1. Medial/lateral
    Closer to the median plane, further from
  2. Cranial, caudal, ventral
    Toward the head, tail, ground
  3. What head term corresponds to 'cranial' in the rest of the body?
  4. Dorsal
    Away from the ground, surface below the proximal carpus and tarsus toward the head
  5. Top of carpus/tarsus directed toward tail or ground
  6. Proximal, distal
    Part closer to a point of attachment, farther from
  7. Peripheral
    A part distal from its point of origin or near the surface
  8. Axial, abaxial
    Closer to/farther from the longitudinal axis of the limb
  9. Where is the axis of the limb in relation to the digits?
    Between 3rd and 4th digits
  10. External, superficial
    Closer to/further from the outer surface of a structure
  11. Sagittal, median plane
    Unequal left and right parts/ equal parts
  12. Transverse plane
    Divides the body into cranial and caudal parts or cuts a limb at right angle to its long axis
  13. What are sections?
    Cuts thru the planes of the body-sagittal, transverse
  14. Human terms
    Anterior/posterior, superior/inferior
  15. The skeleton can be divided into
    Axial, appendicular, and visceral portions
  16. 3 parts of the axial skeleton
    Skull, vertebral column, thorax
  17. Vertebral column consists of
    Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and caudal
  18. What connects the thoracic girdle to the axial skeleton?
    Muscle attachments (synsarcosis)
  19. Thoracic limb regions
    Shoulder:scapula, brachium:humerus, antebrachium:ulna and radius, carpus:carpal bones, manus:metacarpal, phalangeal and sesamoid bones, digits:proximal, middle, distal phalanges and sesamoid bones
  20. Pelvic limb regions
    Pelvic girdle:hip bones, sacrum and first few caudalvvertebrae, thigh:femur, stifle:femur and tibia and fibula, crus:tibia and fibula, hock:tarsal bones, pes:tarsal, metatarsal, phalangeal and sesamoid bones, digits
  21. Parts of the long bone
    Epiphyses and diaphysis
  22. What joins the diaphysis to the mature bone
  23. Name the fibrous covering of bone not covered by articular cartilage
  24. What are the bones surrounding the medullary cavity?
    Compact or cancellous bone
  25. 2 possible methods of osteogenesis
    Intramembranous (flat bones) and endochondral (long bones)
  26. In endochondral ossification, where are the centers of ossification located?
    Diaphysis and epiphyses
  27. Lengthening of long bones occurs in what area?
    Outer growth plate (epiphyseal seal of plate)
  28. 2 different types of growth plates
    Traction (olecranon, calcaneus), compression (most of the rest)
  29. What is the palpable caudal end of the skull used as a landmark?
    External occipital protuberance
  30. What are the palpable lateral processes just caudal to the skull?
    Wings of the atlas
  31. What part of the hyoid apparatus crosses the ventral midline seen in lateral radiographs of the head?
    Basihyoid bone
  32. What are the enlarged transverse processes that are IDed in radiographs of the cervical region?
    Sled of 6th cervical vertebrae
  33. What is usually the 11th thoracic vertebrae with the most vertically oriented spine used as a landmark for back radiographs?
    Anticlinical vertebrae
  34. What is the dorsal gap between the arches of contiguous vertebral arches used as access points to the vertebral canal for epidurals?
    Interarcuate spaces
  35. What projects laterally from the scapula and is palpable?
    Spine of the scapula
  36. What is the distal end of the spine of the scapula?
  37. What is the ventral part of the acromion in the cat?
    Suprahamate process
  38. What is the origin of the biceps brachii m. on the scapula that can be fractured?
    Supraglenoid tubercle
  39. What is the palpable cranial most part of the shoulder region of the thoracic limb?
    Greater tubercle or point of shoulder
  40. What is the canal in the medial epicondyle of the cat humerus that carries the median n. and brachial vessels?
    Supracondylar canal (foramen)
  41. What is the bony landmark located in the 5th intercostal space in the standing animal?
    Olecranon, point of the elbow
  42. What is the proximal end of the notch (trochlear) of the ulna?
    Anconeal process
  43. What is the distal end of the notch (trochlear) of the ulna?
    Medial coronoid process
  44. What small sesamoid bone may be located on the medial side of the carpus?
    Sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor (abductor pollicus longus) tendon
  45. What is a landmark on the medial side of the manus and pes?
  46. What bony process holds the horny claw?
    Ungual crest
  47. What is the palpable part of the hip bone caudal to the flank?
    Tuber coxae, point of the hip
  48. What is the palpable caudal end of hip bone?
    Ischial tuber, ischiatic tuberosity, pin bone
  49. What is the palpable lateral structure of the proximal femur?
    Greater trochanter
  50. What is the palpable proximal end of the tibia?
    Tibial tuberosity
  51. What is the distal end of the fibula?
    Lateral malleolus
  52. What is the small sesamoid bone that may be found on the lateral side if the stifle?
    Sesamoid in the tendon of the origin of the popliteal muscle
  53. Structural classification groups joints according to their
    Uniting medium
  54. What are 3 types of uniting medium of joints in the structural classification?
    Fibrous, cartilagenous, or synovial
  55. A suture is what type of structural joint? Functional?
    Fibrous, immovable
  56. Is a gomphosis (implantation of teeth in the jaw) a true joint?
    No because teeth arent part of the skeleton
  57. Where are symphyseal joints found?
    Generally on midline of body
  58. What type of joint occurs between the bodies of most vertebrae?
    Symphyseal - intervertebral disc
  59. Define ginglymus or hinge
    Flexion and extension (elbow and most joints of the limb)
  60. Define plane joint
    Gliding or sliding (carpal bones)
  61. Ball and socket/spheroidal
    Universal movement (shoulder and hip)
  62. Define Pivot joint
    Rotation around a longitudinal axis (atlantoaxial joint)
  63. Define condylar joint
    Flexion and extension/rotation (stifle)
  64. Most of the joints of the thoracic and pelvic limb have what type of ligaments? Which joints don't?
    Collateral ligaments; shoulder and hip
  65. 5 things that characterize a synovial joint
    Mobility, articular cartilage, joint capsule, synovial fluid, joint cavity
  66. What covers the articular ends of bones?
    Articular cartilage, usually hyaline cartilage
  67. What is the nerve and vascular supply in articular cartilage?
    Doesnt have any
  68. How does articular cartilage receive nutrition and remove waste?
    Synovial fluid, as it has no blood supply
  69. Where are bursae located?
    Between skin and bones, tendons and bones, muscle and bones, ligaments and bones
  70. Function of the bursa
    Reduce friction between structures
  71. What structure is completely wrapped around a tendon?
    Synovial sheath
  72. Where are synovial sheaths commonly found?
    Carpus, tarsus, digits
  73. Function of synovial sheath
    Reduces friction on a tendon as it crosses a number of joints
  74. What is the configuration of the shoulder joint?
    Ball and socket, spheroidal
  75. Joints of the manus
    Carpus: antebrachiocarpal (radius, ulna, carpal bones), middle carpal (proximal, distal carpal rows), carpometacarpal (distal carpal and metacarpal bones), metacarpophalangeal joint (metacarpal bone, proximal phalanx), proximal interdigital (proximal, middle phalanges), distal interdigital (middle, distsl phalanges)
  76. With what do the proximal ends of the ribs articulate? Distal ends?
    Thoracic vertrebrae; sternum
  77. Name the fibrocartilages between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae
    Intervertebral discs
  78. What elastic connective tissue structure attaches the 1st thoracic spine to the spine of the axis (C2) in the dog? In the cat?
    Nuchal ligament, there aint one
  79. What elastic tissue fills the dorsal space (interarcuate space) between the arches of adjacent vertebrae?
    Ligamentum flavum, interarcuate, or yellow ligament
  80. What connects the heads of a pair of opposite ribs, crossing the dorsal part of the interverterbral discs?
    Intercapital ligament
  81. What is the relatively immovable joint between the sacrum and ilium?
    Sacroiliac joint
  82. Ball and socket joint of the pelvic limb
    Hip joint, coxofemoral, or coxal joint
  83. What are the fibrocartilagenous discs between the condyles of the femur and tibia?
    Medial and lateral menisci
  84. How are the cruciate ligaments that attach the femur and tibia named?
    For their attachment to the tibia
  85. 4 main joints of the hock/tarsus
    Tibiotarsal, tarsocrural or talocrural joint; proximal intertarsal joint; distal intertsrsal joint; tarsometatarsal joint
  86. Types of muscle
    Striated - voluntary, cardiac and smooth - involuntary
  87. What are the 2 attachments of skeletal muscles?
    Origin (proximal or least movable) and insertion (distal or more movable)
  88. What are the flat attachments of flat muscles?
  89. Difference between tendon and ligament
    • Tendon - muscle to bone
    • Ligament - bone to bone
  90. What do muscles' actions depend upon?
    How they crossed a joint, number of joints crossed, shape of the joint
  91. Define extrinsic and intrinsic muscles
    • Extrinsic - attach a structure to the body
    • Intrinsic - both attachments in the structure (thoracic limb, eye, larynx)
  92. What nerves innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles?
    Suprascapular nerve
  93. What nerve innervates almost all the extensors of the thoracic limb?
    Radial nerve
  94. What are the 2 groups of forearm muscles? Location?
    • Extensor of digits and carpus (craniolateral)
    • Flexors of the digits and carpus (caudal)
  95. What is the insertion of the deep digital flexor and the superficial digital flexor muscles?
    • DDF - distal phalanges
    • SDF - proximal to the DDF insertion
  96. What is the rectus sheath?
    Aponeuroses of the abdominal mm. around the rectus abdominis muscle
  97. What muscles cover the trachea ventrally?
    Strap muscles: sternohyoideus and sternothyroideus muscles
  98. What muscles are above and below the transverse processes of the vertebrae?
    • Epaxial muscle (above), hypaxial (below)
    • eg. longus colli m. in neck
  99. What are the extensors of the stifle and what innervates them?
    Cranial thigh (quadriceps) muscle, femoral nerve
  100. What is the action and innervation of the medial thigh muscles?
    Adduction, obturator nerve
  101. What are actions of the crural muscles?
    Craniolateral: extensors of digits and flexor of the tarsus
  102. What is the innervation of the extensor muscles of the crus?
    Craniolateral extensors: common fibular nerve
  103. What nerve innervates the thin muscles of facial expression?
    Facial nerve (CrN 7)
  104. What is the muscle of facial expression that encircles the eye? What innervates it?
    Trigeminal nerve (CrN 5, all 3 divisions) motor to mastication muscles, mandibular division
  105. What is the motor innervation to the muscles of the tongue?
    Hypoglossal n. (cranial n. 12)
  106. What is the function of the cutaneous muscles?
    Twitch skin (shoo flies away)
  107. How is the nervous system divided functionally?
    Somatic and autonomic nervous systems
  108. How is the nervous system divided structurally?
    CNS and PNS
  109. Which functional division of the NS keeps the body in balance with it's external and internal environment?
    • External: somatic
    • Internal: autonomic (ANS)
  110. What are the 2 parts of the CNS?
    Brain and spinal cord
  111. What are the parts of the PNS?
    Cranial and spinal nerves and ganglia
  112. What are the 2 impulses of the NS, both somatic and autonomic?
    Sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent)
  113. What nervous structured pass from the spinal cord to the periphery?
    Spinal nerves (LMN)
  114. Where do the spinal nerves leave the vertebral column?
    Intervertebral foramen
  115. What arises from the spinal cord to form a spinal nerve?
    Dorsal (sensory) and ventral (motor) roots
  116. What are the 2 main branches of spinal nerves?
    Dorsal and ventral branches (mixed: motor and sensory fibers)
  117. What areas do the ventral and dorsal motor branches of the spinal nerves supply motor innervation?
    • Ventral: muscles ventral to the transverse process of the vertebrae
    • Dorsal: muscles dorsal to the transverse processes, sensory innervation not exactly the same
  118. What spinal nerve branches supply sensation from the skin of the abdominal wall and back?
    • Dorsal: back (above the transverse processes) and upper flank (area just below transverse processes)
    • Ventral: rest
  119. Components of a reflex arc
    1) stimulus, receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector organ: the muscle innervated by a motor neuron
  120. What are aggregations of nerve cell bodies in the CNS? PNS?
    • CNS: nucleus
    • PNS: ganglion
  121. What is gray matter?
    Part of nervous tissue consisting of the neuronal cell bodies
  122. What is white matter?
    Part of nervous tissue consisting mainly of myelinated nerve fibers/axons
  123. What is a nerve?
    Bundle of nerve processes outside the CNS
  124. What are nerve tracts or fasciculi?
    Nerve fiber bundles of common origin in the brain and spinal cord
  125. What forms the nerve plexuses that are clinically significant?
    Interlacing ventral branches of the spinal nerves
  126. What important nerve arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses and supplies the diaphragm?
    Phrenic nerve
  127. What plexus supplies the abdominal wall, pelvic limb, external genetalia, rump, and perineum?
    Lumbosacral plexus
  128. What plexus supplies some of the extrinsic and all of the intrinsic muscles of the thoracic limb?
  129. What is a dermatome?
    Area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve
  130. What 2 muscles does the suprascapular nerve innervate?
    Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
  131. Where does the radial nerve first reach the skin?
    Lateral arm, under the border of the lateral triceps (susceptible to injury)
  132. What innervates the cutaneous trunci muscle?
    Lateral thoracic nerve
  133. What nerve innervates the flexor of the elbow and is necessary for weight bearing?
    Radial nerve
  134. What nerve supplies the extensors of the elbow, carpus, and digits?
    Radial nerve (extensor nerve)
  135. What is the cutaneous innervation of the paw by the ulnar nerve?
    Abaxial 5th (lateral) digit
  136. What is the large nerve crossing the heart to the diaphragm?
    Phrenic nerve
  137. What is a branch of the vagus nerve that returns to the neck?
    Recurrent laryngeal nerve
  138. What does the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervate?
    Most laryngeal skeletal muscles
  139. Which muscle is clinically important in horses/dogs with roarers?
    Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m.
  140. What nerves supply the intercostal muscles and a lot of the thoracic wall?
    Intercostal nn. (ventral branches of the thoracic nn.)
  141. What do the ventral and dorsal branches of spinal nn. T13, L1, L2, and L3 supply?
    • Ventral: motor to abd. muscles and skin of ventral abdomen
    • Dorsal: motor and sensory to area above transverse process of the vertebrae, also sensory to the skin on the dorsal flank (paralumbar fossa)
  142. What nerve supplies motor innervation to the adductors of the thigh?
    Obturator nerve
  143. What nerve innervates the extensors of the pelvic limb?
    Common fibular (peroneal) nerve; dorsal pes
  144. What is the cutaneous branch of the femoral nerve?
    Saphenous nerve to the medial limb
  145. What nerve is required to bear weight on the pelvic limb?
    Femoral nerve (L 4-6), extends the stifle
  146. What nerd supplies the anus and the external anal sphincter?
    Caudal rectal nerve
  147. What is a spinal cord segment?
    Portion demarcated by the pair of spinal mm. that arise from it
  148. 5 divisions of the spinal cord
    Cervical, thoracic, limbar, sacral, caudal
  149. 5 functional divisions of the spinal cord
    Cervical (C 1-5), brachial (C 6-T 2), thoracolumbar (T3 - L3), pelvic limb (L4-S1), sacral and caudal (S2-Cn)
  150. What is the central 'H'-shaped mass of a spinal cord cross section?
    Gray matter (cell bodies give color)
  151. Of what does white matter of the spinal cord consist?
    Myelinated axons running up and down the spinal cord
  152. What are ascending and descending tracks of the spinal cord and what do they carry?
    • Ascending: myelinated afferent axons, sensory info
    • Descending: myelinated efferent axons of UMN, motor fibers
  153. Where does the spinal cord in the dog? Cat?
    • Dog: above the body of vertebrae L6-7
    • Cat: above the sacrum
  154. Where are UMN located?
    In the CNS, descending to synapse on LMN
  155. Where are LMN located?
    Extending away from spinal cord, and brain to muscles or glands
  156. Are spinal nerves LMN or UMN?
  157. What does the efferent neuron (LMN) of a reflex arc connect?
    Spinal cord with muscles or glands
  158. The LMN can be
    Spontaneously active
  159. What is the function of most UMN?
    Inhibit spontaneous activity of LMN until an action is desired
  160. What is the function of propioceptive fibers?
    Sense position of body parts to each other and to the environment
  161. Over what structures do propioceptive fibers travel? Where is the lesion if propioceptive is lost?
    • Peripheral nn., spinal cord, brain stem to cerebellum, cerebrum
    • -any of the above structures; it doesnt localize the lesion but is a sensitive indication that there is a neuro problem
  162. What structures carry superficial and deep pain sensory fibers?
    Peripheral nerve, spinal cord, brain stem, cerebrum
  163. How can knowing the spinal segments innervating myotomes and dermatomes be used clinically?
    Used to localize lesions
  164. What are the meninges?
    3 connective tissue coverings that encircle the spinal cord and brain
  165. List spaces associated with the meninges
    • Epidural space (between the vertebrae and dura meter)
    • Subarachnoid space: between the pia and the arachnoid, it contains CSF
  166. List and describe the meninges
    • Dura meter: outer tough meninx
    • Arachnoid: middle meninx pushed against the inside of dura meter
    • Pia meter: innermost meninx, closely investing the spinal cord and brain
  167. Describe the 2 expansions of the subarachnoid space used clinically
    • Cisterna magna: located between the caudal surface of the cerebellum and the dorsal surface of the medulla, just inside the foramen magnum
    • Lumbar cistern: surrounding the lumbar enlargement of spinal cord
  168. How is the brain divided functionally?
    Cerebrum/diencephalon (forebrain), brain stem, vestibular system, cerebellum
  169. What makes up the forebrain and what is it's function?
    Cerebrum and diencephalon (higher functions and controls ANS and endocrine systems)
  170. What is responsible for consciousness and arousal? Located?
    Reticular activation system, brainstem
  171. 3 clinically significant parts of the brainstem
    Cranial nn. 3-12, vital centers and reticular activation system
  172. Name the 3 vital reflex centers in the brainstem
    Cardiac, vasomotor, respirstory
  173. Function of cerebellum
    Coordinate movements, maintain equilibrium and maintain posture
  174. Function of vestibular system
    Controls posture and balance
  175. For lesion localization how can the vestibular system be divided?
    • Peripheral vestibular part (inner ear)
    • Central vestibular portion (braon stem) and centers centers in the cerebellum
  176. What does contralateral and ipsilateral mean?
    Opposite side; same side
  177. Name the cranial nerves
    Olfactory, optic, oculomotor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, vestibulocochlear, glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, hypoglossal
  178. What cranial nerve is entirely sensory, dealing with vision?
    Optic nerve (CrN 2)
  179. What cranial nerves move the eye?
    Oculomotor, trochlear, abducens
  180. Function of parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve
    Motor involuntary/smooth muscles of the eye (near focus lens and constrict pupil)
  181. What does the trigeminal nerve (CrN 5) innervate?
    Sensory to most of the head by the 3 branches, and motor to the muscles of mastication
  182. What does the facial nerve (CrN 7) innervate?
    Muscles of facial expression, lacrimal gland (ANS), taste
  183. What does the auriculopalpebral nerve innervate?
    Eyelids and ear muscles
  184. What are the most important functions of the facial nerve clinically?
    Motor to the orbicularis oculi m. and the lacrimal gland (dry eye)
  185. Where are the buccal branches of the facial nerve?
    Cross the masseter m. laterally and superficially
  186. What is the trigeminal/facial reflex arc?
    • Trigeminal nerve: sensory component
    • Facial nerve: motor component
  187. What is the 8th cranial nerve? With what does it deal?
    Vestibulocochlear nerve, hearing and balance/motion
  188. What cranial nerve carries autonomic nerve fibers between the brain and the viscera of the thorax and abdomen?
  189. What motor nerves supply the pharynx to aid in swallowing?
    Vagus (X) and glossopharyngeal (IX) nn.
  190. What is the recurrent laryngeal nerve? What does it innervate?
    Branch of the vagus, arises in the thorax and extends back to the larynx to innervate the skeletal muscles of the larynx, including the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m.
  191. What clinically important nerves pass through the middle ear?
    Facial nerve and sympathetic fibers
  192. What type of nerve is the hypoglossal (CrN 12)? Where does it innervate?
    Motor nerve (somatic); tongue mm.
  193. Parasympathetic fibers are carried over what 4 cranial nerves?
    3,7,9,10: oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X)
  194. How does the ANS work?
    Without conscious effort to maintainbthe homeostatis of the orgsnism
  195. What structure does the ANS regulate?
    Smooth and cardiac muscles, and glands
  196. Function of each division of ANS
    • Parasympathetic: energy conserving
    • Sympathetic: fight or flight
  197. Where do the 2 divisions of the ANS arise?
    • S: thoracolumbar outflow
    • P: craniosacral ('para places') outflow
  198. How does the ANS differ structurally from the SNS?
    2 LMN instead of 1
  199. What are the 2 LMN of the ANS?
    Preganglionic and postganglionic
  200. Where does the preganglionic fiber synapse with the postganglionic efferent fiber in relation to the CNS?
    In ganglia distal to/outside of the CNS
  201. What is the parasympathetic innervation to the thorax and most of the abdomen?
    Vagus nerve - cranial nerve 10 (X)
  202. What separates the respiratory and digestive passages in the head?
    Hard and soft palates
  203. Name the 4 types of permanent teeth and give their abbreviations
    Incisors, canine, premolars, molars
  204. What are 3 divisions of the pharynx/throat (common passageway for the digestive and respiratory systems)?
    Oro-, naso-, and laryngopharynx
  205. What structure separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?
    Soft palate
  206. Name the lymphoid tissue in the lateral wall of the oropharynx.
    Palatine tonsil
  207. What is the largest meatus located between the ventral nasal concha and the hard palate?
    Ventral nasal meatus
  208. What is the unpaired hyoid bone that crosses the midline?
    Basihyoid bone
  209. What does the pull of cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle on the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage do?
    Swings the vocal process and vocal cords laterally, thus, opening the glottic cleft
  210. What is the only laryngeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft?
    Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis
  211. What is the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity?
    Glottic cleft
  212. To which side of the trachea does the esophagus incline in the middle of the neck?
Card Set
sgu anatomy q and a pg1-10