blood 2

  1. Select the correct blood type based upon the following reactions:
    Forward: Anti-A (0) Anti-B (O) Anti-A (O),B Anti-D (4+) Reverse: A1 Cell (4+), B Cell(4+)
    O Pos
  2. Which phenotype is the “null type” of the ABO Blood Group System?
    Oh, Bombay
  3. Which of the following blood groups would be the “universal donor” type when transfusing a plasma product such as Platelets to a patient?
  4. With the following phenotype, what percent of the off spring would be group O?
    Mother: AO Father: OO
  5. Which of the following ABO phenotypes has the greatest amount of H substance?
  6. Select the correct blood type based upon the following reactions:
    Forward: Anti-A (0) Anti-B (4+) Anti-A (4+),B Anti-D(0); Du (0)
    Reverse: A1 Cell (4+) B Cell (0)O
    B Neg
  7. Anti-A1 lection is known as:
    dolichos biflorus
  8. ABO antibodies are predominantly:
    IgM saline reactive
  9. The main antigen of the Rh system used to type people as Rh pos or neg, is:
    D Antigen
  10. If we transfuse ABO incompatible blood, we would see what type of RBC destruction in the patient caused by what type of antibody class?
  11. Rh antibodies, most commonly:
    are IgG, do not bind C3
  12. Select the most probable genotype, based on the following phenotype:  C pos, c neg, D neg, E neg, e pos
  13. Which control is used for chemically modified or low protein anti-D reagent when running a Du
    (weak D) test negative control?
    6% Albumin
  14. When an antibody reacts stronger against a cell with a homozygous expression of the antigen it is directed against, this is known as:
    dosage effect
  15. The theoretical (d) antigen is known as:
    an amorph
  16. What percentage of the population is Rh positive?
  17. Coombs Control Cells (checks cells) are added to a negative reaction at the Coombs (anti-human globulin) phase of testing as a QC check on the:
    Coombs sera
  18. All of the following are examples of Indirect Coombs testing, EXCEPT:
    ABO typing
  19. A clotted patient specimen is acceptable to use for compatibility or antibody testing for up to how many hours from the time of collection?
  20. A test that is used for the detection of in-vivo RBC sensitization, where the washed RBC’s of the patient are tested with anti-human globulin, is the:
    Direct Coombs Test (DAT)
  21. All of the following are signs of an antigen-antibody reaction, EXCEPT:
  22. A person who has a positive weak D test must be considered:
    Rh positive
  23. When issuing uncrossmatched Red Blood Cells in an emergency situation, what is the blood type of choice to issue to the patient?
    O Negative
  24. If a weak D (Du) test, reacts 2+ in the test and the negative control, you?
    run a Direct Coombs
  25. The Cw antigen is present in what percent of the U.S. population?
  26. Broad Spectrum Coombs (anti-human globulin) reagents contain:
    anti-IgG and C3
  27. What is the acceptable temperature storage range for blood bank reagents?
  28. At what stage of activation of the Complement cascade do we see total lysis of the red blood cell?
  29. All the following agglutination reactions are macroscopic, EXCEPT:
    w+ or +
  30. Which of the following is true about the rare Deletion type?
    express strong D antigen, no others
  31. Which of the following is true about the rare Rh Null phenotype?
    possess Rh genes, express no Rh antigens
  32. All of the following are examples of proteolytic enzymes, EXCEPT:
  33. All of the following factors affect antigen-antibody reaction in the first stage of sensitization, EXCEPT:
    patient’s ABO type
  34. Rh antibodies are predominately ______and get
    _________ with enzyme.
Card Set
blood 2
blood 2