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MSTC SWE Exam

  1. Which cutter was one of the first 10?
    South Carolina
  2. MSL most important document
    Chain of Custody
  3. Minimum designed burst pressure is how many times that of the relief valve
    4
  4. Facilities containment for 6-12 inch connection
    3 bbls
  5. What is the bottom of the load line
    Winter North Atlantic
  6. Max heifght of barge combing
    8 inches
  7. Very highest and lowest tide occuring twice a month when the moon is new or full
    Spring
  8. The tidal range between high and low is the smallest and occurs near the time of thetime of the first and last lunar quarters
    neap
  9. One high tide and one low tide per day
    diurnal
  10. 2 high tides, and 2 low tides a day
    semi-diurnal
  11. if 2 vessels are towing boom either upstream or downstream, what is the boom configuration
    U
  12. Sensitive samples, such as sheen and sheen nets, should be sent to MSL for
    preperation
  13. 2 high and 2 low tides but at different levels
    Mixed
  14. Who has to be familiar with the implementation of the facility response plan
    QI
  15. if an LNG facility plans to expand, how long do they have to submittheir plans prior to the first transfer afer expansion is complete?
    1-year
  16. How should a NOFI be mailed?
    Certified with a receipt
  17. part of boom underneath water used to prevent or reduce escape of oil
    Skirt
  18. What vessels are required to have both short and long range radars at 10,000 gross tons
    Tankers
  19. How often should QI drills be conducted
    Quarterly
  20. the USCG leased 10 cutters to Great Britain in what year?
    1941
  21. On a self propelled vessel without barrges, with a capacity of 250 GT or more, what area should be lighted btw sunset and sunrise?
    transfer work area
  22. How much absorbent material must be packed into a box of samples being shipped to MSL
    enough for one jar
  23. How long can emi last each day?
    2 Hours
  24. What is the containment requirement for a 12 inch line?
    Four bbls
  25. In the transfer arrangement, what on the pump is allowed to leak
    Packing glands
  26. How long is a DOS good for
    90 Days
  27. How long is a facility required to keep USCG exams?
    3 years
  28. Which cutter fired the first shots of the Civil War?
    Harriet Lane
  29. How would you mail a LOW/ NOV?
    Certified with return receipt
  30. what in the atmosphere for over a large area?
    Air mass
  31. during cargo transfer operations inland oil barges must have appropriate equipment and
    supplies ready for immediate use to control and remove on deck oil cargo spills
    of at least-
    1 Barrel
  32. what is an O-3 in the air force?
    Captain
  33. how fast must the emergency shutdown be for a facility transferring harzardous
    substances built after oct 4th, 1990?
    30 Seconds
  34. minimum designed burst pressure is how many times that of the relief valve?
    4 times
  35. 10 modern cutters were transferred to Britain when?
    Mar 1941
  36. What does part b of solas chapter 3 apply to?
    Passenger and cargo
  37. From the main steering position the field of vision from dead ahead must extend over an arc of a least on either
    side-
    60 degrees
  38. What does a water suitability assessment for a LNG facility need to be submitted
    with?
    Letter of intent
  39. Which Cutter was run ashore on Long Island, the carried their guns up a bluff to fire them?
    Eagle
  40. What Vessels of 10,000 Gross Tons are required to have a radar with both long and short range capabilities?
    Tankers
  41. Who can issue EMI?
    Supervisor
  42. How would you mark and NOV for 33CFR101, 104, 105 and 106?
    SSI (Sensitive Security Information)
  43. What vessel is required to have only a Fresh Water and Winter North Atlantic Load
    Line?
    Sailing Ships
  44. What year did Petty Officer in the Nay receive Rate designation?
    1866
  45. The specialty or rating marks became official, though PO’s used them for several
    years?
    1866
  46. What is the maximum amount of sample jars that can be shipped in one box?
    8
  47. What is the most important paperwork that is shipped with samples?
    Chain of custody
  48. What is the purpose of the RP signing the NOV/LOW?
    As proof of receipt
  49. The sample custodian must be?
    Certified and Trained
  50. What type of removal is it when back hoes, bulldozer and grader are used and require systems for temporary storage, transportation, and final treatment and disposal?
    Mechanical removal
  51. What is the ICS 208?
    Site Safety Plan
  52. When at MARSEC Level 3, penalties are increased by what percent?
    2
  53. What does SMART stand for?
    Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Timely
  54. What UCMJ Article is for assaulting a Petty Officer?
    91
  55. O-9 in the Army?
    Lt. General
  56. What is the Max weight for shipping samples to MSL?
    66lbs/30Kg
  57. What is the tracking # on oil Samples?
    Misle Incident Investigation Activity
  58. What Cutter was awarded the first prize of war in the war of 1812?
    Revenue Cutter Jefferson
  59. What is the surface oil distribution of a beach having 51-90% covered in oil?
    Broken
  60. Which certificate is the International Code of Signals found?
    Cargo Ship Safety Certificate
  61. How fast must the emergency shutdown be for a facility transferring hazardous
    substances built after October 4th, 1990?
    30 Seconds
  62. What act was signed on November 25, 2002?
    Homeland Security Act
  63. What day did the USCG join the Department of Homeland Security?
    March 1, 2003
  64. How often are facilities required to deploy their response equipment?
    Semi-annually
  65. When an individual is issued a penalty found during a facility inspection, what is
    the percentage of the penalty?
    50%
  66. How close must pressure gauges be to the actual pressure?
    10%
  67. How long is a Document of Compliance good for?
    5 years
  68. How long is a Safety Management Certificate good for?
    5 Years
  69. What does the S stand for in S.A.P.P?
    Security
  70. How should a label from a sample jar be copied to a Chain of Custody?
    Letter for letter
  71. What is the containment requirement for a barge with a pipe diameter size of 4-5
    inches?
    2 barrels
  72. An Interim Safety Management Certificate shall not be issued for longer than
    _____.
    6 Months
  73. What is the surface oil distribution of a beach have with 91-100% covered in oil?
    Continuous
  74. What is the surface oil distribution of a beach with 1-10%
    Sporadic
  75. What year did the navy recognize its three classes of petty officers?
    1885
  76. What year did petty officers in the Navy acquire their first rate insignia?
    1841 (rating marks appeared in 1866)
  77. If the NOV is not paid within 60 days, the activities system status is changed to
    ________.
    Open– Forward to collections
  78. What is the maximum number of gallons for a fire extinguisher?
    2.5 Gallons
  79. What does the M stand for in S.M.A.R.T.?
    Measureability
  80. What, if practicable, is the preferred method of delivering an LOW?
    In person
  81. When is a transfer considered to have begun?
    the PIC of the facility and vessel first meet
  82. How many 4 oz. jars can be shipped to MSL in one box?
    8
  83. When are romantic relationships unacceptable?
    When members are assigned to the same cutter
  84. Oil samples shipped to MSL must be shipped in accordance with _______.
    International Air Transport Association (IATA)
  85. What is the form number for the Site Safety Plan?
    208
  86. How often is an  OSRO required to deploy
    their response equipment?
    Annually
  87. Who must a facility report a TSI to?
    Local COTP
  88. When taking oil samples, which do you take first?
    Spill
  89. What is the surface oil distribution of a beach have with 11-50% covered in oil?
    Patchy
  90. A facility must submit an alternative how far in advance of using the
    alternative?
    30 Days
  91. What is the form number of the Safety Analysis Form?
    215A
  92. What is the front that’s symbol is red triangles on one side and blue half circles
    on the other?
    Stationary
  93. How long must a facility
    keep training records?
    3 years
  94. What is the max thickness of a women's permanent eyeliner?
    1/8"
  95. Homeland Security has how many directives/duties?
    7
  96. What is part of USCG Maritime Stewardship
    ATON
  97. What can a trafel card limit be increased to ?
    $9,999
  98. Where is permanent branding/scarring not allowed?
    face
  99. In the acronym SMART, what does "S" stand for?
    Specific
  100. What article addresses assulting a PO?
    91
  101. Article entitles member to remain silent?
    31
  102. 2 types of confined space-
    Permit and non-permit required
  103. What effects BAH
    Rank / Location
  104. How many days select reserve drill
    48 drills
  105. What are requirements of IRR
    fufill remainder of 8 years
  106. Hearing loss occurs at what DB level?
    85
  107. Which is not a formal reqason for discharging a member?
    Job Opportunities
  108. What year did congress declare war with Mexico
    1846
  109. What year was the Federal Life Saving Service become instated
    1848
  110. What year was the Women's Reserve Branch established
    Nov 23, 942
  111. What year was the lighthouse service established
    Aug 7, 1789
  112. In what year were women integrated into active reserve duty
    1973
  113. In what year were all officer fields and enlisted ratings open to women?
    1978
  114. What year was the installation of the MCPOCG
    1969
  115. What year did the USCG adopt navy rates
    1917
  116. What year idd petty officer in the navy receive Rating Marks
    1866
  117. What year did petty officers in the Navy acquire their first Rate Insignia
    1841
  118. What year did the revenue cutter service and the US life saving service merge creating today's USCG?
    Jan 8, 1915
  119. When was the Navy Chief created
    1893
  120. The revenue cutter service was the only afloat service until creation of the Navy in what year?
    1798
  121. Year the Life-Saving Service was 'reborn' under the leardership of sumner kimball
    1871
  122. what year were chevrons implemented
    1886
  123. CG Chiefs created
    1920
  124. USCG transferred to Homeland Security
    3/1/03
  125. MARSEC Level increase time-
    12 hours
  126. 33 CFR 2
    Jurisdictions
  127. 33CFR3
    COTP Zones
  128. 3 vessels with a skimmer use _____ boom configuration?
    V
  129. IOPP Tank vessles of ___ GT
    150
  130. Capor Control System Vacuum ____ psi
    2.0
  131. ISSC is good for_______
    5 years
  132. 33 CFR 138
    COFR
  133. Emergency generators required
    ___ hours for ______ GT
    ___ hours for < ____ GT
    • 6 for 5000
    • 3 for <5000
  134. Facilty Fire appliances must be
    readily accesible, conspicuously marked
  135. Facility fire extinguishers are required to be
    adeguate amounts
  136. Security drills are required
    every 3 months
  137. parachute flares ____ on a lifeboat
    4
  138. minimum length of a lifeboat
    24 feet
  139. Max gallon capacity for fire extinguishers
    3 gallons
  140. fire suits required for _____ passengers with a minimum of ____ suits
    • 36 passengers
    • 4 suits
  141. Hearing loss occurs at ____db impact at ___db
    85db, 140db
  142. A continuous, systematic process of identifying and controlling risks in all activities according to a set of pre-conceived parameters by applying appropriate management policies and procedures.
    ORM
  143. ORM is a _____ step process
    7
  144. Step 1 of ORM
    Identify Mission Tasks
  145. Step 2 of ORM
    Identify Hazards
  146. Step 3 of ORM
    Assess Risks
  147. Step 4 of ORM
    Identify Options
  148. Step 5 of ORM
    Evaluate Risk vs. Gain
  149. Step 6 of ORM
    Execute Decision
  150. Step 7 of ORM
    Monitor Situation
  151. Page 1 of the  ICS 201
    Map sketch and summary
  152. Page 2 of ICS 201 form
    Current and Planned objectives
  153. Page 3 of ICS 201 form
    Current Organization
  154. Page 4 of ICS 201
    Resource Summary
  155. ICS 202 form
    Incident Objectives
  156. ICS 203 form
    Organization Assignment List
  157. ICS 204
    Assignment List
  158. ICS 205 form
    Incident Radio communications plan
  159. ICS 208 form
    Safety plan
  160. ICS 215 form
    Operational Planning worksheet
  161. ICS 215A form
    Incident Action Plan Safety Analysis
  162. ICS 219 form
    T-Card
  163. ICS 221 form
    Demobilization
  164. What bill was passed Nov 22, 2002
    Patriot Act
  165. where do we get our authority to board boats
    14 USC 89(a)
  166. If MISLE data indicates that the vessel has been the subject of an intervention leading to detention within the past 12 months, assign ____ points for each detention.
    5
  167. If MISLE data indicates the Coast Guard has not performed a PSC Safety and Environmental Compliance Examination in the past 12 months (or Certificate of Compliance (COC) Examination), assign PII status to the vessel. This requirement may be relaxed for freight vessels enrolled in the_______
    Qualship 21
  168. If MISLE data indicates that the vessel has been the subject of any other form of operational control within the past 12 months (i.e., COTP Order or Customs hold), assign _____ for each incident.
    1 point
  169. If MISLE data indicates that the vessel has been involved in any marine casualty or pollution cases within the past 12 months, assign __________________
    1 point for each case.
  170. a Priority 1 vessel has ____ or more points
    17
  171. a Priority II Vessel has between ____ and ___ points
    7 to 16
  172. (NPV) Non Priority Vessel has _____ points
    0-6
  173. Non-SOLAS vessels get ____ points in ISPS column II?
    7
  174. ISPS Tagetting Matrix assigns __pts for 1 RSO related major control action, and ___ pts for 2.
    2, 5
  175. PSC matrix listed Owner gets ___pts
    5
  176. PSC matrix assigns ___pts for Flag state has a detention ratio 2 or more times overall average for all flag states
    7
  177. PSC matrix assigns ____ pts for Oil or Chemical Tanker, Gas Carrier or Passenger ship
    1
  178. PSC Matrix assigns ____ for bulk freighter 10 yrs old or less
    1 point
  179. PSC matrix assigns _____ for Bulk Freighter over 10yrs old up to 20yrs
    2 points
  180. PSC Matrix assigns _____ for Bulk Freighter over 20yrs old
    4
  181. PSC Matrix assigns ____ for each detention within previous 12 months
    5
  182. PSC matrix assigns _____ for each operational control (other than detention) in past 12 months
    1 point
  183. PSC Matrix assigns ____ for each casualty within the past 12 months
    1 point
  184. AIS Required ____ feet
    65
  185. MARPOL Annex I
    OIL
  186. Marpol annex II
    NLS in bulk
  187. Marpol Annex III
    Harful Substances in packaged form
  188. Marpol Annex IV
    Sewage
  189. Marpol Annex V
    Garbage
  190. Marpol Annex VI
    Air Pollution
  191. Who needs to be notified of a Denial of Entry?
    Master and Flag State
  192. What forms are used for a PSC
    5437 A and B
  193. Who gets copy for Form B?
    Master
  194. who issues the COA?
    reception facility
  195. how many bolts for ISC? (international shore connection)
    4 bolts
  196. how many bolts for a standard discharge connection?
    6 bolts
  197. what name is associated with Lime Rock
    Ida Lewis
  198. Security records need to be kept for _________
    2 years
  199. Steering Drills must be conducted ___ prior to entering port
    48hrs
  200. What is the lowest level of enforcement
    LOW
  201. length of horizontal line of the Plimsoll Mark?
    18inches
  202. Diameter of Plimsoll mark?
    12 inches
  203. How long is an SMC good for (not interim)
    60 months
  204. Vessels of ____ GT or more must have 2 independently operated radar systems
    10,000
  205. How many hours before getting underway must a vessel test their emergency steering system?
    12
  206. Hearing protection is requried for ____db
    85
  207. what do you call the vertical rise and fall of the ocean
    tide
  208. When writing a discharge amount on an NOV, the estimated volumen must be in ______
    whole gallons
  209. At which speed should the steering gear be able to function
    Max service speed
  210. A vessel with a power driven main steering gear must be provided with a _____ to stop the steering gear before it reaches the rudder stops
    Limit switch
  211. What year did the international SMS become applicable to all cargo modus
    2002
  212. What amount of containment is required on a facility with (4) 6" hoses
    2 bbls
  213. What is the leading edge of an air mass called?
    Front
  214. how much containment shall a mobil facility have?
    5 gallons
  215. When can we issue a NOFA
    When removal effort is insufficient
  216. a Notice of Federal Assumption shall notify the RP of what?
    Response activities
  217. Administrative orders must include what?
    Date/Time
  218. What portions of pollution response can an OSC take charge
    the OSC may assume total or partial control or response activities
  219. Who must have the emergency shutoff if a facility is transferring to a vessel
    Facility and the vessel PIC
  220. How should hoses that are used for Hazmat be marked?
    HAZMAT SERVICE - SEE LIST followed immediately by a letter number or other symbol
  221. SOLAS chapter 3, Part A applies to what
    General
  222. SOLAS Chapter 3, Part B applies to
    Requirements for ships and lifesaving appliances
  223. Pressure guages must show within ___% of actual pressure
    10
  224. What is legally allowed to drip in containment?
    • Packing glands
    • 33CFR156.120(p)
  225. How many smoke signals are on a lifeboat
    2
  226. How many hours do facilities have to comply with a MARSEC level change
    12
  227. Who must Facilities notify of a TSA incident
    COTP
  228. How many windows shall you be able to see from on the navigational bridge regardless of weather?
    2
  229. From the main steering position, the horizontal field of vision shall be directly ahead and at least ____ degrees each side
    60
  230. NOVs can be issued for oil spills how many gallons or less/
    1,000
  231. What is the max penalty for an NOV?
    $10,000
  232. for sexual assult with unrestriced reporting, who has the sold responsibility for the investigation?
    CGIS
  233. What does SAPP stand for?
    Security Accuracy Policy Propriety
  234. Your govt travel card credit limit will only be increased_____
    with orders
  235. What reason can you not be separated from the military?
    civilian opportunities
  236. What is agenerally a function of severity and probability?
    Risk
  237. Which personnel are authorized to participate in morale events?
    All active duty personnel and their dependents, Members of the ready reserve, reserve in training, National Guard, and their dependants,Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service and their dependents, Armed Forces retirees from active duty/reserves and their dependents, Honorably discharged veterans with 100 percent service connected disability and their dependents, Medal of Honor recipients and their dependents, Un-remarried surviving spouses and their dependents (with military ID cards) of military personnel who died while on active duty or while in retired status, Un-remarried former spouses who were married to a military member for at least 20 years while the military member was on active duty of the armed forces, and their dependants.
  238. OCONUS ashore units are a priority___
    4
  239. What year did the NAVY recognize 3 classes of petty officer?
    1885
  240. When you want to email someone with information that does not require their
    involvement or response to email, how should you send it?
    CC:
  241. CGBI consists of
    People, Infrastucture, Equipment, and training
  242. and NOV infroms the RP of what?
    Proposed penalty
  243. a Fire Main must be of sufficeint diameter to accomodate ___ fire pumps
    2
  244. How long is the Safety management Certificate good for?
    5 years
  245. a Lifeboat seat must be located
    Thwarts
  246. What is the most important document when realted to samples?
    Chain of Custody
  247. Suspected source samples include, but are not limited to, any facility or vessel that had __________ to cause the spill
    Opportunity
  248. Facilities recieving oily mixtures, NLS and garbage are called what?
    Reception Facilities
  249. The facility owner or operator shall design the excercise program so that all components of the response plan are excercised at least once every ___
    3 years
  250. QI Drills must be conducted ______
    Quarterly
  251. Combing must not be more that ______ high
    8 inches
  252. A tank vessel with the capacity of 250 barrels or more that is carrying oil or hazmat must have how much containments for a hose with the inside diameter of 12 inches or more?
    4 barrels
  253. Inland oil barges must have how much appropriate equipment and supplies ready for immediate use and control on-deck oil spills?
    1 barrel
  254. Offshore Oil barges and oil tankers that are over 400 feet shall have how much appropriate equipment and supplies for containment and removal of on-deck oil cargo spills?
    12 barrels
  255. Facilities that could reasonable be expected to cause substantial harm to the environment may be required to have more what?
    Response Equipment
  256. The life boat launching supply unit shall include what to prevent premature relaease?
    Automatic Release Hook
  257. Which ships need the Fresh water and Winter Atlantic load line?
    Sailing Ships
  258. Where is teh Timber Load Line located
    Abaft the Plimsoll marking
  259. What is the uppermost load line?
    TF (Tropical Fresh)
  260. The horizontal line on the Plimsoll mark is equal distance to what?
    Summer freeboard
  261. Who must certify that PICs have been trained per OSHA regulations?
    Facility Operator
  262. Where does the PIC designation have to be?
    The entire contents of the container in which the oil is stored or transported. (33 CFR 154.1029(c)
  263. For HAZMAT transfers, the facility must be able to stop the flow within ____ on a facility that first transfers after _______
    30 seconds, 1990
  264. The facility owner must submit and Water Suitablity Assessment (WSA) in accordance with 33 CFR 127.007 with what?
    Letter of Intent (33 CFR 127.007)
  265. How far should a warning alarm be heard
    1 mile
  266. Deep penatration of oil and rapid burial is what shoreline  charactersitic type?
    Gravel Beaches
  267. What kind of shoreline is
    utilized by bird and turtles for nesting and feeding?
    Fine-grain sand beaches
  268. Hotwork must be done how far from gas freeing operations?
    Its prohibited
  269. O-3 in Marines
    Captain
  270. What is an ICS 201
    Incident Briefing
  271. An NOV for facilities at MARSEC 3, the penalty shall be multipolied by?
    2
  272. An NOV for anything regulated under 104, 105, or 106 shall be marked how?
    SSI
  273. How soon in advance must a 127 facility submit amendments for incleasing the size of the facility to the COTP?
    1 year
  274. How long is a Declaration of Security good for?
    90 days
  275. What should be used to protect oil from going out a stream?
    Berm
  276. How long does a 154 facility need to keep their drill records?
    3 years
  277. How often does facility owned boom need to be deployed?
    Semi-annually
  278. How often does and OSRO owned boom need to be deployed
    Annually
  279. What gives the authority to conduct pollution investigations?
    33 CFR 6
  280. Goast Guard personnel shall
    be trained to which HAZWOPER level?
    Awareness
  281. A tropical cyclone over Northern Atlantic that is 74 mph is what?
    Hurricane
  282. What kind of tape do you use for sample jars?
    Vinyl Electric
  283. How much sorbent is needed for one box containing samples?
    enough for 1 jar to break
  284. Tar patties are how many cm or larger?
    10
  285. Permanent female eyeliner that is tattooed on must not exceed _______inches
    1/8
  286. What is the upper most horizontal line on the vessel's hull indicate?
    Deck line
  287. Every life raft shall be capable of withstanding exposure for ____ afloat in all sea conditions.
    30 days
  288. No life boat shall be approved to accommodate more than _____ persons
    150
  289. How many VHF radios need to
    be provided on passenger ships?
    • At least 2 for vessels 300-500 GTs
    • At least 3 for vessels 500+ GTs
  290. Vessels over ____ GT are required to have an OWS?
    400
  291. Oil tankers and offshore oil barges over 400 ft must carry how much containment equipment?
    12 bbls
  292. Oil tankers and offshore oil barges less than 400ft must carry how much containment equipment?
    7 bbls
  293. Vessels carrying oil as a secondary cargo must carry how much containment equipment?
    1/2 barrel
  294. Inland oil barges must have how much containment equipment?
    1 Barrel
  295. Emergency towing capability for oil tankers shall be fitted on vessel of ______ dead weight tons (DWT) or more.
    20,000 (33 CFR 155.235)
  296. Vessel of _____ GTs must have up to date charts.
    1600 GT
  297. Charts must be up to date in accordance with what?
    Notice to Mariners
  298. Each vessel of _______GTs or more constructed after September 1, 1984 shall be fitted with a rate turn indicator.
    100,000
  299. When notified of an increase of MARSEC level, the facility owner or operator must notify vessels moored at the facility and vessels sheduled to arrive within ____ hours of the MARSEC level change.
    96 (33 CFR 105.230(b)(1)
  300. On a 105 facility, how long must the FSO keep all records?
    2 Years
  301. How often must drills be conducted on a 105 facility?
    every 3 months
  302. if a vessel is moored at a 105 facility on the date the facility conducts a drill, the facility ______ require the vessel to participate .
    cannot
  303. How often must 105 facilities conduct exercises?
    Once each calender year, not to exceed 18 months (33 CFR 105.215(c)
  304. At a facility, a security drill must address ____ elements of a security plan?
    Individual
  305. At a facility. a security exercise must address ____ parts of a security plan.
    All, full test
  306. How soon before operations at a 154 facility must the facility operator submit the letter of intent?
    60 days
  307. At a 154 facility, what must not be marked on the hoses?
    The hose burst pressure and the pressure used to test the hose (33 CFR 154.500(g)
  308. A 154 facility must remove oil or hazmat from the containment how soon?
    1 hour after the transfer is complete (33 CFR 154.540)
  309. How long must a 154 facility facility maintain Coast Guard inspection records?
    3 Years
  310. A facility alternate security plan needs to be sent to who?
    Commandant (33 CFR 101.120(b)
  311. 17 or more points= ISPS ___
    7-16= ISPS ___
    0-6+ ISPS ___
    I, II, III (NVIC 06-03 Ch. 2)
  312. How many drills are required for Select Reserves?
    48 paid IDT and 12 ADT
  313. When did the rate of petty officer become official?
    1808
  314. What article of the UCMJ is failure to obey a lawful order?
    92
  315. What is the age requirement for Coast Guard Academy?
    17-22
  316. What is the age requirement for OCS?
    21-26
  317. What is the age requirement for PPEP?
    21-32
  318. How many leadership competencies?
    28
  319. What are the four stages of team development?
    Forming, Storming, Norming, performing
  320. What are the 4 types of mentoring?
    Formal, Informal, Situational, and Supervisory
  321. What are the 3 levels of diversity?
    Personal, Interpersonnel, and organizational
  322. What is the definition of leadership?
    Influencing others to achieve a goal
  323. What are the 3 approaches to influencing others?
    Directing, Coaching, Delegating
  324. Members who are E2 and haven't had advanced beyond their paygrade and have more than ___ years of CG service shall normally be discharged after an alcohol incident.
    2
  325. What does LEAPS stand for?
    Listen, Empathize, Ask, Paraphrase, Summarize
  326. Motivation is divided into two basic types of motivators: ______ and _______
    External and Internal
  327. After how many days past due is your Government travel card suspended?
    36
  328. When can you accept a gift in an official status?
    Less than $20
  329. Romantic relationships are prohibted from small shore units less than____?
    60
  330. What is considered a confined space?
    Tanks, Voids, and unventilated spaces
  331. Classified material spaces shall be classified as what?
    Ristricted Area
  332. How many HQ units report directly to Headquarters?
    35
  333. Which type of command is responsible for providing services such as civil, engineering, health and safety, legal and finance to all operational units in it's area?
    MLC - Maintenance and Logistics Center
  334. _____Admirals head up Districts.
    Rear
  335. ____ Admirals lead Atlantic/Pacific Area
    Vice
  336. Large cutters over ______ are under control of Area Command
    180'
  337. Cutters under 180' are under control of ____
    Districts
  338. In what war did Cutters capture 18 prizes unaided and assisted in 2 more?
    Quazi-War
  339. Which War was the Coast Guard Cutter is credited with firing the first Naval shots?
    Civil War
  340. Which War wasthe first time the ENTIRE Coast guard was transfered to the Navy
    WW I
  341. During which war was the "McCulloch" serving as the escort/dispatch w/ Commodore Dewey's
    Squadron?
    Spanish-American War
  342. Which War did the CG primarily play a role as support
    Korean War
  343. After WWII, in what year did the CG return under the Jurisdiction of the Treasury department?
    1946
  344. Which Cutter was torpedoed during WWI?
    CGC Tampa
  345. What year did Congress declare War with Mexico?
    1846
  346. The Cutter Jefferson captured the first prize of which War?
    War of 1812
  347. The Refuse Act of 1899 was the catalyst for what CG Mission?
    Environmental Protection
  348. Drug Smuggling in the 1960's gave which CG Mission increased significance?
    Law Enforcement
  349. The fatality rate of this focus greatly declined as the result of which CG Mission?
    Boating Safety
  350. What year the Federal Life Saving Service was instated?
    1848
  351. Where is the only remaining CG manned lighthouse to located?
    Boston Harbor
  352. Who is a 2-time receipient of the Gold Life Saving Medal?
    Frederick Hatch
  353. Who is the receipient of both Medal of Honor and Gold Life Saving Medal?
    Marcus Hanna
  354. Who has saved over 600 lives,
    won 2 - Gold medals and 3 - Silver?
    Joshua James
  355. Who served at Lime Rock Lighthouse, saved 18 lives and recieved a Gold Life Saving Medal?
    Ida Lewis
  356. Who single handidly saved 10 lives from the grounded ship Priscilla?
    Rasmus S. Midgett
  357. Who is one of the first women to serve in the CG?
    Lucille Baker
  358. The Master, Owner or Agent of each vessel to be lightered must give at least _________ hours advance notice to COTP.
    24
  359. At a facility at MARSEC level 1, how long is a declaration of security good for?
    90 Days
  360. At a facility at MARSEC Level 2, how long is a declaration of security good for?
    30 days
  361. At a facility at MARSEC level 3, how long is a declaration of security good for?
    Everytime
  362. At MARSEC level two, what type of screening must be completed of all unaccompanied baggage?
    X-Ray
  363. Unauthorized access to a restricted area constitutes a ______?
    Breach of Security
  364. On a vessel, how long is an IOPP good for?
    5 years
  365. How long (in hours) does a facility have to comply with an increase in MARSEC level?
    12 Hours
  366. What is the maximum size of the sample jar in ounces?
    4 oz.
  367. What is the UN code for shipping samples?
    UN1268
  368. What should the temperature of the explosion proof refrigerator be at?
    40-42 deg
  369. What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility with fire truck access is _____ feet.
    20
  370. An 0-6 in the Air Force is what?
    Colonel
  371. Rating Force Master Chiefs communicate to their members through _________?
    Force Notes, Field Visits, Direct Contact
  372. How soon before entering US waters must an emergency steering drill be conducted?
    48 hours (33CFR164.25(d)
  373. If a facility has a security breach, who must they notify immediately?
    National Response Center (33CFR101.305(a)
  374. How many stripes on the Coast Guard ensign?
    • 16
    • {The 16 vertical stripes in the body are symbolic of the number of States composing the Union when this ensign was officially adopted.}
  375. The minimum design burst pressure for each hose assembly must be at least four times the sum of the pressure of the _______
    Relief Valve Setting
  376. The minimum design burst pressure for each hose assembly must be four times the _______ when no relief valve is installed
    maximum pump pressure (33CFR154.500(a)
  377. For oil products, each hose must be marked with the words: ___________
    OIL SERVICE
  378. What MUST be marked on the hose in addition to the product?
    MAWP
  379. What must NOT be marked on the hose and must be recorded elsewhere at the facility?
    Burst Pressure
  380. Each non-metallic hose transfer hose must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure at least _____ times the maximum allowable working pressure.
    1.5
  381. The operators of each vessel and facility engaged in the transfer operation shall retained a signed copy of the DOI for at least ______ from the date of signature?
    1 Month
  382. Each person who makes a connection for transfer operations shall use a bolt in at least every ______ hole and in no case less than ______ bolts in each temporary bolted  connection that uses a flange.
    • other
    • 4
  383. The COTP _______ require a facility operator to notify the COTP of the time and place of each transfer operation at least 4 hours before it begins.
    may
  384. A ship, except a ship of less than _______ feet in length must have a placard of at least 5 x 8 inches stating the discharge of oil is prohibited.
    26
  385. Branding may not exceed ___ inches X ___ inches
    4 x 4
  386. What is length of a foreign vessel in the EEZ that requires a Waste Management Plan?
    40
  387. What towing boom configuration can be used to divert oil to a skimmer to allow simultaneous
    containment and recovery?
    J
  388. What point value will a ship enrolled in QUALSHIP 21 get in column V?
    0
  389. What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle of a designated waterfront facility without firetruck access?
    8
  390. Facility owners or operators shall ensure that their response plans are in accordance with the ACP in effect _____ months prior to initial plan submission or the annual plan review required.
    6
  391. The operator of a facility must submit two copies of the operations manual not less than ______ days prior to any transfer operation with the letter of intent.
    60
  392. After a facility is removed from caretaker status, an operations manual must be submitted not less than ______ days prior to any transfer, unless the manual has been previously examined and has no changes.
    30
  393. After the COTP notifies the facilty of any inadequacies in the operations manual, how many days does the facility operator have to submit written information, views, and arguments regarding the inadequacies
    identified?
    45
  394. A cargo tank on a tank vessel may not be filled with oil higher than ______ % of the cargo tank volume
    98.5
  395. Lighting: On a horizontal plane, ___ feet above the deck the illumination must measure _____ foot candles at transfer connection points and
    ____ foot candle in transfer operations work areas.
    3, 5.0, 1.0 (Facilities: 33CFR154.570(b) // Vessels: 33CFR155.790(b))
  396. Ammonium Nitrate, ammonium nitrate fertilizers, fertilizer mixtures, or nitro carbo nitrate must be separated by a fire resistant wall or by a distance of at least _____ feet from organic materials.
    30
  397. Storage of Ammonium Nitrate, ammonium nitrate fertilizers, fertilizer mixtures, or nitro carbo nitrate, storage may be made directly onto a concrete floor if it is first covered with what?
    Moisture Barrier (33CFR126.28(a)(5) - polyethylene sheet or asphaltic laminated paper)
  398. The facility operator _______ (must, may, should, cannot) notify the COTP before conducting welding or hotwork on a vessel when containerized dangerous cargo is located within the distances in 33CFR126.30(f)
    Must
  399. All welding and hot work must be conducted according to NFPA _____
    51
  400. In designated hazardous materials storage areas, how high should the letters HAZARDOUS MATERIALS --- NO SMOKING" be in inches?
    6
  401. Designated Dangerous Cargo
    includes what?
    1.1 and 1.2
  402. The inspection of hazardous materials after stowage on a manned vessel must be completed every ______ hours.
    24
  403. When segregating cargo, "away from" means _____ feet.
    10
  404. When segregating cargo, "separated from" means ______ feet.
    20
  405. When segregating cargo, "separated by a complete compartment or hold from" for on deck stowage, this means ______ feet.
    39
  406. When segregating cargo, "separated longitudinally by an intervening complete compartment or hold from" for on deck stowage, this means _____ feet.
    79
  407. For segregation of cargo transport units on board container vessels, a "container space" means a distance of not less than ______ feet fore and aft and not less than _____ feet athwartship.
    20, 8
  408. A freight container means a reusable container having a volume of _______ cubic feet or more.
    64
  409. Packing Group I indicates ______?
    Great Danger
  410. Packing Group III indicates ______?
    Minor Danger
  411. A label on a package must be able to with stand, without deterioration or a substantial change in color, a _____ day exposure to conditions incident to transportation that could reasonably be expected.
    30
  412. The size of each diamond point label must be at least _____ inches on each side.
    3.9
  413. Each placard prescribed in 49CFR172.500 must measure at least ______ inches on each side.
    10.8
  414. A flammable liquid means a liquid having a flash point of not more than _____° F, or any material in a liquid phase with a flash point at or above ______°F.
    140, 100
  415. A combustible liquid means any liquid that does not meet the definition of any other hazard class specified in 49CFR173, and has a flashpoint above ______°F and below ____°F.
    140F, 200F
  416. How soon before the expiration of the Certificate of Inspection must the owner notify the Coast Guard?
    30 Days
  417. Who issues a Certificate of Inspection?
    Officer in Charge, Marine Inspections.
  418. 46CFR Subchapter D covers what?
    Tank vessels
  419. The term "flame screen" means a fitted single screen of corrosion-resistant wire of at least _______ mesh, or two fitted screens, of at least ______ mesh, not spaced less than 1/2 inch or more than 1.5 inches apart.
    • 30 x 30
    • 20 x 20
  420. On all tank ships, the construction or conversion of which is started on or after July 1, 1951, each cargo tank shall be equipped with a vent with a diameter not less than _____ inches.
    2.5
  421. During transfer of bulk cargo while fast to a dock a red signal (_____ by day and _____ at night) shall be so placed that it will be visible on all sides.
    flag, electric lantern (46CFR35.30-1(a))
  422. While transferring bulk cargo at anchor, a _____ only shall be displayed.
    Red flag
  423. The warning sign at the gangway while a vessel is moored or anchored, unless it is empty and gas-freed shall read:
    Warning, No open lights, no smoking, no visitors (46CFR35.30-1(b))
  424. A Certificate of Financial Responsibility is required for a ______ vessel of any size and a vessel over _____ GT
    Tank,  300
  425. 33CFR160, Subpart C requires vessels to provide Notice of Arrival to __________.
    National Vessel Movement Center (NVMC)
  426. What does MISLE stand for?
    Marine Information for Safety and Law Enforcement
  427. Units shall immediately enter corresponding MISLE activities for all vessels detained, denied entry, or expelled no later than _____ hours after imposing one of these operational controls.
    24
  428. The form number for a Form A is what?
    CG-5437A
  429. The form number for a Form B is _____
    CG-5437B
  430. What form is always given as a Report of Inspection during a vessel exam by Port State Control?
    Form A, CG-5437A
  431. Every person assigned duty ans an officer in charge of a watch or as a rating, forming part of a watch, should receive a minimum of ___ hours of rest in any ____ hour period. The rest period may be split up into two periods, with
    one period being a minimum of ____ hours.
    10, 24, 6
  432. On a cargo ship, how many minutes after an abandon ship drill order has been given does the crew have to safely embark and launch lifeboats?
    10 Minutes
  433. On a passenger ship, how many minutes after an abandon ship drill order has been given does the crew have to safely embark and launch lifeboats?
    30 minutes
  434. What is an E-5 in the Air Force?
    Staff Sergeant
  435. What is an E-6 in the Air Force?
    Technical Sergeant
  436. What is an E-7 in the Marines?
    Gunnery Segeant
  437. What is an E-4 in the Air Force?
    Senior Airman
  438. What were the first 10 cutters in the Coast Guard?
    • Viligant, Argus
    • Active, Diligent
    • General Green, Virginia
    • Massachusetts, South
    • Carolina
    • Scammel, Eagle
  439. Entrainment occurs at how many knots?
    0.7
  440. To be a Chief Warrant Officer, you must have __ years of total active service in the U.S. Armed Forces, with the last ___ years with the Coast Guard.
    8, 4
  441. How long is an oil record book kept on board?
    3 years
  442. Who was the first SPAR E-9?
    YNCM Pearl Faurie
  443. A certifying entity means an individual or organization accepted by _________ to review plans and calculations for vapor control systems.
    Commandant (33CFR154.802)
  444. Inerted means the oxygen content of the vapor space in a tank vessel's cargo tank is reduced to ____ percent by volume or less.
    8
  445. Vapor collection system piping and fittings must be IAW ANSI B31.3 and be designed for a maximum allowable working pressure of at least ____ psig (pounds per square inch gauge)
    150
  446. The vapor control system piping tempurature must not exceed _____°F during normal operations.
    350
  447. A remotely operated cargo vapor shutoff valve must close within ___ seconds oafter detection of a shutdown condition.
    30
  448. Except when a vapor collection arm is used, the last 1 meter or 3.3 feet of vapor piping before the facility vapor connection must be painted _____.
    red, yellow, red
  449. What are the four characteristics of hazardous waste?
    • Toxicity
    • Ignitability
    • Corrosivity
    • Reactivity
  450. Where does the QI need to be located?
    In the U.S.
  451. An IOPP certificate is good for how many years?
    5 (33 CFR 151.19(e)
  452. IOPP certificates are isssued to oil tankers of ___GT.
    150
  453. The International Ship Security Certificate is issued for a period specified by who?
    Administration (ISPS Code 19.3.1)
  454. How long must garbage receipts be kept?
    2 years
  455. How many toilets must be provided for a crew of 8?
    1
  456. What is NOT a standard size of nozzels? 12mm, 16mm, 19mm, 25mm?
    25mm
  457. What percent of lifebouys shall be self lighting?
    50%
  458. An EPIRB that is capable of transmitting a distress through polar orbiting satallite operates at what frequency?
    406 MHz (SOLAS Ch. IV, Reg 7, 1.6.1)
  459. What districts fall under the Atlantic Area?
    1,5,7,8, and 9
  460. What falls under the fourteenth district?
    Honolulu, Hawaii (33 CFR 3.70)
  461. Evidence which in itself proves the source of discharge, is called what?
    Direct
  462. Who is in charge of putting out the IAP?
    Planning Section Chief
  463. What is the date that a self-propelled vessel of 15,000 GTs needs to be equiped with an ARPA?
    Sep 1, 1984 (33 CFR 164.38(b)(3)
  464. How many days does a facilty have to respond to a COTP written notice of inadequacies within the OPS manual?
    45 days (33 CFR 154.320(a)(1)
  465. How many points are vessels that are registered with a trageted flag state assigned?
    7
  466. How many points are vessels that are registered with a trageted flag state assigned?
    1
  467. Points assigned to a vessel under a teargeting matrix do not classify it as _________; only a boarding can reveal.
    Substandard
  468. How many points does an owner, operator, or managing operator of a vessel recieve that is included on a current targeted owners list provided by GMOC?
    5
  469. Which CFR cite requires that there be an appropriate number of translations of the ops manual when conducting a transfer?
    33 CFR 154.300(a)(3)
  470. Who develops and maintains the targeted owners list?
    G-MOC
  471. Flag states are evaluated on their detention ratio for the previous __ months.
    12
  472. Priority I vessels will be scheduled for examination ___________
    Prior to entry into the U.S.
  473. Who may assign a boarding priority for reasons not captured in the targeting matrix?
    OCMI
  474. What are the two types of fit tests?
    Quantitative and Qualitative
  475. What is the order or pages on ans ICS 201?
    • Pg. 1: Map
    • Pg. 2: Actions
    • Pg. 3: Organization
    • Pg. 4: Resources
  476. What form number is a NOFI?
    CG-5549
  477. A safety petty officer is required for units that have at least __ personnel
    40
  478. What is the preferred method for conducting a respirator fit test?
    Quantitative
  479. At what weight are you required to label radioactive materials?
    110 Lbs
  480. How many cm off deck should ammunition be?
    10cm
  481. What is the name of the US flag when displayed on a vehicle?
    Standard
  482. How long must an oil record book be aintained on board?
    3 years
  483. When the moon is 1/4 or 3/4 what kind of tide is it?
    Neap tide
  484. When the moon is new or full and has the greatest tide range, what type of tide is it?
    Spring Tide
  485. A member separated for unsuitability is what type of discharge?
    General
  486. Portable fire extingushers shall weigh how much?
    no less than 5kg, no more than 23 kg.
  487. Which ships need TF loadline markings in North Atlantic winter?
    Barges
  488. Fresh water and Tropical Fresh water markings are located where?
    Forward of the verticle line
  489. How many portable fire extinguishers are required on a vessel over 1000GTs?
    5
  490. Homeland Security has how many directives/duties?
    7
  491. What size is a tarball?
    <10cm
  492. Splash over failure occurs in what type of waters?
    Choppy
  493. Requirement for sorbent material (on deck) for inland barge?
    1 Barrel
  494. Requirement for sorbent material (on deck) for coastal barge under 400 feet?
    7 barrels
  495. Requirement for sorbent material (on deck) for coastal barge over 400 feet?
    12 barrels
  496. Samples for cases involving NOV’s should be sent for?
    “Prep Only”, to preserve for future reference
  497. Class A Mishaps
    • The cost of
    • reportable property damage is $1,000,000 or greater.

    • • A Coast Guard cutter is missing or abandoned, recovery
    • is impossible or impractical, or repair is uneconomical.

    • • An injury or occupational illness results in a
    • fatality or permanent total disability.
  498. Class B Mishaps
    • The resulting cost of reportable property damage is $200,000 or more, but less than $1,000,000.

    • • Any injury or occupational illness results in
    • permanent partial disability.

    • Five or more personnel are "in-patient" hospitalized.
  499. Class C Mishaps
    The cost of property damage is $20,000 or more, but less than$200,000.

    • • A nonfatal injury or occupational illness results in any loss of time from work beyond the day or shift on which it occurred
    • (lost-time case).
  500. Class D Mishaps
    • The cost of property damage is more than $1,000 but less then $20,000.
    • Aviation mishaps where cost of property is less then
    • $20,000.

    • A nonfatal injury or occupational illness occurs that does not meet the criteria of a class C mishap (no lost-time case).

    • • A person is overboard, an accidental firearm discharge occurs, or an electric shock occurs that doesn’t meet the criteria of a higher
    • classification.
  501. Members who are involved in alcohol situations
    not considered as alcohol incidents are to be counseled concerning their abuse of alcohol and informed of the conduct expected of members of the Coast Guard. This counseling must be
    documented on an
    CG-3307
  502. ONLY the following characters have been approved for use in official record message
    traffic:
    ' : , ( ? " / - .
  503. In CGMS, there are two types of messages:
    • Unclassified

    • Classified.
  504. • Notices (NOTE)
    Contain information of a one-time or brief nature.

    Same force as an Instruction

    • Automatically cancelled after 12 months
    • if earlier cancellation date not specified.
  505. • Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)
    • Set of instructions for operations that lend
    • themselves to definite or standardized procedure.

    For internal procedures at a unit.

    Have no defined format.
  506. Instructions (INST)
    Contain information that has continuing reference value or that requires continuing action.

    Remain in effect until replaced or canceled by the originator or higher authority.

    • Review and validate by originators
    • every four years.
  507. Instruct Personnel - There are many important components of instructing personnel effectively. However, the most important is ______
    Attitude
  508. What are the chapters in SOLAS?
    •     
    • I-general, II-1-structure/sudbivision, II-2-fire
    • protection, III-Life-saving, IV-radio communications, V-navigation, VI-cariage
    • of cargo, VII-dangerous cargo, VIII-nuclear ships, IX-safety management, X-high
    • speed, XI-security, XII-bulk carriers
  509. How long is a Passenger Ship Safety Certificate
    good for?
    1 year
  510. How long are all cargo ship safety releated certificates good for?
    5 years
  511. Who needs cargo ship safety releated certificates?
    Cargo ships of 500GT and more
  512. When must annual surveys take place?
    within 3 months of anniversary date
  513. When must the ships bottom be visually surveyed?
    Twice during the 5 year period with not more than 3 years between surveys.
  514. How long may the administration prolong an expired certificate for with a survey?
    Up to 5 months
  515. How long may the administration prolong an expired certificate for without a survey?
    Up to 3 months
  516. Certificates must be in one of these 2 languages, or at least have a translation of one of them?
    English, French
  517. What vessels must have emergency towing setup?
    Tank vessels of 20,000gt or more
  518. On passenger vessels, power-operated doors must close in what timeframe?
    60 seconds from time button is pushed
  519. When must the alarm for  a power-operated door sound?
    Must start 5-10 seconds before door begins to close, then stop upon completion
  520. How long may it take to close a power operated door manually?
    90 seconds
  521. At what speed must a power operated door close?
    20-40 seconds
  522. What must be the capabiloities of the main steering geer?
    Capable of going from 35degrees to 30 degrees in 28 seconds at max operating speed
  523. What must be the capabilities of the aux steering geer?
    Capable of going from 15 degrees to 15 degrees in 60 secopnds at half of the max service speed or 7 knots, whichever is greater.  Capible of being brought up in 45 seconds and operating for at least 30 minutes on ships 10,000gt or more, and 10 min for shipes less than 10,000gt. (II-1/29.4.2 and .14)
  524. What vessels must have duel power supply for steering?
    Tankers of 10,000gt or more and all other ships of 70,000gt or more. (II-1/29.15)
  525. Emergency generators must have enough stored power to start how many times?
    3 times within 45 seconds and 3 additional times within 30 minutes
  526. How long must emergency generators keep critical electronics powered for?
    36 hours on passenger ships and 18/4{emergency lighting} hours on cargo ship
  527. What are class A boundaries?
    Must be capable of preventing passage of smoke and flame for 1 hour, and may not increase in ambient temptured on unexposed side by more than 140/180degreesC within 60/30/15/0 minutes (II-2/3)
  528. What is a class B boundary?
    Must be capable of preventing the passage of flame for half an hour and may not increase in ambient temperature on unexposed side by more than 140/225degreesC for 15/0 minutes (II-2/3)
  529. What is a class C boundary?
    A boundary made of a non combustible material (II-2/3)
  530. What is a non conbumstible material?
    Must neither burn nor give off vapor at 750degreesC (II-2/3)
  531. What ships must have IGS?What ships must have IGS?
    Tankers 20,000 or more.  (II-2/4.5.5
  532. Where in SOLAS is the fire boundary table located?
    Tables 9.1, 9.2, 9.3, 9.4 for passenger ships, 9.5, 9.6 for cargo ships and 9.7, 9.9 for tankers.
  533. Fire doors must be able to close in what time frame?
    10 to 40 seconds (II-2/9)
  534. Power operated fire doors must have stored power to open and close how many times?
    10 times (II-2/9)
  535. The alarm for a power operated fire door must sound for how long?
    It must begin sounding 5-10 seconds before it begins closing and throughout the closure. (II-2/9)
  536. How many fire pumps must a ship have?
    Passenger ships 4,000gt  or more must have 3, other passengerships must have 2.  Cargo ships of 1000gt or more must have 2, other cargo ships must have at least 2 power driven one of which shall be independently driven.    (II-2/10)
  537. What ships must have an international shore connection?
    Ships of 500gt or more  (II-2/10)
  538. What are the hose length requirements?
    Machinery spaces 10-15m, other spaces and open decks, 10-10m, open decks on ships with a max breath in excess of 30m, 10-25m  (II-2/10)
  539. What are the minimum required number and diameter of fire hoses?
    On passenger ships, at least one hose for each hydrant (adequate amount to provide 2  streams of watter at any given spot).  On cargo ships of 1000gt or more, one for each 30m of ship, plus 1 spare, but never less than 5 total, plus what’s required in engine room.  Cargo ships of less than 1000gt,  same as above, but never less than 3.  Ships carrying dangerous goods must carry 3 additional hoses and nozzles.  (II-2/10)
  540. What are the minium nozzle sizes?
    No less than 12mm in accommodation  and service spaces, no less than 19mm for machinery spaces and exterior locations. (II-2/10)
  541. Ships of 1000gt  or more msut have at least how many fire exztinguishers?
    At least 5.  (II-2/10)
  542. Power operated fire doors must have stored power to open and close how many times?
    10 times (II-2/9)
  543. the alarm for a power operated fire door must sound for how long?
    It must begin sounding 5-10 seconds before it begins closing and throughout the closure. (II-2/9)
  544. How many fire pumps must a ship have?
    Passenger ships 4,000gt  or more must have 3, other passengerships must have 2.  Cargo ships of 1000gt or more must have 2, other cargo ships must have at least 2 power driven one of which shall be independently driven.    (II-2/10)
  545. What ships must have an international shore connection?
    Ships of 500gt or more  (II-2/10)
  546. What are the hose length requirements?
    Machinery spaces 10-15m, other spaces and open decks, 10-10m, open decks on ships with a max breath in excess of 30m, 10-25m  (II-2/10)
  547. What are the minimum required number and diameter of fire hoses?
    On passenger ships, at least one hose for each hydrant (adequate amount to provide 2  streams of watter at any given spot).  On cargo ships of 1000gt or more, one for each 30m of ship, plus 1 spare, but never less than 5 total, plus what’s required in engine room.  Cargo ships of less than 1000gt,  same as above, but never less than 3.  Ships carrying dangerous goods must carry 3 additional hoses and nozzles.  (II-2/10)
  548. How many rescue boats must a passenger vessel have?
    1 on each side if 500gt and over, 1 total is under 500gt (III/21.2)
  549. How many lifejackets must a passenger ship carry?
    One for each person on board, plus 5% additional, plus 10% of number of passengers in child size.  (III/22.2)
  550. In lieu of 2 liftboats, cargo ships may have what?
    A frefall on the stern and one davit-launched liferaft (III/31.1.2)
  551. When must cargo ships carry a forward liferaft?
    When it is more than 100m long.  (III/31.3)
  552. What are the territorial seas, contiguous zone and EEZ?
    Territorial seas is up to 3NM out for FWPCA, 12NM for others, contiguous zone is 3-12NM for FWPCA, 12-24NM for others, EEZ is within 200NM
  553. Who needs a TWIC?
    All persons requiring unescorted access to those applicable to 104, 105 and 106 (101.514)
  554. TWIC cards must be compliant to what?
    HSPD 12 (101.415)
  555. What is the applicability of 104?
    Foreign cargo vessels greater than 100gt, self-propelled cargo vessels 100gt or more subject to 46cfr subchapter I, except fishing vessels, vessels subject to subchapters L, H, K, D and O, passenger vessels carrying more than 12 passengers engaged in international voyages, towing vessels greater than 8 meters that service barges subject to I, D and O.  (33cfr104.105)
  556. Who must complete a DOS at MARSEC 1
    Cruise ships and manned vessels carrying CDCs (104.255)
  557. What is the applicability of 105?
    Facilities subject to 126, 127, 154, facilities which receive vessels certified to carry more than 150 passengers, facilities which receive vessels subject to SOLAS XI, facilities which receive foreign cargo vessels greater than 100gt, facilities which receive us cargo vessels greater than 100gt subject to 4cfr subchapter I, and barge fleeting facilities which take barges subject to 46cfr subchapters D and O.
  558. How long does a facility have to increase MARSEC level?
    12 hours (105.200)
  559. What is the criteria for an FSO multiple facilities?
    Must be within 50 miles and in the same COTP zone. (105.205)
  560. How long must DOSs be kept for?
    90 days (105.225)
  561. How long does a new hire have to obtain a TWIC?
    30 days initially and 30 additional if authorized by COTP (105.257)
  562. How long is a FSP good for?
    5 years (105.410)
  563. How long does a facility have to comply with amendments?
    60 days.  (105.415)
  564. How long must a facility notify the COTP before amendments?
    30 days (105.415)
  565. When must an audit be conducted?
    Annually or upon changes?  (105.415)
  566. What is the applicability of 126?
    Facilities which handle bulk solid and packaged dangerous cargo as listed in 49cfr172.101(except for As) and 46cfr148  (126.1)
  567. How wide must isles be?
    2feet (NFPA 307)
  568. How close to ceilings may storage be?
    18 inches (nfpa 307)
  569. How high may containers typically be stacked?
    4 high (126.15)
  570. What warming alarm does a facility of a particular hazard need?
    Either an autidlb alarm or flashing light seen/heard from 1 mile away.  (126.16)
  571. What form is used to apply for an explosive handling permit?
    CG-4260
  572. Dry chemical systems must provide each hose or monitor for how many seconds?
    45 (127.609)
  573. What is the hose testing requirjments?
    1.1 time MAWP once each calendar year and not exceeding 15 months (127.1407)
  574. How long must the fire system simultaneously supply each fixed fire protection system?
    2 hours (127.1507)
  575. What are the time limitations for claims?
    Removal costs 6 years from time of removal completion and damages 3 years after the injury or damage occurred  (136.101)
  576. How long does a RP have to deny designation?
    5 days (136.307a)
  577. How soon after designation must an RP advertise?
    15 days (136.309b)
  578. Who is required to have a COFR?
    All tank ships and foreign ships transporting oil, and vessels over 300gt, and all barges over 300gt if it carries hazmat.  (138.15)
  579. How far in advance must one apply for a COFR?
    21 days (138.50)
  580. How long is a COFR good for?
    3 years (138.110)
  581. Who has to have an Oil Record Book part I?
    Tank ships 150gt or more and any other ocean going ship 400gt or more (151.25)
  582. Who has to haver an oil record book part II
    An oil tanker of 150gt or more and a non oil tanker that carrys 200cubic meters in bulk (151.25)
  583. How long must an Oil record book be kept for?
    3 years (151.25k)
  584. Who needs a SOPEP?
    Tank ships 150gt or more and any other ocean going ship 400gt or more (151.29)
  585. When must a SOPEP be submitted?
    90 days prior to operation (151.27)
  586. How long is a SOPEP good for?
    5 years (151.27)
  587. What is the applicability of 154?
    Any facility capable of operating with vessels carrying oil or hazardous materials in bulk of 250 bbl or more.  (154.100)
  588. What training must PICs have?
    48 hours experience, and OSHA training.  (154.710)
  589. What are the subparts for 156?
    A-transfers, B-lightering, C-gulf of Mexico lightering zones
  590. Who can establish safety zones?
    COTPs and District Commanders (160.5)
  591. Who can establish security zones?
    COTPs and District Commanders (160.5)
  592. Who can establish regulated navigation areas?
    District Commanders ONLY (160.5)
  593. Who must submit a NOA?
    All vessels except for US rec vessels, vessels NOT carrying CDCs which are 300gt or less(except for foreign ones entering D7), and a bunch of other exceptions.  Vessels less than 500gt need not submit a ISM notice.  (160.203)
  594. What are the time restrictions for NOA submission?
    96 hours or 24 hours if the voyage is less than 96 hours (160.212)
  595. What are the time restrictions for NOA Changes?
    24 hours or 12 hours if less than 24 hours in the voyage (160.212)
  596. Where are the strike teams located?
    Atlantic Strike Team, Fort Dix, NJGulf Strike Team, Mobile, ALPac Strike Team, Novato, CA
  597. What are the packing Groups?
    • a. Group I indicates great danger
    • b. Group II indicates medium danger
    • c. Group III indicates minor danger.
  598. How often must containers be examined?
    Every 30 months after it turns 5 years old (452.1)
  599. What is ACEP?
    Approved Continuous Examination Program (452.7)
  600. STCW 951.  What are the sleep requirements for crewmembers?
    At least 10 hours in any 24 hour period which may be broken up into 6 hour and 4 hour.  Must have 70 hours total in any 7 day period.  (STCW 95 A-VIII/1)
  601. What form was developed to ensure consistent enforcement and notification throughout the USCG of regulations governing the transportation of containerized HazMat
    CG - 5577
  602. Ammonium Nitrates need to be stored on -
    Clean wood dunnage or pallets
  603. When a LOW is declined it becomes a -
    Class 1 Civil Penalty
  604. Bulk Haz cargo requires what document to be give to a terminal operator prior to discharge
    DOI
  605. How many bolds are required in a temporarily bolted connection using an ANSI flange
    Every other hole, min of 4
  606. How many unannounced exercises does the USCG do per COTP zone in ACP
    4
  607. if a facility participates in a GUI exercise how long are they exempt
    3 years
  608. facilities must exercise all parts of their facility response plan every ___ years
    3
  609. What is the highest MARSEC Level
    3
  610. who can approve alternatives for an FSP?
    COMDT
  611. What CFR cite governs the parts of a facility response plan
    33 CFR 154.1030
  612. How does the USCG send out information on changes to security measures
    MARSEC Directive
  613. Define
    Substantial Harm MTR facility?
    fixed & mobile capable of transferring to VSL with 250 barrels capacity
  614. How much space shall be maintained around cargo
    2 feet
  615. Define Significant & substantial harm MTR facility
    Depp-water ports & fixed MTR facilities 250 barrels or designated by COTP
  616. Define AMP discharge
    average most probable
    • lesser of 50 bbls or
    • 1% of worst case discharge
  617. Define
    Average most probably discharge (AMP)
    • Lesser of 1200 bbls
    • or
    • 10% of WC discharge
  618. define WC discharge
    • Largest foreseeable discharge in adverse weather
    • (total loss)
  619. the PIC must be ___ in writing
    Designated
  620. How many hours must a PIC have to serve in that role
    48 hours
  621. How much boom does a facility transferring group I-IV oils need to have for AMP discharge
    & how much time to deploy it?
    • 1,000' or 2x length of the largest VSL received
    •   &
    • 1 hour
  622. Quick disconnect couplings need to meet what?
    ASTM F1122 (American society for testing& materials)
  623. MAWP needs to be -
    greater than or equal to the sum of the pressure of the relief valve setting
  624. if the COTP requires amendment to OPSMAN how many days till it is effective?
    60 days
  625. How often may the COTP be notified for a continuing hot work permit?
    COTP may require notice hot work is scheduled.
  626. What must be permanently marked on the loading arms?
    Manufacturer's certification
  627. What is the longest period a facility may obtain a continuing hot work permit?
    1 year
  628. How long must the F/O retain records of exercises?
    3 years
  629. what are the 2 methods the emergency shutdown can operate?
    • Electrical/pneumatic/mechanical
    •     or
    • Electronic voice comms
  630. Where must the emergency shutdown be located
    Near the dock manifold connection
  631. What are the dates and times for emergency shutdown for Oil?
    Hazmat?
    • Oil < 60 seconds if <Nov 1, 1980 or 30 seconds after
    • Hazmat <60 seconds before Oct 4, 1990 and <30 seconds after that.
  632. A facility is required to give ___ hrs notice prior to a transfer?
    4
  633. Minimum design burst pressure for hose assemblies needs to be at least _____
    • 4x the sum of the pressure of the relief valve setting or the
    • max pressure if no relief valves
  634. How high above the deck or walking surface must lighting be?
    3 feet
Author
CThomson
ID
305530
Card Set
MSTC SWE Exam
Description
SWE study material
Updated

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