Microbiology Final Exam

What is spontaneous generation?

How did Francesco Redi attempt to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation?

Which scientist definitively ended the debate over spontaneous generation?

Which of the following steps is NOT included in the scientific method?

When conducting an experiment, it is generally necessary to include __________ groups that are treated exactly the same as treatment groups except for the condition being tested.

If the results from an experiment contradict the hypothesis, what should be a scientist’s next step?

Some critics of Spallanzani’s experiments thought that the reason sealed flasks were unable to spontaneously generate microorganisms was that there was not enough air present to support life. How did Louis Pasteur respond to this claim?

What is a hypothesis?

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to

T/F:Lazzaro Spallanzani was the first scientist to provide evidence disproving the spontaneous generation of microorganisms.
True False

What is the correct order for the application of Koch's postulates?
I. Inoculate suspect agent into test subject and observe that subject develops disease of interest.
II. Isolate and culture suspect agent in the laboratory.
III. Find suspect agent is every case of disease of interest but not in healthy hosts.
IV. Recover and isolate suspect agent from test subject.

Which of the following subatomic particles does NOT have a charge?

In discussions of atomic mass, electrons are often ignored because __________.

T/F:Hydrogen bonds are stronger then covalent bonds.
True False

Sucrose is an example of which of the following?

Which of the following is NOT a type of lipid?

Which of the following is a property of water?
A)  it is not a common reactant in metabolic reactions.
B) It is not a good solvent.
C) it has a high capacity for heat.
D) it is a non-polar molecule.
E) it is liquid in a very narrow temperature range.

A protein is a __________ of amino acids.

An oxygen atom has two electron shells and 6 valence electrons. How many total electrons does this atom have?

When the nucleus of an atom contains a constant number of protons but a variable number of neutrons, the atom is called a(n) __________.

What is the common trait of all lipids?

Which of the following prokaryotic cells contains an outer membrane?

Which of the following statements concerning osmosis is FALSE?
A) Osmosis stops when the system reaches equilibrium.
B) Crenation results when cells are placed in a hypertonic solution.
C) During osmosis, water crosses to the side of the membrane with a lower solute concentration.
D) Osmosis requires a selectively permeable membrane.
E) Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will gain water.

Which of the following would NOT be found in the cytoplasm of a bacterial cell?

T/F: All cell membranes contain phospholipids and a wide variety of proteins.
True False

The glycocalyx of a eukaryotic cell performs all of the following functions EXCEPT
A) transfer of genetic material between cells.
B) anchoring cells to each other.
C) protection against dehydration.
D) cellular recognition and communication.
E) strengthening the cell surface.

Lipid A is also known as

A bacterial cell possesses a glycocalyx. Which of the following is NOT true?
A) It will be less likely to dry out.
B) It will be more pathogenic.
C) It will be engulfed more quickly by defensive cells of the host.
D) It will be able to attach to surfaces.

Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial cell walls?

Bacterial cell walls that are resistant to drying contain

When cells are placed in a hypertonic solution, they lose water and shrivel. This process is called

The cell walls of __________ contain peptidoglycan.

The cytoplasmic membranes of __________ contain lipids.

Which of the following is NOT associated with the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell?

Bacterial pili can be described as

Which of the following is a false statement concerning flagella?

Cells engaging in taxis are exhibiting which of the following basic processes of life?

The glycocalyx of microbial cells has all of the following functions EXCEPT __________.

T/F: The capsule found in some bacterial cells is a loose, water-soluble structure.
True False

A cell in a hypertonic solution will __________.

T/F: All types of cells can have a glycocalyx.
True False

Which of the following is NOT a component of peptidoglycan?

Which of the following organelles is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

Which of the following organelles is involved in the degradation of toxic molecules?

Which of the following organelles is involved in producing and transporting proteins throughout the cell?

Which of the following is NOT a primary function of fimbriae?
a) adherence to surfaces  
b) movement toward chemicals or light  
c) enhancing a microbe's ability to cause disease  
d) creation of biofilms

T/F: Eukaryotic flagella, unlike the flagella of prokaryotes, are enclosed within the cytoplasmic membrane.
True False

Why is ATP required for glycolysis?
A)  ATP is used to reduce NAD+ to NADH.
B) ATP makes it easier to break apart glucose into two three-carbon molecules.
C) ATP is used to convert PEP into pyruvic acid.
D) ATP is used to convert DHAP into G3P.

Glycolysis literally means
A) Embden-Meyerhof.
B) sugar splitting.
C) sugar producing.
D) energy producing.

The ________ growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate.

The term barophile refers to which of the following growth requirements?
A) osmotic pressure
B) nitrogen source
C) pH
D) temperature
E) hydrostatic pressure

A clinical sample labeled as "sputum" was collected from

The metabolic processes called fermentation
A) produce substrates for the Krebs cycle.
B) use an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor.
C) are alternatives for the pentose phosphate pathway.
D) occur only when oxygen is readily available.
E) produce substrates for glycolysis.

In which of the following stages of glycolysis is ATP made?
A) energy-investment stage
B) energy-conserving stage
C) lysis stage

The molecule that an enzyme acts upon is known as its

Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as

Oxidoreductases participate in __________ reactions.
A)  anabolic
B) neither anabolic nor catabolic
C) energy neutral
D) catabolic
E) both anabolic and catabolic

Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE?
A)  It both requires the input of ATP and produces ATP.
B) It produces ATP by oxidative phosphorylation.
C) It occurs in the cell membranes of bacteria.

How many net ATP does fermentation yield?

How many ATP does glycolysis yield?

How many ATP does aerobic respiration yield?

Fermentation differs from cellular respiration by __________.

What are coenzymes?

A candle jar would be most useful in isolating which of the following?

A cell which uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a __________.

A cell which uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a __________.
A)  missense mutation.
B) silent mutation.
C) frameshift mutation.
D) nonsense mutation.

A base insertion or deletion in the translated region of the gene may lead to
A)  nonsense mutation.
B) frameshift mutation.
C) missense mutation.
D) silent mutation.

A base substitution that changes a codon coding for an amino acid to a stop codon is called a
A) missense mutation.
B) nonsense mutation.
C)  frameshift mutation.
D) silent mutation.

Ribosomes contain which of the following?
A)  rRNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA

Which of the following is involved in bringing amino acids to the ribosomes?
a) tRNA
b) mRNA

What is the function of the parental DNA in replication?
A) It serves as the template for DNA replication.
B) It gives the cell two complete copies of the DNA.
C) It is passed into the offspring of the parent.
D)  It allows for the DNA to be circular.

What results from the process of translation?
A) polypeptide
B)  mRNAA
C) Ribosomes
D) tRNA

All of the following are associated with nucleic acid structure EXCEPT
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) uracil.
C) phosphate.
D) ionic bonds.
E) ribose.

T/F: The most common type of mutation is a point mutation.
True False

If the codon AAA is changed to AAG, it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example of a
A) nonsense mutation.gross mutation.
B) missense mutation.
C)  frameshift mutation.
D) silent mutation.

The AUG codon functions in coding for the amino acid methionine and as a
A) start signal.
B)  termination signal.
C) recognition site for RNA polymerase.
D) marker for introns.

The process of copying DNA genetic information into the form of RNA is called __________.
a) transduction
b) transcription
c) translation
d) transformation

Which of the following types of mutations creates a stop codon where one did not exist before?
A) silent mutation
B)  missense mutation
C) frameshift mutation
D) nonsense mutation

Insertions and deletions usually lead to which of the following types of mutations?
A)  pyrimidine dimers
B) base-substitution mutations
C) frameshift mutations
D) silent mutations

A haploid cell has __________.
A) a single copy of each of its chromosomes
B) only one chromosome
C)  two copies of each chromosome
D) more than one chromosome

Okazaki fragments are formed because DNA replication __________.
A)  is discontinuous on the lagging strand
B) is performed by different versions of DNA polymerase in different cells
C) is semiconservative
D) involves proofreading

Which of the following is the midpoint of a lytic replication cycle?
A) entry
B) release
C)  attachment
D) synthesis

Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called _____ and the infectious RNA strands called _____. 
A) Prions, capsomeres
B) Prions, viroids
C) Prions, phages
D) Viroids, phages
E) Virions, prions

Double stranded RNA genomes can be found:
a) only in cells
b) in both cells and viruses
c) only in viruses
d) in prions
e) in both prions and viruses

During ______, viruses remain dormant in a cell.
A) budding
B) persistent infection
C) latency
D) oncogenesis
E) lytic replication

The family name of flu (influenza) and Ebola viruses are ______ and ______ respectively.
A) Orthomyxoviridae and Rhabdoviridae
B) Filoviridae and Orthomyxoviridae
C) Filoviridae and Piconarviridae
D) Orthomyxoviridae and Filoviridae

The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA?

The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which  of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection cycle?
A) synthesis
B) assembly
C) entry
D) entry and release
E) attachement

An antimicrobial chemical used on the skin is usually called a(n) ____________.
A) antiseptic
B)  aseptic
C) sterilant
D) disinfectant

Hydrogen peroxide does not make a good antiseptic for open wounds because ____________.
A)  catalase in human tissues neutralizes it
B) it is too toxic for human cells
C) it is too expensive for this type of use
D) it evaporates too quickly

An antimicrobial drug that blocks the transport of NAG and NAM from the cytoplasm is targeting which of the following cellular processes?
A) cytoplasmic membrane synthesis
B) nucleic acid synthesis
C) protein synthesis
D)  cell wall synthesis

Alcohols are used for
A)  disinfection.
B) antisepsis.
C) sterilization.
D) both sterilization and disinfection.
E) both antisepsis and disinfection.

Compared to moist heat methods, dry heat needs which of the following in order to sterilize effectively?
A)  lower temperature and increased time
B) lower temperature and shorter time
C) increased time and higher temperature
D) higher temperature and shorter time

Which of the following is a target of pasteurization?

Aseptic means
A) free of pathogens.
B)  sanitized.
C) sterile.
D) clean.
E) free of all microbes.

The characteristic of adaptive immunity by which the adaptive immune response acts against one molecular shape and no others is called _____.
A) inducibility
B)  clonality
C) memory
D) specificity