Anatomy 214-Final Exam 1

  1. Definition: Supine
    Face up
  2. Definition: Cytology
    study of cells
  3. Definition: Homeostasis
    constant internal environment
  4. Definition: Lumbar
    lower back
  5. Definition: Prone
    Face Down
  6. Definition: Metabolism
    all chemical activity in body
  7. Definition: Ventral Body Cavity
    thoracic and abdominopelvic
  8. Definition: Histology
    Study of tissues
  9. A plane that passes perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the part of the body being studied is ___

    A. transverse
  10. Body cavities __

    D. all of the above
  11. The major function of the ___ system is the internal transport of nutrients, wastes, and gases 
    a. digestive
    b. cardiovascular 
    c. respiratory 
    d. urinary
    b. cardiovascular
  12. Which of the following includes only structures enclosed within the mediastinum?
    a. lungs, esophagus, heart
    b. heart, trachea, lungs
    c. esophagus, trachea, thymus
    d. pharynx, thymus, major vessels
    c. esophagus, trachea, thymus
  13. Making a sagittal section results in the separation of __
    a. anterior and posterior portions of the body 
    b. superior and inferior portions of the body 
    c. dorsal and ventral portions of the body 
    d. right and left portions of the body
    d. right and left portions of the body
  14. The primary site of blood cell production is within the __

    D. skeletal system
  15. Which of the following regions corresponds to the arm?
    a. cervical 
    b. brachial
    c. femoral 
    d. pedal
    b. brachial
  16. From the following selections, select the directional terms equivalent to ventral, posterior, superior, and inferior in the correct sequence. 
    a. anterior, dorsal, cephalic, caudal
    b. dorsal, anterior, causal, cephalic
    c. causdal, cephalic, panterior, posterior
    d. cephalic, caudal, posterior, anterior
    a. anterior, dorsal, cephalic, caudal
  17. Illustrate the properties and processes that are associated with all living things
    All living organisms have the same basic functions: responsiveness, growth and differentiation, reproduction, movement, metabolism, and excretion
  18. Utilizing proper anatomical terminology, point out the relationship between the hand and the arm
    The hand is distal to the arm of the upper limb
  19. An analysis of the body system that performs crisis management by directing rapid, short-term, and very specific responses would involve the __
    a. lymphoid system 
    b. nervous system
    c. cardiovascular system 
    d. endocrine system
    b. Nervous system
  20. Applying the concept of planes of sections, how could you divide the body so that the face remains intact?
    a. sagittal section 
    b. coronal section
    c. midsagittal section 
    d. none of the above
    b. coronal section
  21. Analyze why large organisms must have circulatory systems
    They have specialized organ systems in different regions of the body that require osmosis, and diffusion to occur
  22. Determine what body systems are affected by the cleft palate
    Digestive, respiratory, and skeletal systems
  23. Definition: skeletal muscle
  24. Definition: mast cell
    wandering cell
  25. Definition: Avascular
    all epithelia
  26. Definition: Transitional
    urinary bladder
  27. Definition: Goblet cell
    unicellular, exocrine gland
  28. Definition: Collagen
  29. Definition: cartilage
  30. Definition: simple epithelium
    single cell layer
  31. Definition: Ground substance
    connective tissue component
  32. Definition: holocrine secretion
    cell destroyed
  33. Epithelial cells do not ___
    a. cover every exposed surface of the body 
    b. line the digestive, respiratory, reproductive, and urinary tracts
    c. line the outer surfaces of blood vessels and the heart
    d. line internal cavities and passageways
    c. line the outer surfaces of blood vessels and the heart
  34. Which of the following refers to the dense connective tissue that forms the capsules that surround many organs?
    a. superficial fascia 
    b. hypodermis
    c. deep fascia
    d. subserous fascia
    c. deep fascia
  35. The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of ___
    a. cutaneous membranes 
    b. mucous membranes
    c. serous membranes 
    d. synovial membranes
    c. serous membranes
  36. Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial cells?
    a. the may consist of a single or multiple cell layer 
    b. they always have a free surface exposed to the external environment or some inner chamber or passageway 
    c. they are avascular 
    d. they consist of a few cells but have a large amount of extracellular material
    d. they consist of a few cells but have a large amount of extracellular material
  37. Functions of connective tissue include each of the following except, ___
    a. establishing a structural framework for the body 
    b. transporting fluids and dissolved materials
    c. storing energy reserves
    d. providing sensation
    d. providing sensation
  38. Which of the following is not a property of smooth muscle tissue?
    a. is composed of small cells with tapering ends
    b. has cells with many, irregularly shaped nuclei
    c. can replace cells and regenerate after an injury 
    d. contracts with or without nervous stimulation
    b. has cells with many, irregularly shaped nuclei
  39. Tissues changes with age include ___
    a. decreased ability to repair
    b. less efficient tissue maintenance 
    c. thinner epithelia 
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  40. What type of supporting tissue is found in the pinna of the ear and the tip of the nose?
    a. bone
    b. fibrous cartilage
    c. elastic cartilage 
    d. hyaline cartilage
    c. elastic cartilage
  41. An epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by ___
    a. a basal lamina
    b. cancliculi 
    c. sterocillia
    d. proteoglycans
    a. a basal lamina
  42. Which of the following are wandering cells found in connective tissue proper?
    a. fixed microphages
    b. mesenchymal cells and adipocytes
    c. fibroblasts and melanocytes
    d. eosinophils, neutrophils, and mast cells
    d. eosinophils, neutrophils, and mast cells
  43. How does the role of a tissue in the body differ from that of a single cell?
    A single cell is the unit of structure and function, where as groups of cells work together as unites called tissues
  44. A layer of glycoproteins and a network of fine protein filaments that perform limited functions together act as a barrier that restricts the movement of proteins and other large molecules from the connective tissue to epithelium. This describes the structure and function of __
    a. interfacial canals 
    b. the reticular lamina 
    c. the basal lamina 
    d. areolar tissue
    b. the reticular lamina
  45. Connective tissue cells that respond to injury or infection by dividing to produce daughter cells that differentiate into other cell types are __
    a. mast cells 
    b. fibroblasts
    c. plasmocytes
    d. mesenchymal cells
    d. mesenchymal cells
  46. How does a tendon function?
    made of cords of dense regular connective tissue that attaches a skeletal muscle to a bone. The collagen fibers run along the long axis of the tendon and transfer the pull of the contracting muscle to the bone
  47. What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine secretion?
    Exocrine secretions occur in ducts that lead onto surfaces; Endocrine secretions occur in the interstitial fluid and then enter into blood vessels
  48. What is the significance of the cilia on the respiratory epithelium?
    that the mucous layer, will be kept moving and the respiratory surface will be kept clean
  49. What are germinative cells, and what is their function?
    stem cells usually found in the deepest layer of the epithelium. they divide to replace cells lost or destroyed at the epithelial surface
  50. Definition: hypodermis
    e. superficial fascia
  51. Definition: dermis
    papillary layer
  52. Definition: stem cell
    stratum basale
  53. Definition: keratinized/cornified
    stratum corneum
  54. Definition: melanocytes
    pigment cells
  55. Definition: epidermis
    stratified squamous epithelium
  56. Definition: sebaceous gland
    holocrine; oily secretion
  57. Definition: sweat gland
    merocrine: clear secretion
  58. Definition: scar tissue
    fibrous, noncellular
  59. Anatomically "thick skin" and "thin skin" refer to differences in the thickness of the __
    a. papillary layer 
    b. dermis 
    c. hypodermis
    d. epidermis
    d. epidermis
  60. The effects of aging on the skin include __
    a. a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands 
    b. increased production of vitamin D
    c. thickening of the epidermis 
    d. an increased blood supply to the dermis
    a. a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands
  61. Skin color is the product of __
    a. the dermal blood supply 
    b. pigment composition 
    c. pigment concentration 
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  62. Sensible perspiration __
    a. cools the skin surface to reduce body temperature 
    b. provides an excretory route for water and electrolytes 
    c. dilutes harmful chemicals and discourages bacterial growth on the skin 
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  63. The layer of the skin that contains both interwoven bundles of collagen fibers and the protein elastin, and is responsible for the strength of the skin is the ___
    a. papillary layer 
    b. reticular layer 
    c. epidermal layer 
    d. hypodermal layer
    b. reticular layer
  64. The layer of the epidermis that contains cells undergoing division is the __
    a. stratum corneum 
    b. stratum basale 
    c. stratum granulosum 
    d. stratum lucidum
    b. stratum basale
  65. Water loss due to penetration of interstitial fluid through the surface of the skin is termed ___

    A. insensible perspiration
  66. All of the following are effects of aging except __
    a. the thinning of the epidermis of the skin 
    b. an increase in the number of Langerhans cells 
    c. a decrease in melanocyte activity 
    d. a decrease in glandular activity
    b. an increase in the number of Langerhans cells
  67. Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except ___
    a. protection of underlying tissue 
    b. excretion 
    c. synthesis of vitamin c
    d. thermoregulation
    c. synthesis of vitamin c
  68. Carotene is ___
    a. an orange yellow pigment that accumulates inside epidermal cells 
    b. another name for melanin 
    c. deposited in stratum granulosum cells to protect the epidermis 
    d. a pigment that gives the characteristic color of hemoglobin
    a. an orange yellow pigment that accumulates inside epidermal cells
  69. Which statement best describes a hair root?
    a. it extends from the hair bulb to the point where the internal organization of the hair is complete 
    b. it is the nonliving portion of the hair 
    c. it encompasses all of the hair deep to the surface of the skin 
    d. it includes all of the structures
    a. it extends from the hair bulb to the point where the internal organization of the hair is complete
  70. Epidermal ridges __
    a. are at the surface of the epidermis only
    b. cause ridge patterns on the surface of the skin 
    c. produce patterns that are determined by the environment 
    d. interconnect with maculae adherens of the stratum spinosum
    b. cause ridge patterns on the surface of the skin
  71. How and why do calluses form?
    mechanical stresses cause cells in the stratum basale to divide more rapidly, increasing the thickness of the epithelium
  72. Which type of cell is capable of dividing to produce osteoblasts?
    a. osteocyte
    b. osteoprogenitor 
    c. osteoblast
    d. osteoclast
    b. osteroprogenitor
  73. Spongy bone is formed of __
    a. osteons
    b. struts and plates
    c. concentric lamellae
    d. spicules only
    b. struts and plates
  74. The basic functional unit of mature compact bone is the ___
    a. osteon 
    b. canaliculus 
    c. lamella
    d. central canal
    a. osteon
  75. Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of ___
    a. a fibrous connective tissue model 
    b. a hyaline cartilage model 
    c. a membrane model 
    d. a calcified model
    b. a hyaline cartilage model
  76. When sexual hormone production increases, bone production ___
    a. slows down 
    b. accelerates rapidly 
    c. increases slowly 
    d. is not affected
    accelerates rapidly
  77. The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates that _____
    a. epiphyseal growth has ended 
    b. epephyseal growth is just beginning 
    c. growth in the bone diameter is just beginning 
    d. the bone is fractured at that location
    a. epiphyseal growth has ended
  78. The inadequate ossification that occurs with aging is called ___

    A. osteopenia
  79. The process by which the diameter of a developing bone enlarges is __
    a. appositional growth at the outer surface 
    b. interstitial growth within the matrix
    c. lamellar growth
    d. Haversian growth
    a. appositional growth at the outer surface
  80. The sternum is an example of a __
    a. flat bone
    b. long bone
    c. irregular bone 
    d. sesamoid bone
    a. flat bone
  81. A small, rough projection of a bone is termed a __
    a. ramus 
    b. tuberosity 
    c. trochanter
    d. spine
    b. tuberosity
  82. How would decreasing the proportion of organic molecules to inorganic components in the bony matrix affect the physical characteristics of bones?
    a. the bone would be less flexible 
    b. the bones would be stronger
    c. the bones would be more brittle 
    d. the bones would be more flexible
    c. the bones would be more brittle
  83. Premature closure of the epiphyseal cartilages could be caused by __
    a. elevated levels of sex hormones 
    b. high levels of vitamin D
    c. too little parathyroid hormones 
    d. an excess of growth hormone
    a. elevated levels of sex hormones
Card Set
Anatomy 214-Final Exam 1
Anatomy 214-Final Exam 1