Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of humans?
B. Respiration is more complicated than it is in very small organisms.
The study of function is to _____ as the study of form is to anatomy.
D. Physiology
Which division of anatomy focuses on the form and structure of the heart, blood, and blood vessels?
D. systemic anatomy
Which of the following is an accurate description of the cellular level of organization?
B. Cells are comprised of different molecules that interact to form larger structures, each type of which has a specific function
The fact that a single defective protein causes cystic fibrosis, a multisystemic illness, proves that
all cells are independent of each other
A. all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent
Lungs are to the respiratory system as the spleen is to the
A. lymphatic system
A structure that senses change is called a(n) ____.
B. receptor
The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions with respect to the external environment is called ____.
A. homeostasis
The prevention of change, by ignoring minor variations and maintaining a normal range rather than a fixed value, is characteristic of
A. negative feedback
the increasingly forceful labor contractions that lead to childbirth are an example of which type of mechanism?
D. positive feedback
Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?
C. An increase in normal body temperature triggers heat loss through enhanced blood flow to the skin and increased sweating.
A person who is lying on his or her stomach is said to be in the
B. prone position
Which directional term indicates the back of the body?
B. dorsal
Which of the following anatomical landmarks corresponds to the groin?
B. inguinal
A person lying face up in the anatomical position is said to be in the ________ position.
C. supine
Which term refers to the posterior of the knee?
C. popliteus
Using anatomical terms of direction, supply the word that would make the sentence correct. The stomach is ______ to the lungs.
D. inferior
Which of the following is medial to the breast?
C. sternum
The wrist is _____ to the elbow.
D. distal
The navel is _____ to the chin.
B. inferior
Anterior is to ______ as posterior is to dorsal.
C. ventral
Choose the directional term to make the following sentence correct. The knee is ______ to the foot.
C. proximal
The heart, lungs, and small intestine would collectively be found in the
D. ventral body cavity
The diaphragm separates the _______ cavity from the _____ cavity.
B. thoracic; abdominopelvic
The mediastinum separates _________ from the __________.
B. one pleural cavity; other pleural cavity
Atoms of the same element have the same number of ______ but may have a different number of ________.
A. protons; neutrons
If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 14, then an electrically neutral atom of this element contains.
C. 6 neurtrons
When an anion and a cation are electrically attracted to each other, ______ is formed.
B. an ionic bond
Which of the following is a characteristic of hydrogen bonds?
C. hydrogen bonds can form between adjacent molecules
Which of the following is an example of anions?
B. choloride
Matter containing two atoms of the same element that are bonded together by shared electrons are called
A. molecules
In a molecule of hydrogen, a pair of electrons is shared equally. Such a bond is called a(n)
C. nonpolar covalent bond
If two pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms, what type of bond occurs?
C. double covalent bond
Chlorine atoms have seven electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, one would expect chlorine to form ions with a charge of
A. -1
Which statement about the reaction H2 + C2 → 2HCl is correct?
A. HCl is the product
When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis,
C. a condensation reaction occurs
Hydrolysis is an example of which type of reaction?
A. decomposition reaction
Choose the most accurate definition of chemical reaction.
C. it is a process in which bonds between atoms are formed or broken
The reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 would be an example of a(n)
A. synthesis reaction
AB → A + B is to decomposition as A + B ↔ AB is to
C. reversible
Chemical reactions that occur in the human body are catalyzed by special protein molecules called ____.
B. enzymes
In an endergonic reaction,
A. energy is consumed during the reaction
Which is the mechanism of enzyme functioning?
C. Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction
The best definition of organic material is anything that contains
D. carbon and hydrogen covalently bonded
A mixture of water and salt would result in breaking down the salt into a mixture of cations and anions. This process is called ____.
D. dissociation
Which of the following substances would be nearest the pH of human blood?
D. pure water, pH 7
Why is it important to precisely regulate the pH of blood or other body fluid?
C. hydrogen ions are extremely reactive
When placed in solution, an inorganic substance dissociated completely, forming hydrogen ions and anions. This substance would be a
C. strong acid
Functionally, carbohydrates are most important as ________ .
D. sources of energy
The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
A. glucose
A class of lipids used as chemical messengers, to signal cells to undergo changes, is called
D. steroids
Lipids are used for which of the following?
B. to form essential structural components of cells
Molecules that perform almost all cell function are called
B. proteins
A DNA nucleotide specifically consists of
C. a deoxyribose sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group
According to the rules of complementary base pairing, a nucleotide containing the base cytosine would only pair with a nucleotide containing the base
A. guanine
The hydrolysis of ATP yields the molecule ____. a. adenine
b. phospholipid
c. adenosine diphosphate
d. thymine
c. adenosine diphosphate
Choose the correct pairing of macromolecule type to its function.
A. carbohydrate- major source of energy
Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory?
B. Cells are the basic structural unit of life
The plasma membrane
A. regulates the exchange of substances with the environment
Structurally, the plasma membrane
C. is composed of a bilayer of lipids
Plasma membranes allow certain molecules to pass, while blocking others. This is called
B. selective permeability
Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?
B. sensitivity to changes in the extracellular fluid
The movement of water across a membrane from an area of higher water (low solute) concentration to an area of lower water (higher solute) concentration is known as
C. osmosis
The process by which molecules such as oxygen are moved into cells along their concentration gradient directly through the cell membrane is called
A. diffusion
The process that occurs when hydrostatic pressure pushes materials through a membrane is called
C. filtration
Immersion of red blood cells into a(n) _____ solution results in lysis of the cell.
D. hypotonic
Crenation occurs when a blood cell is place in a(n)
C. hypertonic solution
Two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane with the same properties as a cell membrane. Solution A is 5 percent glucose and solution B is 10 percent glucose. Under these circumstances,
A. water will move from solution A to solution B
A process that requires ATP energy to move a substance independently of its concentration gradient is called
A. active transport
How does facilitated diffusion differ from simple diffusion?
C. The rate of transport cannot increase indefinitely in facilitated diffusion
The peroxisome
D. breaks down fatty acids and other organic compounds
The structure that allows locomotion in some cells is the
A. flagellum
Synthesis of phospholipids is a function of the
D. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Membrane renewal vesicles are formed by
C. the Golgi apparatus
Synthesis of most ATP takes place in the
A. mitochondria
When activated, lysosomes may function in
B. autolysis
Cilia are found
C. in cells that are required to move fluids or secretions along the cell surface
Which of the following is a function or property of the mitochondria?
D. ATP production
If a cell lacked centrioles, it probably would not be able to
D. divide
When a protein is synthesized on fixed ribosomes, it is threaded into the lumen of which structure(s)?
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Examination of a sample cells reveals large numbers of mitochondria compared to most other cells. Which of the following is a likely reason for this?
B. the cells have very high energy requirements
The control center for cellular operations is the
C. nucleus
Transcription occurs in the
B. nucleus
The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence UAG on a tRNA is
A. AUC
Translation takes place on the ____.
D. ribosome
Which of the following sequences is correct?
B. triplet-codon-anticodon-protein
Identify the phase of mitosis, which ends when daughter chromosomes move to the centrioles at opposite poles of the cell.
B. anaphase
Before a cell can divide by mitosis, which of the following must occur?
C. replication of the DNA
When genes are switched off to allow a cell to restrict or specialize its functions, the process is called
B. differentiation
Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissues?
D. differentiation
Which of the following is a correct statement about stratified epithelia?
C. they cover surfaces that are subjected to mechanical or chemical stress
Skeletal muscle is to muscle tissue as bone is to
D. connective tissue
Functions of connective tissue include
C. storage of energy reserves
Why does damaged cartilage heal slowly?
A. cartilage is avascular, so nutrients and other molecules must diffuse to the site of injury
What is the primary function of any serous membrane?
A. it minimizes friction between the opposing surfaces when an organ moves or changes shape
Tissue that is specialized for contraction is _______ tissue.
D. muscle
During regeneration, fibroblasts produce a dense network of collagen fibers known as _____ tissue.
C. scar
Restoring homeostasis after tissue injury involves which of the following?
C. inflammation and regeneration
Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane?
C. epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
Functions of the skin include
A. regulating body temperature
Which of the following is the function of the combination of epidermal ridges and dermal papillae?
B. increase surface are for diffusion between the dermis and epidermis
The protein that contributes to many of the skin's protective qualities is called ____.
B. keratin
Choose the correct order of the cell layers, or strata, in a section of thick skin, from the basement membrane toward the free surface (deep to superficial).
1. stratum lucidum
2. stratum basale
3. stratum corneum
4. stratum granulosum
5. stratum spinosum
D. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
The observed differences in skin color reflect the levels of ______ production.
C. melanin
Exposure of the skin to ultraviolet light
B. can slowly increase melanocyte activity
When the body is overheated, the skin responds by
B. dilating blood vessels
When a person becomes "pale." what is the physiologic basis?
C. the blood supply to the skin decreases
The dermis is composed largely of _____.
D. dense irregular connective
The hypodermis
B. is quite elastic
When the arrector pili muscles contract,
C. "goose bumps" are formed
Merocrine sweat glands
A. respond primarily to elevated body temperature
Perspiration that is produced by apocrine sweat glands
C. is limited to the hair follicles of the axilla, nipples, and groin
Regulatory functions of the skeletal system include
A. maintaining the normal concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in body fluids
Bone cells capable of dissolving the bony matrix are termed
B. osteoclasts
Immature, active bone cells that produce new bone matrix are termed
D. osteoblasts
The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates
B. epiphyseal growth has ended
During the process of ____, an existing tissue is replaced with bone.
B. ossification
One role of the fontanels is to
C. allow for the change in shape of the skull during childbirth
The following are major steps in the process of endochondral ossification:
1. Bone forms at the diaphysis surface'
2. Secondary ossification centers form in the epiphyses.
3. Chondrocytes enlarge and calcify.
4. Osteoclasts create a marrow cavity.
5. Blood vessels invade the inner cartilage and new osteoblasts form spongy bone at a primary ossification center.
The correct order for these events are
D. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
The paranasal sinuses function in
C. lightening the skull and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium
Which of the following statements describes how muscles help maintain homeostasis?
D. skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature
Skeletal muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that these muscle fibers
A. have many nuclei
The skeletal muscle structures that actively shorten and are responsible for muscle fiber contraction are called
B. myofibrils
Rigor mortis occurs as death due to a lack of
C. ATP
Which of the following is one of the steps that ends a contraction?
D. acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase
In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases
A. calcium ions
As a skeletal muscle contraction is initiated, acetylcholine binding alters the motor end plate membrane's permeability to
D. sodium ions
Botulism
D. results from a bacterial toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at the axon terminals
Which of the following occurs as a result of motor units in particular muscle being always active, even though their contractions do not produce enough movement to cause contraction?
B. muscle tone
Which statement regarding the relaxation phase of a muscle twitch is true?
D. muscle tension falls to resting levels
Choose the correct statement regarding motor units.
D. a motor neuron may control two or three muscle fibers of the eye
Creatine phosphate serves to
D. supply energy to synthesize ATP
Exhaustion of energy reserves or decline in pH due to production and dissociation of lactic acid causes
A. muscle fatigue
During moderate activity, which of the following is true regarding muscle metabolism?
B. glucose and fatty acids are catabolized
Which of the following occurs when glycolysis produces pyruvate faster than it can be used by the mitochondria?
C. lactic acid is produced
A person whose genetic makeup makes him or her a better marathon runner than a sprinter probably has more _____ in his or her leg muscles.
B. slow fibers
Which of the following is characteristic of cardiac muscle?
A. cardiac muscle cells are striated
The myelin sheaths that surround the axons of the neurons in the CNS are formed by
B. oligodendrocytes
Small phagocytic glial cells, which are derived form white blood cells, are called
C. microglia
The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is the outer layer of
B. Schwann cells
Interneurons
B. are found only in the central nervous system
Most neurons lack centrioles. This observation explains
D. why such neurons cannot divide through mitosis
The all-or-none principle states that
D. all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials
Changes in the membrane potential that cannot spread far from the site of stimulation are called _______.
C. graded potentials
Saltatory conduction
A. is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated axon
Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels in the membrane of a neuron results in
A. depolarization
During continuous conduction,
D. local currents depolarize adjacent areas of membrane so that action potentials continue to form along the membrane
Identify the correct sequence of steps in the generation of an action potential.
1. Activation of sodium channels and rapid depolarization
2. Inactivation of sodium channels and activation of potassium channels
3. Depolarization to threshold
4. Closing of potassium channels
B. 3, 1, 2, 4
If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is severed,
A. incoming sensory information would be disrupted
The primary connection between cerebral hemispheres is the
C. corpus callosum
The ____ acts as a switching and relay center for integration of conscious and unconscious sensory information and motor commands
B. diencephalon
The visual cortex of the cerebrum is located in the ____.
C. occipital lobe
The primary motor cortex of the cerebrum is located in the _____.
A. precentral gyrus
The part of the CNS that adjusts voluntary and involuntary motor activities on the basis of sensory information and stored memory of previous movements is the
B. cerebellum
Major centers concerned with autonomic function, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration is the
A. medulla oblongata
Regions of the brain that are involved in interpreting data or coordinating motor responses are
C. association areas
The region of the brain that is involved in conscious thought and intellectual functions as well as processing somatic sensory and motor information is the
B. cerebrum
The automatic processing center responsible for programming and fine-tuning movements controlled at the conscious and subconscious levels is the
B. cerebellum
Which of the following performs such abstract intellectual function as predicting the future consequences of events or actions?
A. prefrontal cortex
If Broca's area is damaged, what might result?
B. loss of the ability to speak
Stimulation of the reticular formation results in
C. increased attention
Monosynaptic reflexes
C. are exemplified by the stretch reflex
Pulling away from a painful stimulus is an example of a(n) ____ reflex.
B. withdrawal
The flexor reflex
A. is a withdrawal reflex
Which of the following lists the parts of a reflex arc in the correct order?
D. receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
Which pathway provides subconscious, involuntary control of muscle tone and movements of the neck, trunk, and limbs?
D. medial pathway
The spinal pathway(s) that carries/carry highly localized sensory information concerning fine touch and pressure is/are the
B. posterior column
The spinal pathway(s) that carries/carry information regulating skeletal muscle tone is/are the
C. medial and lateral pathways
Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving
C. both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
The conscious awareness of a sensation is called
B. perception
The fading of a dominant odor some time after one enters a room is an example of experiencing
D. sensory adaptation
Which statement regarding sensory reception is correct?
C. the CNS interprets the nature of sensory information entirely on the basis of the area of the brain stimulated
Proprioceptors
C. do not adapt to constant stimulation
The mechanism of gustatory reception seems to parallel that of
C. olfactory receptors
Humans are most sensitive to which taste?
B. bitter
The lacrimal glands
C. have a dozen or more ducts
The fibrous layer of the eye
A. consists of the sclera and the cornea
The vitreous body
D. helps to stabilize the eye shape
The lens focuses the visual image on the photoreceptors by
C. changing shape
The ciliary muscle helps to
A. pull the lens into a more rounded shape
The highest concentration of cones is in the _____.
A. fovea centralis
A person suffering from ____ can see distant objects more clearly than those that are close.
C. hyperopia
Night blindness can be treated by administering
A. vitamin A
In the visual pathway, each cerebral hemisphere receives visual information from
C. the lateral half of the retina on the same side, and from the medial half of the retina on the opposite side
Movement of the sensory receptors in the ampullae of the semicircular canals
D. stimulates the receptor cells, alerting us to rotational movement
Sound energy is converted into mechanical movements by the
D. tympanic membrane
The sense of hearing is provided by receptors of the
B. internal ear
The frequency of a sound is indicated to the nervous system by the
B. region of the basilar membrane of the spiral organ that is stimulated
_________ deafness results from conduction in the middle ear that block the normal transfer of vibrations from tympanic membrane to the oval window