Anatomy-I Overview

  1. Define medial
    Medial- Closer to the median plane
  2. Define Lateral
    Lateral- further from the median plane
  3. define cranial
    cranial- toward the head
  4. define caudal
    caudal- toward the tail
  5. define ventral
    ventral- toward the ground
  6. what term corresponds to "crainial" in the rest of the body
  7. for what is the term dorsal used
    Surface of the body away from the ground and the surface below the proximal carpus and tarus directed toward the head ( surface opposite the palmar/plantar
  8. What surfaces below the "top" (proximal end) of the carpus/tarsus are directed toward the tail or ground?
  9. define proximal
    proximal-part closer to a point of attachment or to the trunk
  10. define distal
    distal- farther from
  11. for what is the term peripheral used
    a part distal from its point of origin or near the surface
  12. define axial
    axial-closer to the logitudinal axis of the limb
  13. define abaxis
    abaxis- farther from the longitudinal axis of the limb?
  14. where is the axis of a limb in relation to the digits
    between the 3rd and 4th digit
  15. define external or superficial and internal or deep
    closer to/ further from the outer surface of a sturcture, respectively.
  16. define sagittal plane, median or med-sagittal plane
    sagittal: divides the body into: sagittal=unequal right and left parts; mid-sagittal: equal parts
  17. define transverse plane or cross section
    plane divides the body into cranial and caudal parts or cuts a limb at right angle to its long axis
  18. what are sections? list two
    cuts through the planes of the body: sagittal section, transvers or cross section
  19. list the human term (the term veterinary terms to which they correspond) and where they are correctly used in veterinary anatomy
    • 1. anterior(cranial on limbs, rostral on face and ventral on body)
    • 2. posterior(caudal on limbs and head; dorsal on body)
    • 3. superior and inferior (dorsal and ventral)
  20. the skeleton can be divided into _____ , ____ and visceral portions
    axial and appendicular
  21. name the three parts of the axial skeleton
    skull, vertebral (spine), and thorax
  22. the vertebral colomn consists of what five regions
    cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and caudal (coccygeal)
  23. what connects the thoracic girdle to the axial skeleton
    muscle attachments(synsarcosis) (clavicle is rudimentary)
  24. list the regions of the thoracic limb and the bones each includes
    • Shoulder-scapula
    • brachium-humerus
    • antebrachium-ulna and radius
    • carpus- carpal bones
    • manus-carpal, metacarpal, phalangeal and sesamoid bones
    • digits- proximal, middle, distal phalanges and associated sesamoid bones
  25. list the regions of the pelvic limb and bones each includes
    • pelvis/pelvic girdle: hip bones(ilium,ischium, pubis), sacrum, and first few caudal vertebrae
    • thigh: femur
    • stifle: femur, tibia, fibula
    • crus: tibia, fibula
    • tarsus/hock: tarsal bones: Pes: tarsal, metatarsal, phalangeal and sesamoid bones
    • digits: proximal, middle, distal phalanges and associated sesamoid bones
  26. What are the parts of the long bone
    • two ends- epiphysis
    • body-diaphysis
  27. what joins the diaphysis to the epiphysis in mature bone?
  28. name the fibrous covering of bone not covered by articular cartilage
  29. what is the compact bone surrounding the medullary cavity
    compact of cancellous (spongy)
  30. what are 2 methods of osteogenesis
    • intramembranous(flat bones)
    • endochondral(intracartilaginous) long bone
  31. In endochondral (intracartilaginous) ossification, where are the centers of ossification located?
    diaphysis and two epiphyses
  32. lengthening of long bones occurs in what area?
    outer growth plate (epipseal side of the plate)
  33. what are the two different types of growth plates?
    • traction (olecranon, calcaneus)
    • Compression ( most of the rest)
  34. What is the palpable caudal end of the skull used as a landmark?
    external occipital protuberance
  35. what are the palpable lateral processes just caudal to the skull
    wings of the atlas
  36. what are part of the hyoid apparatus crosses the ventral midline seen in lateral radiographs of the head
    basihyoid bone
  37. what are the enlarged transverse processes that are identifiable in the radiographs of the cervical region?
    sled of sixth cervical vertebrae
  38. what is usually the 11th thoracic vertebrae with the most vertically oriented spine used as a landmark for back radiographs?
    anticlinal vertebrae
  39. what is the dorsal gap between the arches of contiguous vertebral arches used as access points to the vertebral canal for epidurals
    interarcuate spaces
  40. what projects laterally from the scapula and is palpable
    spine of scpula
  41. what is the distal end of the spine of the scapula
  42. what is the ventral part of the acromion in the cat
    suprahamate process
  43. what is the origin of the biceps brachii m. on the scapula that can be fractured
    supraglenoid tubercle
  44. what is the palpable cranial most part of the shoulder region of the thoracic limb?
    greater tubercle or point of the shoulder
  45. what is the canal in the medial epicondyle of the cat humerus that carries the median n and brachial vessels
    supracondylar canal (foramen)
  46. What is the bony landmark located in the fifth intercostal space in the standing animal
    olecranon, point of the elbow
  47. what is the proximal end of the notch(trochlear) of the ulna
    anconeal process
  48. what is the distal end of the notch (trochlear) of the ulna
    Medial coronoid process
  49. what small sesamoid bone maybe located on the medial side of the carpus
    sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor (abductor pollicus longus) tendon
  50. what is a landmark on the medial side of the manus and pes, if present
  51. what bony process holds the horny claw
    ungual crest
  52. what is the palpable part of the hip bone caudal to the flank
    tuber coxae, point of the hip
  53. what is the palpable caudal end of hip bone
    ischial tuber, ischiatic tuberosity, pin bone
  54. What is the palpable lateral structure of the proximal femur
    greater trocanter
  55. what is the palpable proximal end of the tibia
    tibia tuberosity
  56. what is the distal end of the fibula
    lateral malleolus
  57. what is the small sesamoid bone that may be found on the lateral side of the stifle
    sesamoid in the tendon of origin of the popliteal muscle
  58. Structural classification groups joints according to their _______ ______.
    uniting medium
  59. what are the three types of uniting medium of joints in the structural classification
    fibrous, cartilaginous or synovial
  60. a suture is what type of structural joint Functional (movement)?
    fibrous, immovable
  61. is a gomphosis (implantation of teeth in the jaw) a true joint?
    no, b/c teeth aren't part of the skeleton
  62. where are symphyseal joints found
    generally on midline of body
  63. what type of joint occurs between the bodies of most vertebrae
    symphyseal - intervertebral disc
  64. define the joint, actions, and give an example

    - ginglymus or hinge
    flexion and extension - elbow and most joints of limbs
  65. define the joint, actions, and give an example

    plane joint
    gliding or sliding - carpal bones
  66. define the joint, actions, and give an example

    ball-and socket/sheroidal
    universal movement - shoulder and hip
  67. define the joint, actions, and give an example

    pivot joint
    rotation around a longitudinal axis (atlantoaxial joint)
  68. define the joint, actions, and give an example

    condylar joint
    flexion and extension/rotation (stifle)
  69. most of the joints of the thoracic and pelvic limb have what type of ligaments? which joints do not?
    collateral ligaments, shoulder and hip
  70. what five things characterize a synovial joint
    mobility, articular cartilage, joint capsule (synovial membrane and fibrous capsule), synovial fluid, joint cavity
  71. what covers the articular ends of bone
    articular cartilage, usually hyaline catilage
  72. what is the nerve and vascular supply in articular cartilage
    there is none
  73. how does the articular cartilage receive nutrition and remove waste.
    synovial fluid since no blood supply
  74. where are bursae located
    between skin and bones, tendons and bones, muscle and bones, or ligaments and bones
  75. what is the function of the bursa
    reduce friction
  76. what structure, similar to a bursa, is completely wrapped around a tendon?
    synovial sheath
  77. where are synovial sheaths commonly found
    carpus, tarsus, digits
  78. what is the function of a synovial sheath
    reduces friction on a tendon as it crosses a number of joints
  79. what is the configuration of the shoulder joint
    Ball and socket joint ( spheroidal)
  80. list the joints of the manus and the bones they are between
    • carpus-antibrachiocarpal joint (radius and ulna and carpal bones)
    • Middle carpal joint (proximal and distal carpal rows)
    • carpometacarpal joint (distal carpal and metacarpal bones)
    • Metacarpophalangeal joint ( metacarpal bones and a proximal phalanx)
    • Proximal interdigital joint (proximal and middle phalanges)
    • Distal interdigital joint "claw" ( middle and distal phalanges)
  81. with what do the proximal ends of the ribs articulate? distal ends?
    thoracic vertebrae, sternum
  82. name the fibrocartilages between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae
    intervertebral discs
  83. what elastic connective tissue structure attaches the 1st thoracic spine to the spine of the axis (C2) in the dog? the cat?
    nuchal ligament, none in cats
  84. what elastic tissue fills the dorsal space (interarcuate space) between the arches of adjacent vertebrae?
    ligamentum flavum, interarcuate, or yellow ligament
  85. what connects the heads of a pair of opposite ribs, crossing the dorsal part of the intervertebral discs?
    intercapital ligament
  86. what is the relativily immovable joint between the sacrum and the ilium
    sacroiliac joint
  87. name the ball and socket joint of the pelic limb
    hip joint, coxofemoral, coal joint
  88. what are the fibrocartilaginous discs between the condyles of the femur and tibia
    medial and lateral menisci (singular- meniscus)
  89. how are the curciate ligaments that attach the femur and tibia named?
    for their attachement to the tibia
  90. list the 4 main joints of the hock/tarsus
    • tibiotarsal, tarsocrucial, or talocrucral joint
    • proximal intertarsal joint
    • distal intertarsal joint
    • tarsometatarsal joint
  91. list the different types of muscles and whether they are voluntary or not
    • striated (skeletal- voluntary, cardiac- involuntary)
    • smooth ( unstriated, involuntary muscles)
  92. what are the 2 attachments of skeletal muscles
    • origin (proximal or least movable)
    • insertion ( distal and more movable)
  93. what are the flat attachments of flat muscles (ex abdominal muscles)
    aponeuroses (singular-aponeurosis)
  94. what is the difference between tendons and ligaments
    • tendons- attaches a muscle to a bone
    • ligament- attach 2 bones
  95. what do muscles' actions depend upon?
    how they cross a joint, the number of joints crossed, and the shape of the joints
  96. define extrinsic and muscle and give an example
    attach a structure to the body
  97. define intrinsic and muscle and give an example
    • intrinsic- both attachments in the structure
    • ex-thoraciclimb, eye, larynx
  98. what nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles
    suprascapular nerve
  99. what nerver innervates almost all the extensors of the thoracic limb?
    radial nerve
  100. what are the 2 groups of forarm muscles? what is their location?
    • extensor of digits and carpus (craniolateral)
    • flexors of the digitd and carpus (caudal)
  101. what is the insertion of the deep digital flexor (ddf) and the superficial digital flexor (sdf) muscles
    • ddf-distal phalanges
    • sdf- proximal to the ddf insertion
  102. what is the rectus sheath
    aponeuroses of the abdominal m. around the rectus abdominus muscle
  103. what muscles cover the trachea ventrally
    two paired " strap Muscles" (sternohyoideus and sternothyroideus muscle)
  104. What muscles are above and below the transvers processes of the vertebrae
    • epaxial (above)
    • hypaxial (below)
    • ex. longus colli m. in the neck
  105. what are the extensors of the stifle and what innervates them
    cranial thigh (quadriceps) m. femoral nerve
  106. what is the action and innervation of the medial thight muscles?
    adduction, obturator nerve
  107. what are the action of the crural muscles
    • craniolateral- extensors of digits and flexor of the tarsus (called "extensors")
    • caudal- flexors of the digits and extensors of the tarsus ( called "flexors")
  108. what is the innervation of the extensor muscles of the crus
    craniolateral extensors- common fibular nerve
  109. what nerve innervates the thin muscles of the facial expression
    facial nerve CrN7
  110. what is the muscle of the facial expression that encircles the eye? what innervates it?
    • Orbicularis oculi m.
    • facial n. (auriculopalpebral branch)
  111. what nerve is sensory to the 3 areas of the face and motor to the muscles of mastication
    trigeminal n. (CrN5 all 3 division motor to mastication muscles- mandibular division)
  112. what is the motor innervation to the muscles of the tongue?
    hypoglossal cranial n. 12
  113. what is the function of the cutaneous muscle
    twitch skin (shoo flies away)
  114. How is the nervous system divided functionally?
    somatic (body) and autonomic (ANS, visceral system) nervous systems
  115. How is the nervous system divided structurally?
    central (CNS) and periferal nervous system (PNS)
  116. which functional division of the nervous system keeps the body in balance with its external and internal environment, respectively
    • external somatic
    • internal autonomic (ANS)
  117. what are the 2 parts of the CNS
    Brain and spin
  118. what are the parts of the peripheral nervous system
    cranial and spinal nerves and ganglia
  119. what are the 2 impulses of the nervous system, both somatic and autonomic
    sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent)
  120. what nervous structures pass from the spinal cord to the periphery
    spinal nerves(LMN lower motor neurons
  121. where do the spinal nerves leave the vertebral column
    intervertebral foramen
  122. what arises from the spinal cord to form a spinal nerve
    • dorsal root (sensory)
    • ventral root (motor)
  123. what are the 2 main branches of spinal nerves
    dorsal and ventral branches (both have motor and sensory fibers)
  124. what areas do the ventral and dorsal motor branches of the spinal nerves supply motor innervation
    • ventral- muscles ventral to the transvers process of the vertebrae
    • dorsal- muscles dorsal to the transverse processes, sensory innervation not exactly the same
  125. what spinal nerve branches supply sensation from the skin of the abdominal wall and back
    dorsal- back (above the transverse processes) and upper flank (area just below the transvers processes) ventral- rest
  126. list the components of a reflex arc
    stimulus > receptor > sensory (afferent) neuron > interneuron or association neuron > motor (efferent) neuron or lower motor neuron (LMN) > effector (target) organ: the muscle or gland innervated by a motor neuron
  127. what are aggregates of nerve cell bodies in the CNS? PNS?
    • CNS- nucleus
    • PNS- ganglion
  128. what is grey matter
    part of nervous tissue consisting of the neuranal cell bodies
  129. what is a nerve
    a bundle of nerve processes outside the CNS
  130. what are nerve tracts or fasciculi
    nerve fiber bundles of common origin in the brain and spinal cord
  131. what forms nerve plexuses that are clinically significant
    interlacing ventral branches of the spinal nerves
  132. what important nerve arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses and supplies the diaphragm
    phrenic nerve
  133. what plexus supplies some of the extrinsic and all of the intrinsic muscles of the thoracic limb
  134. what plexus supplies the abdominal wall, pelvic limb, external genitalia, rump and perineum
    lumbosacral plexus
  135. what is a dermatome
    and area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve
  136. what 2 muscles does the suprascapular nerve innervate
    supraspinatus and infraspinatus
  137. where does the radial nerve first reach the skin
    lateral arm, under the border of the lateral triceps ( susceptible to injury)
  138. what innervates the cutaneous trunci muscle
    lateral thoracic nerve
  139. what nerve innervates the flexor of the elbow, and thus, is necessary for weight bearing
    radial nerve
  140. what nerve supplies the extensors of the elbow, carpus, and digits
    radial nerve (extensor nerve)
  141. what is the cutaneous innervation of the pay by the ulnar nerve
    abaxial 5th (lateral) digit
  142. what is the largest nerve crossing the heart to the diaphragm
    phrenic nerve
  143. what is the branch of the vagus nerve that returns to the neck
    recurrent laryngeal nerve
  144. what does the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervate? Which muscle is clinically important in horses/doges with roarers
    most laryngeal skeletal muscles; cricorarytenoideus dorsalis m.
  145. what nerve supply the intercostal muscles and a lot of the thoracic wall
    intercostal n. (ventral branches of the thoracic n)
  146. what do the ventral and dorsal branches of spinal nn. T 13, L1, L2 and L3 supply?
    • Ventral branches- motor to the abdominal muscle and skin of the ventral abdomen
    • dorsal branches- motor and sensory to the area above transverse process of the vertebrae, also sensory to the skin on the dorsal flank (paralumbar fossa)
  147. what nerve supplies motor innervation to the adductors of the thigh?
    Obturator nerve
  148. What nerve innervates the extensors of the pelvic limb
    common fibular (peroneal) nerve, dorsal pes
  149. what is the cutaneous branch of the femoral nerve
    saphenous nerve to the medial limb
  150. what nerve is required to bear weight on the pelvic limb
    femoral nerve (L4-6) extends the stifle
  151. what nerve supplies the anus and the external anal spincter
    caudal rectal nerve
  152. what is a spinal cord segment
    portion demarcated by the pair of spinal nn. that arise from it
  153. name the five divisions of the spinal cord
    cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, caudal
  154. name the 5 functional divisions of the spinal cord
    • Area 1/Cervical (C1-5)
    • Area 2/Brachial (C6-T1)
    • Area 3/ Thoracolumbar (T3-L3)
    • Area 4/ Pelvic limb (L4-S1)
    • Area 5/ Sacral and Caudal (S2-Cn)
  155. what is the central "H" shaped mass of a spinal cord cross section
    Grey matter
  156. of what does white matter of the spinal cord consist
    myelinated axons running up and down the spinal cord
  157. what are ascending and descending tracks of the spinla cord and what do they carry
    • ascending- myelinated afferent axons, sensory info
    • descending- myelinated efferent axons of upper motor neurons, motor fibers
  158. where does the spinal cord end in the dog/cat
    • dog above L6 (6-7)
    • cat- above sacrum
  159. where are upper motor neurons located
    in the CNS descending to synaspe on LMN
  160. where are lower motor neurons located
    extending away from the spinal cord and brain to muscles or glands
  161. are spinal nerves lower or upper motor neurons
  162. what does the efferent neuron of a reflex arc connect
    spinal cord muscles or glands
  163. the lower motor nueron can be _____ active
  164. what is the function of most UMN
    inhibit spontaneous activity of LMN until action is desired
  165. what is the function of proprioceptive fibers
    sense position of body parts to each other and to the environment
  166. over what structures do propioceptive fibers travel
    -thus where is the lesion if this is lost?
    • peripheral nn. spinal cord. brain stem to cerebellum, and cerebrum
    • -any of the above structures, thus it dosen't localize the lesion but is a sensitive indication that there is a neuro problem
  167. what structures carry superficial and deep pain sensory fibers
    periferal nerve, spinal cord, brain stem, and cerebrum
  168. what is a dermatome?
    area of the skin innervated by a nerve
  169. what is an autonomous zone?
    only on spinal nerve respectively
  170. how can knowing the spinal segments innervation myotomes and dermatomes be used clinically
    used to localize lesions
  171. what are the meninges
    three connective tissue coverings that encircle the spinal cord and brain
  172. list the spaces associated with the meninges
    • epidural space (between the vertebrae and the dura mater)
    • subarachnoid space- between the pia and arachnoid, contains CFS
  173. List and describe the meninges
    • dura mater- outer tough meninx
    • arachnoid - middle meninx pushed against the inside of the dura matter
    • pia mater- innermost meninx, closely investing the spinal cord and brain
  174. describe the 2 expansions of the subarachnoid space used clinically
    • cisterna magna- located between the caudal surface of the cerebellum and the dorsal surface of the medulla, just inside the foramen magnum
    • lumbar cistern- surrounding the lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord
  175. HOw is the brain divived functionally
    • cerebrum.diencephalon(forebrain)
    • brainstem
    • vestibular system
    • cerebellum
  176. what makes up the forebrain and what is its function
    cerebrum and diencephalon ( higher functions and controls ANS and endocrine system)
  177. what is responsible for consiousness and arousal? Where is ti located?
    reticular activation system, brainstem
  178. list 3 clinically significant parts of the brainstem
    • canial nn. 3-12
    • vital centers
    • reticular activation system
  179. name the 3 vital reflex centers in the brainstem
    • cardiac
    • vasomotor
    • respiratory
  180. what is the function of the cerebellum
    • coordinated movement
    • maintain equilibrium
    • maintain posture
  181. what is the function of the vestibular system
    controls posture and balance
  182. for lesions localization how can the vestibular system be divided
    • peripheral vestibular part (inner ear)
    • centeal vestibulad portion (brain stem)
    • centers in the cerebellum
  183. what does contralateral and ipsilateral mean?
    contralateral- opposite side, Ipsilateral, same side
  184. Name the cranial nerves
    • 1. Olfactory
    • 2. optic
    • 3. oculomotor
    • 4. trochlear
    • 5. trigeminal
    • 6. abducens
    • 7.facial
    • 8. vestibulocochlear
    • 9. glossopharyngeal
    • 10. vagus
    • 11. accessory (spinal accessory)
    • 12. hypoglossal
  185. what cranial nerve is entirely sesory, dealing with vision
    optic nerve (CrN2)
  186. what crainial nerves move the eye
    oculomotor, trochlear (IV) and abducens (VI)
  187. What is the function of the parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve
    motor involuntary/ smooth muscles of the eye (near focus lens and constrict pupil)
  188. what does the trigminal nerve (CrN5) innervate
    sensory to most of the head by the 3 branches and motor to the muscles of mastication
  189. what does the facial nerve (CrN 7 ) innervate
    muscles of facial expression (includes orbicularis oculi and eyelids) lacrimal gland (ANS) and taste
  190. what does the auriculopalpebral nerve (br. CrN 7) innervate?
    eyelids (and ear) muscles
  191. what are the most important functions of the facial nerve clinically
    motor to the orbicularis oculi m. and the lacrimal gland (dry eye)
  192. where are the buccal branches of the facial nerve
    cross the masseter m. laterally and superficially
  193. what is the trigeminal/facail reflex arc
    trigeminal nerve- sensory component/ facial nerve. motor component
  194. what is the eighth cranial nerv? with what does it deal
    vestibulocochlear nerve, hearing and balnace and motion
  195. what cranial nerve carries autonomic nerve fibers between the brain and the visceral of the thorax and abdomen
  196. what motor nerves supply the pharynx to aid in swallowing
    Vagus (X) and glossopharyngeal (IX) nn.
  197. what is the recurrent laryngeal nerve? what does it innervate
    branch of the vagusm arises in the thorax and extends back to the larynx to innervate the skeletal muscles of the larynx, including the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m.
  198. what clinically important nerves pass through the middle ear
    facial nerve and sympathetic fibers
  199. what type of nerve is the hyoglossal (CrN12)? what does it innervate
    • motor nerve (somatic)
    • tongue mm.
  200. parasympathetic fibers are carried over what four cranial nerves
    oculomotor 3, facial 7, glossopharyngeal 9, vagus 10,
  201. how does the autonomic nervous system work
    smooth and cardiac muscles and glands
  202. what is the function of each division of the ANS
    • Parasympathetic- energy conservation
    • sympathetic- fight or flight
  203. where do the 2 divisons of the ANS arise
    • Sympathetic- thoracolumbar outflow
    • Para- craniosacral ("parap places") out flow
  204. How does the ANS differ structurally from the somatic nervous system
    2 lower motor (efferent) neurons instead of one
  205. what are the 2 lower motor neurons of the autonomic nervous system
    preganglionic and postganglionic
  206. where does the preganglionic fiber synapse with the postganglionis effernt fiber in relationship to the central nervous system
    in ganglia distal to/outside of the CNS
  207. what is the parasympathetic innervation to the thorax and most of the abdomen
    vagus nerve - cranial nerve 10
  208. what separates the respiratory and digestive passasges in the head
    hard and soft palates
  209. name the 4 types of permanent teeth and give their abbreviations
    • Incisors (I)
    • Canine (C)
    • Premolars (PM)
    • Molars (M)
  210. what are the 3 divisions of the pharynx/ throat (common passageway for the digestive and respiratory systems)
    oro-, naso-, and laryngopharynx
  211. what structure separtes the nasopharynx from the orophaynx
    soft palate
  212. name the lymphoid tissue in the lateral wall of the oropharynx
    palatine tonsil
  213. what is the largest meatus located between the ventral nasal concha and the hard palate
    ventral nasal meatus
  214. what is the unpaired hyoid bone that crosses the midline
    basihyoid bone
  215. what does the pull of cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle on the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage do
    swings the vocal process and vocal cords laterally, thus, opening the glottic cleft
  216. what is the only larynegeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft
    cricoarytenoideus dorsalis
  217. what is the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity
    glottic cleft
  218. to which side of the trachea does the esophagus incline in the middle of the neck
  219. how does the cavity of the bony thorax relate to the thoracic cavity
    larger , dome of the diaphragm extends into the bony thorax to the 6th intercostal space (encases abdomen)
  220. the descending duodenum is on which side of the abdomen
  221. where is the cecum located
    right side between small and rest of large intestine
  222. list three different types of peritoneum
    • parietal (wall)
    • visceral and connecting
  223. how are mesenteries (connecting peritoneum) named?
    "Meso" + organ connected
  224. where are the ovaries located in the carnivores
    caudal to the kidneys in the sublumbar region
  225. what is the suspensory ligament in carnivores
    part of the broad ligament connecting the ovary to the last 1 or 2 ribs
  226. what is the fornix of the vagina
    ventral recess formed by the cervix projecting into the vagina
  227. describe the cats scrotum and apperance
    • perineal (close to anus)
    • densely covered by hair
  228. what is the relationship of the ductus deferens to the ureters
    loops dorsally over the ureters (water under the bridge?)
  229. what is the inguinal canal
    passageway through the caudal abdominal wall
  230. name the 3 main parts of the vaginal tunic
    visceralm parietal, and connecting vaginal tunic
  231. the vaginal cavity is continuous with the ____ at the vaginal ring
    peritoneal cavity
  232. on which side of the spermatic cord is the ductus deferense
  233. what is the definition of an artery?
    Artery- vessles that travel away from the heart most of the time
  234. what is the definition of a vein
    towards the heart
  235. which specific large veins returnblood from the roughly cranial and caudal part of the body directly to the heart
    cranial venacava and caudal vena cava
  236. what are the chambers of the heart in the order they receive blood
    right atrium, right venticle, left atrium, left ventricle
  237. which side of the heart is part of the pulmonic circulation
    right side
  238. which side of the heart is part of the systemic circulation
    left side
  239. what is the outflow of the heart (left side) to the body
  240. what arteries travel up the neck to supply the head and face
    comon carotid arteries
  241. which veins return blood from the head and neck
    external jugular veins
  242. name the 3 unpaired branches of the abdominal viscera of the abdominal aorta
    celiac, cranial and caudal mesenteric arteries
  243. name the main branches (arteries) of the terminal aorta
    • external iliac (to the pelvic limb)
    • 2 internal iliac ( to the pelvis)
    • 1 median sacral (to the tail)
  244. what is the main artery supplying th uterus
    uterine artery
  245. what vessels supply the ventral abdominal wall?
    where do they run
    • cranial and caudal epigastric vessels
    • -on the ventral abdomen, on either side of the midline
  246. what is the direct continuation of the external iliac artery out of the abdominal cavity to the pelvic limb for which it is the main supply
    femoral artery
  247. what is the vacualr supply to the ovary
    ovaruan artery and vein in mesovarium
  248. where does the lengthening of the bone occur
    epiphyseal side of the metaohyseal plate
  249. during growth, how does the physis appear radiographically
    as a radiolucent line (dark)
  250. what should not be mistaken for fractures radiographically
    physeal lines or sesamoid bones
  251. what is a normal remnant of the closed physis
    physeal scar
  252. what is the large vein draining the intesting to the sinusoids of the liver
    portal vein
  253. where do the ovarian or testicular veins drain
    • right- into the caudal vena cava
    • left- into the left renal vein (avoid crossing the aorta)
  254. which vessel crosses the ventral surface of the adrenal gland and thus is a surgical landmark for finding the structure
    phrenicoabdominal vein
  255. where is the cephalic vein located
    on the cranial surface of the forarm
  256. what is the vein on the ventral surface of the tail that is the direct continuation of the median sacral vein
    median caudal vein
  257. what are the 2 superficial veins of the pelvic limb
    medial and lateral saphenous veins
  258. what vein is on the either side of the ventral surface of the tongue
    lingual vein, sublingual vein is on the floor of the mouth
  259. describe the thoracic duct
    the major lymphatic vessel returning most of the lymph collected in the body back into the general circulation at the venous angle
  260. list the superficial lymph nodes of the body
    parotid- mandibular, superficail cervical, popliteal, and superficail inguinal lymph nodes
  261. what lymp node is located near the end of the aorta above the descending colon
    medial iliac lymph nodes
  262. the skin consists of 2 layers
    epidermis, dermis
  263. the layers of the skin lay on the
    subcutaneous layer, superficial fascia, subcutis, hypodermis
  264. where is the skin thin,, where is it thick
    belly neck
  265. what is another name for eyelids
  266. what is the function of the pupil
    control light coming into the eye
  267. what is the flap of skin inside the medial part of the eyelids
    third eyelide (nictitating membrane)
  268. how can you get the third eye lid to cross the eye for examination
    open the palpebral fissure and press the eyeball through the lateral upper lid
  269. how can the moith be opened to look in the oral cavity
    grasp the upperna jaw with one hand and pushing done on the incisors with the finger of the other
  270. what are the large, shearing teeth of dogs and cats
    carnassial of sectorial teeth ( upper premolar 4 and lower molar 1)
  271. describe the external ear canal
    2 parts vertical part passes down takes a sharp trun and continues as the horizontal part to the ear drum(tympanic membrane)
  272. what is the pocket of skin in the caudal edge of the ear
    cutaneous pouch
  273. what do the costal cartilages of the ribs caudal to the sternum form
    costal arch
  274. what remains of the entrance of the umbilical cord
    umbilicus or belly button
  275. hom many mammae does the dog usually have
  276. what is the lateral abdominal area between the back legs
    inguinal region
  277. what is the most dorsal portion of the flank
    paralumbar fossa
  278. what are the boundaries of th perineum
    base of the tail, tuber ischii, past the vulva (female), to the base of the scrotum (dog) past the scrotum in cats
  279. where are the openings of the anal sacs
    4 and 8 oclock position
  280. what is the depression on either side of the anus
    ischiorectal fossa
  281. where would you find the tibia and fibula
    crus or true leg(gaskin)
  282. where is the clitoris found
    in the ventral commissure of labia
  283. what is the picture taken by a radiographis machine called
    radiograph of film
  284. why isn't X-ray an appropriate term for a radiograph/film
    can't see X-rays
  285. what is evaluated in a radiograph
    shape and density
  286. what can eliminate needing to think about the inverse square rule
    using standard distances for different techniques eliminates distance as a variable
  287. how do you minimize the distortion of divergence in radiology
    always place the part/side of interest against the cassette so it will be sharp and close to actual size
  288. how do the 5 different radiographuc densities appear on film
    • air-black
    • fat-white
    • water- shades of grey
    • bone- white
    • metal- white
  289. what are the 5 B's that aid in remembering density differences
    • bubbles, blubber, blood, bone, bullet =
    • air, fat, water, bone, metal
  290. what is required to see structures in a radiograph that touch each other
    differences in densities between them
  291. how is fat a friend when reading radiographs
    more radiolucent = contrast soft tissues
  292. What is the composition of most long bones at birth
    none capped at both ends with articular cartilage, 2 cartilaginous discs between the diaphysis and the 2 epiphyses
  293. what are the cartilaginous discs between the diaphysis and epiphyses
    epiphyseal metaphyseal or growth plates or physes
  294. the different views ____ different sides of the bones
  295. what does the lateral view silhouette
    cranial and caudal surfaces of bones
  296. is cartilage seen on films
    no inferred
  297. since cartilage cant be seen on film how is it evaluated
    check subchondral bone
  298. what is the space between bones seen in a film
    joint space and articular cartilage
  299. what is the surviall law when reading films
    read in a systematic manner
  300. what helps you orient the views and indicate the direction of the beam
    anatomical landmarks
  301. what viewsilhouettes lateral andmedial limb structures
    craniocaudallym dorsopalmar, or dorsoventral
  302. since a radiograph is a two dimensional representation of a three diminsional object, hjow is the third dimension extrapolated
    at least 2 radiographs must be taken at 90 degrees to each other
  303. define increased opacity
    whiter shadow than expected caused by and increased subjust density or size
  304. define decreased opacity
    darker shadow than expected, due to a decrease in subject density or size
  305. define radiolucent
    dark, a structure allowing most of the x-rays to pass through it, resulting in a dark shadow
  306. define radiopaque
    white, a structure that blocks most of the rays, resulting in a white shadow
  307. define increased radiolucency
    darker, caused by a drecrease density or size of a subject
  308. what is the general rule in preparing the animal to take good radiographs
    minimal amount of movement
  309. discuss minimal amount of movement when taking radiographs
    varies with tyoe of radiograph- from minimal restraint to sedation or anesthetized
  310. what does and does not lead protect against in relationship to radiology
    • does- scatter
    • doesn't primary beam
  311. what is often imagined in radiographs but can't be seen as it is a 2 demsenisionalimage
    do not try to see or read depth
  312. how are radiographic views named
    where the beam enterd and exits the body
  313. describe how the beam enters and exits the body
    - right of left lateral projections of major body cavities (abdomen, thorax)
    named for the surface closest to the cassette (beam exit point)
  314. describe how the beam enters and exits the body
    - DV/ dorsalventral and Vd/ventral dorsal projections
    • Dv- beam enters the dorsal surface and exits the ventral
    • VD- enters vental exits dorsal
  315. describe how the beam enters and exits the body
    - craniocaudal or anterior/posterior projections
    beam enters the cranial/anterior side and exits the caudal/posterior surface of the limb above the carpus/tarsus
  316. describe how the beam enters and exits the body
    - DP/ dorsopalmar (plantar) PD or palmarodprsal (plantar)
    • DP- shot from the front to back (dorsal to the palmar side) below the proximal end of the carpus/tarsus
    • PD- beam through the palmar/plantar side and out the dorsal side below the proximal end of the carpus (tarsus)
  317. what do lead R and L markers indicate on a radiograph
    patients side placed on the film/ down side of body in VD and DV films, or which limb if there is only one limb in the film
  318. what should always be used to check if the markers on a film are correct
    anatomical landmarks
  319. what side pf the body or limbs are the following anatomical landmarks
    • apex of heart = L
    • gas bubble in fundus of the stomach = L
    • descending colon = L
    • cranial kidney = right
    • caudal kidney = left
    • anticlinal vertebra - vertical vertebrae =usually T11 in dogs
    • head of humerus = caudal
    • radius = cranial
    • olecranon = caudal
    • distal end of the ulna = lateral and caudal
    • accessory carpal bone = lateral and palmar
    • dew claw = medial
    • patella = cranial
    • fibula = lateral
    • calcaneus = lateral and plantar
Card Set
Anatomy-I Overview
dog and cat anatomy questions and answers