- spina bifida
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recommendation to ensure sufficient folate
all women capable of being pregnant should take 400-800 mcg of folic acid each day
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orlistat is used to? MOA? AE? CI? DI?
- promote and maintain weight loss
- acts in GI tract to reduce absorption of fat by inhibiting gastric and pancreatic lipase
- AE: oily rectal leakage, flatulence, fecal urgency, fatty/oily stools
- can be reduced by minimizing fat intake or taking metamucil
- CI: malabsorption syndrome or cholestasis
- should be taken 4 hrs apart of levothyroxine
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Locaserin (Belviq) is used for? MOA? AE? CI? DI?
- chronic wt loss
- suppressed appetite and creates sense of satiety
- headaches, back pain, decrease in lymphocytes, URI
- pregnancy
- serotonin syndrome w/ serotonergic drugs
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Which 2 sympathomimetic amines are uses for wt loss?
- diethylpropion
- phentermine
- only used short term (3 mos or less)
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A patient who has pellagra is taking niacin. Which outcome would be most appropriate for a nurse to establish with the patient?
smooth intact skin
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Which action should a nurse take when preparing to administer vitamin D to a patient diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism?
hold the vitamin
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Which of the following administration techniques would be appropriate when giving a sucralfate [Carafate] tablet to a patient with a duodenal ulcer?
- Administer the tablet with sips of water 1 hour before meals. Correct
- Allow the tablet to dissolve in water before administering it. Correct
- Break the tablet in half so it is easier to swallow. Correct
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The patient has an order for magnesium oxide/anhydrous citric acid/sodium picosulfate [Prepopik] to be given in 2 doses. The nurse knows that this medication is used for which indication?
Preparation before a colonoscopy
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A nurse administers palifermin to reduce oral mucositis from chemotherapy in a patient with which type of malignancy?
leukemia
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A nurse should teach a patient who takes alosetron [Lotronex] for diarrhea-prominent irritable bowel syndrome (IBS-D) to stop the medication immediately if the patient develops which condition?
constipation
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A patient who has pellagra is taking niacin. Which outcome would be most appropriate for a nurse to establish with the patient?
Smooth, intact skin in sun-exposed areas Correct
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In a patient with a thiamine deficiency, which finding would indicate the development of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
nystagmus, diplopia, ataxia
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Which statement about lorcaserin [Belviq] is correct
It is classified as a Schedule IV controlled substance. Correct
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A female patient is given a prescription for lorcaserin [Belviq]. The nurse ensures that the patient schedules an appointment with which healthcare provider?
OB GYn
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The nurse teaches the patient to monitor for which adverse effect when taking phentermine?
tachycardia, anginal pain, and hypertension
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