Gram Positive Cocci 7.5

  1. What are the two medically important genus within the family Micrococcaceae?
    • Micrococcus
    • Staphylococcus
  2. what is the species under the genus Micrococcus?
    M. luteus
  3. what are the three species under the genus staphylococcus?
    • S. aureus
    • S. epidermidis
    • S. saprophyticus
  4. what are the six biochemical tests for the family Micrococcaceae?
    • Catalase
    • O-F Glucose
    • Coagulase
    • Novobiacin
    • Mannitol Salt Agar
    • DNAse Test
  5. this enzyme catalyzes the liberation of water and oxygen from hydrogen peroxide, a metabolic end-product toxic to bacteria.
    Catalase
  6. this is the metabolic pathway used by microorganism during utilazation of a substrate, which results in an acid-by-product.
    O-F Glucose
  7. this "cluping factor" is a cell-associated substance that binds plasma fibrinogen causing agglutination.
    coagulase
  8. if coagulase is negative on the slide test it has to be confirmed on what?
    tube
  9. which coagulase test is more accurate, slide or tube?
    tube
  10. what is the dosage of novobiacin used for GPC testing?
    5 mcg
  11. novobiacin is an ___________ determination to check the microorganism's sensitivity to Novobiacin.
    antimicrobial
  12. Mannitol salt agar with 7.5% NaCl is used as a ____________ test.
    tolerance
  13. this is an enzyme that depolymerizes DNA resulting in its decomposition from macromolecule to a simpler form.
    DNAse test
  14. DNAse test is ude to ID what?
    S. aureus
  15. this is a family of gram positive cocci that is catalase positive.
    Micrococcaceae
  16. Micrococcaceae are what four shapes?
    • Clusters
    • pairs
    • chains
    • tetrads
  17. Organisms in the family micrococcaceae have a ____________ appearance.
    butyraceous
  18. organisms in the Micrococcaceae family are what kind of oxygen users?
    • aerobic
    • faculatitive anaerobic
  19. This term is applied to the Micrococcaceae family becuase all strains grow in the presence fo 5% NaCl.
    Halophilic
  20. Many organisms in the family Micrococcaceae will grow in _______ NaCl.
    10-15%
  21. this species in the micrococcaceae family is an obligate aerobe that lives in soil, dust, and water. Cells are typically arranged in tetrads and/or sarcinae.
    Micrococcus luteus
  22. M. luteus is rarely __________ except in compromised hosts.
    pathogenic
  23. what are the three conditions that M. luteus can be seen in the human body?
    • urinary tract infections
    • Endocarditis
    • Wound infections
  24. this is a slow grower in the micrococcaceae family with a bright lemon-yellow, butyraceous, and convex appearance.
    M. luteus
  25. what is this organism?
    -O-F Glucose: oxidizer
    -Catalase: +
    M. luteus
  26. this organism in the micrococcaceae family is normal flora in the skin, nasopharynx, anterior nares, and perianal area, yet is clinically significant in wound infections, boils, carbuncles, abscesses, pustules, septicemia, TSS, food poisoning and secondary invasions.
    Staphylococcus aureus
  27. what are the six extracellular enzymes found in S. aureus?
    • coagulase
    • Hyaluronidase
    • Protease
    • Lipase
    • Penicillinase
    • Protein A
  28. these four toxins found in S. aureus cause small veins to constict, post ischemic necrosis, and destroys RBCs, neutrophils, macrophages, plt.
    Alpha, beta, gamma, and delta toxin
  29. what is the toxin found in S. aureus that kills leukocytes?
    leukocidin
  30. this is the toxin that cuases toxic shock syndrom which is found in S. aureus.
    TSST 1
  31. this toxins in S. aureus are specific for intestinal cells.
    enterotoxins
  32. this toxins in S. aureus are responsible for skin sloughing and scaly skin.
    exfoliatin
  33. the colonial morphology for this Micrococcaceae organism on a BAP is:
    -white or golden yellow
    -1-3mm diameter
    -non-hemolytic, or B/hemolytic
    -circular, entire, convex
    -butyraceous
    S. Aureus
  34. what is this organism?
    Coagulate: +
    Novobiacin: -
    Mannitol fermentation: + (usually)
    DNase: + (usually)
    S. aureus
  35. this organism in the micrococcaceae family is normal flora on the skin and mucous membrane, but clinically significant in wound infections, UTIs, SBE, artificial shunts and valve infections, and nosocomial bacteremia.
    Staphylococcus epidermidis
  36. this organism in the Micrococcaceae family is occasionally beta hemolytic, with a yellow or white appearance on a BAP, otherwise very similar to S. aureus.
    S. epidermidis
  37. what is this organism?
    -Coagulase: =
    -novobiacin (5mcg): S
    -Mannitol fermentation: =
    -DNase: =
    S. epidermidis
  38. this organism in the Micrococcaceae family is normal flora on the skin and GU tract, but clinically significant in UTIs in young sexually active females.
    Staphylococcus saprophyticus
  39. which organism has a similar colonial morphology on a BAP to S. epidermidis?
    S. saprophyticus
  40. what is this organism?
    -Coagulase: =
    -Novobiacin (5mcg): R
    -Mannitol: + (usually)
    -DNase: =
    O-F glucose: oxidizer
    S. saprophyticus
  41. what is the reagent used in the catalase slide test?
    3% hydrogen peroxide
  42. when performing a catalase slide test how many drops of 3% H2O2 should be used for one colony?
    one drop
  43. on the catalase slide test, rapid furious and sustained bubbling indicates what reaction?
    Positive
  44. on the catalase slide test, no bubbling indicates what reaction?
    negative
  45. what two things could cause a false positve reaction on the catalase slide test?
    • iron-containing loops
    • picked up erythrocytes from BAP
  46. what are the control organisms for Catalase test?
    • (+) Staphylococcus aureus
    • (=) Streptococcus pyogenes
  47. what is the media used for O-F glucose test?
    two O-F glucose tubes
  48. how many times are the O-F glucose tubes stabbed with bacteria?
    5 times
  49. how much mineral oil should be used to cover the closed O-F glucose tube?
    2ml
  50. what temperature should O-F glucose tubes be incubated at?
    35oC
  51. in the O-F glucose test, yellow color on top portion of exposed tube indicates what reaction?
    oxidizer
  52. in the O-F glucose test, yellow color on both tubes indicates what reaction?
    fermenter
  53. in the O-F glucose test, no color change indicates what reaction?
    non-utilizer
  54. what are the QC organisms for O-F glucose and their results?
    • Fermentative: E. coli
    • Oxidative: A. anitratus
    • Negative: A. lwoffi
  55. what is the reagent for the coagulase test?
    Rabbit or Human plasma (EDTA)
  56. why is rabbit plasma preferred in the coagulase test?
    it clots more rapidly
  57. what is the principle for the coagulase test?
    prothrombin-like activity
  58. what are the two forms in the coagulase test?
    • bound coagulase (clumping factor)
    • free coagulase
  59. this occurs in a coagulase test when they are suspended in plasma on a slide test, (bound to the bacterial cell wall and reacts directly with fibrinogen.
    bound coagulase
  60. this is when coagulase is released by bacterial cells into culture filtrates in tube test, similar to that when thrombin is added.
    free coagulase
  61. free coagulase is secreted ____________.
    extra-cellularly
  62. free coagulase is released by bacterial cells into culture filtrates in _____ test.
    tube
  63. the coagulase slide test is also known as what?
    • bound coagulase
    • clumping factor
  64. in the coagulase slide test, granulasr precipitate indicates what reaction?
    positive
  65. in the coagulase slide test, absence of clumping indicates what result?
    negative
  66. int he coagulase tube test complete or partial clot indicates what?
    positve
  67. in the coagulase tube test, absence of clot or gel indicates what result?
    negative
  68. strong coagulase positive organisms may produce a clot in __ to ___ hours?
    1-4
  69. delayed positive many occur only after ___ hours in coagulase test.
    18
  70. in coagulase this may dissolve the clot soon after it is formed.
    fibrinolysin
  71. clumped colonies can cause a false _________ in slide test coagulase.
    positives
  72. what are the controls for coagulase test?
    • (+) Staphylococcus aureus
    • (=) Staphylococcus epidermidis
  73. tube coagulase tests should be incubated at 35oC for how long?
    four hours
  74. what are the intervals for checking a tube coagulase test?
    • 30 min
    • 1 hr
    • 2 hr
    • 3 hr
    • 4 hr
  75. what two medias can a novobiocin disk test be performed on?
    • BAP
    • MH
  76. what is the method used for disk tests?
    disk diffusion method
  77. what are the quality controls for novobiocin tests?
    • resistant: S. saprophyticus
    • Susceptible: other staph spp.
  78. what is considered a resistant result for novobiocin?
    <12mm
  79. what result is considered susceptible for novobiocin?
    > 12mm
  80. what is the pH indicator on the Mannitol salt agar?
    phenol red
  81. this determines microorganism's ability to ferment mannitol.
    mannitol salt agar test
  82. on an MSA, good growth of _______ colonieks indicates that organism ferment mannitol
    yellow
  83. what are the quality control organisms for mannitol salt agar?
    • S. aureus/saprophyticus
    • S. epidermidis
  84. what is another name for microdase test?
    modified oxidase
  85. the microdase test is used to confirm what organism?
    M. luteus
  86. the microdase test should be incubated at room temp for how long?
    2 minutes
  87. pruple to dark blue color on a microdase test indicates what reaction?
    positive
  88. yellow to colorless on a microdase test indicates what result?
    negative
  89. what are the QC organisms for the microdase test?
    • Positive: M. luteus
    • Negative: S. epidermidis
  90. what are the five organisms in the family streptococcaceae?
    • S. pyogenes
    • S. agalactiae
    • S. pneumoniae
    • S. viridans
    • E. faecalis
  91. This organism is also known as Beta strep grp. A.
    S. pyogenes
  92. this organism is also known as beta or gamma strep grp. B.
    S. agalactiae
  93. this organism is also known as grp D or non enterococus.
    E. faecalis
  94. what are the eight biochemical test used on the family streptococcaceae?
    • PYR
    • Bacitracin (A)
    • Optochin (P)
    • CAMP
    • Hippurate hydrolysis
    • Bile solubility
    • Esculin hydrolysis
    • Salt tolerance test
  95. this test is used to seperates S. pyogenes (+) and enterococcus (+) from other strep.
    PYR
  96. this test is also called the A disk.
    bacitracin
  97. this test is used to ID S. pneumoniae.
    optochin
  98. this test is also called the P disk
    optochin
  99. these two tests are used to ID S. agalactiae.
    • CAMP
    • Hippurate hydrolysis
  100. this test is used on alpha hemolytic streps.
    bile solubility
  101. this test is used in the ID or group D strep.
    esculin hydrolysis
  102. this test is used to ID the subgroup of group D.
    salt tolerance test
  103. what is the genus for streptococcaceae?
    streptococcus
  104. what fastidious family of GPC requires blood based media and lactic acid from carbs
    streptococcaceae
  105. this family of GPC forms chains in liquid media.
    streptococcaceae
  106. streptococcaceae family is catalase ________, facultative anaerobics.
    negative
  107. the primary infections of this organism include:
    scarlet fever
    erysipelas
    septicemia/bacteremia
    meningitis
    streptococcus pyogenes
  108. This determinant of pathogenicity in S. pyogense is involved in attachemnt.
    Protein F
  109. this determinant of pahtogenicity in S. pyogenes is anti-phagocytic.
    protein M
  110. this determinant of pahtogenicity in S. pyogenes is invovled in fibrinolysis.
    streptokinase
  111. this determinant of pahtogenicity in S. pyogenes is oxygen labile, heat stable.
    streptolysin-O
  112. this determinant of pahtogenicity in S. pyogenes is oxygen stable, heat labile.
    steptolysin-S
  113. S. pyogenes may have autoAb that attack ________ tissue.
    heart
  114. S. pyogenes may have an Ab-Ag complex that builds up in the ________.
    kidneys
  115. S. pyogenes are pinpoint, circular, convex, and translucent organisms that are ______ hemolytic.
    beta
  116. what is this organism.
    -Catalase: =
    -Beta hemolytic
    -PYR: (+)
    -Bacitracin: (s)
    -Hipp hydro: =
    -CAMP (varibale)
    S. pyogenes
  117. This strep is normal flora in the upeer respiratory tract, lower GI, and female GU tract, but clinically significant in wound infections, neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and puerperal sepsis.
    Streptococcus agalactiae
  118. this GPC is similar to S. pyogenes but has a smaller zone of hemolysis and some strains are gamma.
    S. agalactiae
  119. What is this organism?
    -Catalase: =
    -Beta or gamma hemolytic
    -Bacitracin: R
    -Hipp hydro: +
    -CAMP: +
    S. agalactiae
  120. what groups of strep are considered other/misc. step?
    C, F, & G beta hemolytic
  121. what group C strep clinically significant for?
    acute pharyngitis
  122. what is group G strep clinically significant for?
    malignancies
  123. these are three strep groups which are very similar, grayish white, glistening, with variable hemolysis.
    Grp C, F, & G beta hemolytic
  124. ID of these strep groups is unimportant but must be differentiated from grp A by PYR.
    group C, F, & G beta hemolytic
  125. this strep was formerly genus diplococcus.
    S. pneumoniae
  126. this is the major cause of bacterial pneumonia.
    S. pneumoniae
  127. what are two synonyms for S. pneumoniae?
    • pneumococcus
    • Diplococcus
  128. What is the most common clinical significance for S. pneumoniae?
    Meningitis
  129. S. pneumoniae has a ______ which enhances virulence.
    capsule
  130. This frequently encapsulated GPC is lancet shaped and stimulated by CO2.
    S. pneumoniae
  131. what is the colonial morphology for encapsulated S. pneumoniae on a BAP?
    • small
    • mucoid
    • alpha hemolytic
    • oil/water droplets
  132. what is the colonial morphology for NON-encapsulated S. pneumoniae on a BAP?
    • small
    • glistening
    • alpha hemolytic
    • convex (young)
    • umbonate (old)
  133. how can young and old S. pneumoniae be deferentiated on a BAP?
    • young-convex
    • old-umbonate
  134. what is this organism?
    Catalase:=
    alpha hemolytic
    optochin (P): S
    bile solubility: +
    S. pneumoniae
  135. this group of strep is not usually speciated and is clinically significant in subacute bacterial endocarditis.
    Viridans group
  136. this alpha or gamma hemolytic GPC in chains is usually has a pinpoint, smooth or matte appearance on a BAP.
    viridans strep
  137. What is this organism?
    Catalase: =
    optochin: R
    bile: =
    growth on 6.5% NaCl: =
    hippurate hydrolysis: =
    Viridans group
  138. this organism is normal fora of birds, animals, and humans, it can be found on large bowel and female GU tract. it is clinically significant in peritonitis.
    enterococcus
  139. this organism is small less opaque and can be glossy-white. may produce beta, alpha, or gamma hemolysis on a BAP.
    enterococcus
  140. what is this organism?
    Catalase: =
    Bacitracin: R
    Hipp Hydro: =
    CAMP: =
    optichin: R
    Bile: =
    BEM: +
    6.5% NaCl: +
    Enterococcus
  141. this classification scheme is based on temperature group growth characterisitics.
    academic
  142. this classification scheme is based on hemolytic reactions on BAP.
    brown's
  143. lancefield's classification scheme was pioneered by who?
    Rebecca Lancefield
  144. this classification scheme is based on cell surface carbohydrate Ag.
    Lancefield's
  145. how many serogroups are included in the lacefield classification scheme?
    18
  146. what are the sero groups in the lacefield classification scheme?
    • A to H
    • K to T
  147. what are the clinically important sero groups in lacefield's classification scheme?
    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    • F
    • G
  148. true or false
    S. pneumoniae and many Viridans strep are not classified under lancefield.
    true
  149. this test if used in the ID of S. pyogenes and E. faecalis that produces L-pyrroglutamyl-aminopeptidase
    PYR
  150. PYR should be incubated at room temp for __ minutes before adding ___ drop of reagent.
    • 2 minutes
    • 1 drop
  151. a red color within five minutes on a PYR indicates what result?
    positive
  152. orange or no red color on a PYR indicates what result?
    negative
  153. what are the QC organisms for PYR?
    • Positive: S. pyogenes or E. faecalis
    • Negative: S. agalactiae or E. mitis
  154. the bacitracin (A or B disk) is used to identify which group of strep which is inhibited by a low concentration of bacitracin.
    Grp A beta-strep
  155. what amount of bacitracin is used in the A or B disk?
    0.04 unit
  156. in which disk test will any size zone of inhibition indicate suseptibility?
    Bacitracin (A or B disk)
  157. what are the QC organisms for Bacitracin (A or B disk).
    • Positive: S. pyogenes
    • Negative: S. agalactiae
  158. the principle of the hippurate hydrolysis test is to ID organisms which produce the enzyme __________.
    hippuricase
  159. hippuricase can hydrolyze hippuric acid producing what two substances?
    • sdium benzoate
    • glycine
  160. what is the substrate used in hippurate hydrolysis?
    sodium hippurate
  161. in what test do you inoculate 0.4 ml of 1% sodium hippurate reagent with 3-5 colonies of suspect organism. incubate for 2 hours at 35oC, then add 0.2 ml ninhydrin reagent and mix well?
    hippurate hydrolysis
  162. a deep purple color within 10 minutes on a hippurate hydrolysis test indicates what reaction?
    positive
  163. no color change on a hippurate hydrolysis test indicates what reaction?
    negative
  164. hippurate hydrolysis can be used as a standard test for what?
    sodium benzoate
  165. in order to test for sodium benzoate using hippurate hydrolysis, how long should the tue be incubated for before centrifugation?
    20-24 hours
  166. after centrifuging a hippurate hydrolysis to test for sodium benzoate, 0.2 ml of what reagent is used to interpret results?
    ferric chloride
  167. on the sodium benzoate hippurate hydrolysis test, what reaction does precipitate persiting indicate?
    positve
  168. if the solution is clear on a hippurate hydrolysis test for sodium benzoate, what result is indicated?
    negative
  169. what are the QC organisms for hippurate hydrolysis?
    • positive: S. agalactiae
    • negative: E. faecalis
  170. what is the reference test for hippurate hydrolysis?
    benzoate
  171. hippurate hydrolysis takes greater than ___ hours to perform
    20
  172. the hemolysis accentuating factor is also called what?
    CAMP factor
  173. the hemolytic activity of staphylococcal beta-lysin on RBCs is enhanced by an extracellular factor produced by some beta-hemolytic streptococci is the principle of what test?
    CAMP
  174. in CAMP, perform a single steak of strep. isolate perpendicular to a beta-lysin producing strain of _________.
    S. aureus
  175. an arrow-head hemolysis at the junction of the two streaklines in CAMP indicates what reaction?
    positive
  176. abesence of arrow-head hemolysis on a CAMP test indicates what reaction?
    negative
  177. what are the QC organisms for CAMP?
    • Positive: S. agalactiae
    • Negative: E. faecalis
  178. 80% of what organism are CAMP (+)?
    S. agalactiae
  179. the principle of the optochin disk test is to presumptively identify what organism which is inhibited by a low concentration of optochin.
    S. pneumoniae
  180. what concentration of optochin is used in the optochin disk test?
    5 mcg
  181. ethylhydroxycupreine hydrochloride is also know as what?
    optochin
  182. what are the two optochin disks?
    • P disk
    • O disk
  183. what are is the size of the optochin P disk?
    6mm
  184. what is the size of the optochin O disk?
    10mm
  185. optochin should be incubated at 35oC for 18-24 hours with what special reqiurement?
    candle jar or CO2
  186. what size zone of inhibition indicates susceptibility on a 6mm P disk?
    >14 mm diameter
  187. what size zone of inhibition indicates suseptibility on a 10 mm O disk?
    >16mm diameter
  188. what are the QC organisms for optochin?
    • positive: S. pneumoniae
    • negative: E. faecalis
  189. the principle of the bile solubility test is to presumptively ID ___________ the cell of which are selectively lysed with a bile salt reagent.
    S. pneumoniae
  190. what is the reagent for the bile solubility test?
    10% bile salts solution (sodium deoxycholate)
  191. Bile solubilty should be incubated on a BAP at 35oC for how long?
    30 min
  192. if the colony disappears in the bile solubility test what is the reaction?
    positive
  193. if the colony remains intact on a bile solubility test what is the reaction?
    negative
  194. what are the QC organisms for bile solubility?
    • Positive: S. pneumoniae
    • Negative: S. viridans
  195. Esculin hydrolysis is also known as what test?
    BEM
  196. to identify microorganism capable of growing in bile is the principle of what test?
    Esculin hydrolysis (BEM)
  197. the ability of an organism to hydrolyze esculin to glucose and esculetin with iron salt to for a ___________ complex, is the principle of esculin hydrolysis
    brown-black
  198. what does BEM stand for?
    bile esculin medium
  199. what is the color indicator in BEM?
    ferric citrate
  200. the blackening of more than half the slant in a esculin hydrolysis test indicates what reaction?
    positive
  201. no blackening or blackening of less than half the slant indiates what result in esculin hydrolysis?
    negative
  202. what are the QC organisms for esculin hydrolysis?
    • positive: group D enterococcus
    • negative: steptococcus or non-group D enterococcus
  203. the principle of the test is to demonstrate bacterial grown tolerance to relatively high concentration of NaCl. It is used in differentiating group D enterococci and group D non-enterococci.
    Salt tolerance test
  204. what is the medium used in the salt tolerance test?
    6.5% sodium chloride broth
  205. turbidity w/without color indicates what reaction on a salt tolerance test?
    positive
  206. if the medium remains clear on a salt tolerance test, what is the reaction?
    negative
  207. what are the QC organisms used on the salt tolerance test?
    • Positive: group D enterococcus
    • Negative: group D non-enterococcus
  208. the principle of this test is to detect S. pyogenes by Ag extraction. for use on direct specimen or pure culture.
    rapid strep testing (grp. A)
  209. what are the QC orgnaisms for rapid strep testing (grp. A)?
    • positive: S. pyogenes
    • negative: S. mitis
  210. when diffrentiateing micrococcaceae organisms on a gram stain, staphylococci appear in grape like _______ while micrococci appear in ______.
    • staph: clusters
    • micrococci: tetrad
  211. stapylococci and streptococcaceae grow rapidly in ___ hours while micrococci may take up to ___ hours to grow.
    • 24
    • 48
Author
corbin19
ID
30896
Card Set
Gram Positive Cocci 7.5
Description
Gram Positive Cocci Microbiology 7.5
Updated