SEN635FoundationsofSoftwareTesting.txt

completeness refers to;

A) the ease with which an application can be used.
B) the availability of all features listed in the requirements or in the user manual.
C) the time the application takes to perform a requested task.
D) adherence to a common set of conventions and assumptions.

Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

A) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.
B) Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software.
C) It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.
D) Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing.

Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?
_ _
a) Determine whether enough component testing was executed.
b) Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and
corrected.
c) Prove that all faults are identified.
d) Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures.

Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis and Design?

a) Setting or defining test objectives.
b) Reviewing the test basis.
c) Creating test suites from test procedures.
d) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement.

Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. Which is MOST likely a failure?
_
a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.
b) One source code file included in the build was the wrong version.
c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.
d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.

Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?
_ _
a) Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects.
b) Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and
faults.
c) Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.
d) Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.
B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developers work.
C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment.
D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found.
a) B and C are true; A and D are false.
b) A and D are true; B and C are false.
c) A and C are true, B and D are false.
d) C and D are true, A and B are false.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

a) Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.
b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.
c) Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.
d) Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.

Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?
_
_a) The process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements.
b) The process of testing to determine the compliance of a system to coding standards.
c) Testing without reference to the internal structure of the system.
_d) Testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability or maintainability.

What is important to do when working with software development models?

a) To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.
b) To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.
c) To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.
d) To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.

Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?
_ _ _ _
a) Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied.
b) All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature.
c) Testers are involved as soon as the first piece of code can be executed.
d) For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.

For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

a) Correction of defects during the development phase.
b) Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.
c) Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.
d) Integrating functions during the development of a new system.

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

     A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same.
     B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved.
     C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation.
     D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have
introduced or uncovered defects.
     E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

a) A, C and D and E are true; B is false.
b) A, C and E are true; B and D are false.
c) C and D are true; A, B and E are false.
d) B and E are true; A, C and D are false.

Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?
_
a) Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system.
b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.
c) Component testing focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.
d) Component testing is the responsibility of the technical testers, whereas _system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.

Which of the following are the main phases of a formal review?
_ _ _
a) Initiation, status, preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.
b) Planning, preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up.
c) Planning, kick off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.
d) Preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up, root cause analysis.

Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software
project?

Select 2 options.

a) Informal review.
b) Management review.
c) Inspection.
d) Walkthrough.
e) Technical Review.

Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE?
_ _
a) Static analysis can be used as a preventive measure with appropriate process in place.
b) Static analysis can find defects that are not easily found by dynamic testing.
c) Static analysis can result in cost savings by finding defects early.
d) Static analysis is a good way to force failures into the software.

One of the test goals for the project is to have 100% decision coverage. The following three tests have been executed for the control flow graph shown
below.
Test A covers path: A, B, D, E, G.
Test B covers path: A, B, D, E, F, G.
Test C covers path: A, C, F, C, F, C, F, G.


Which of the following statements related to the decision coverage goal is correct?
a) Decision D has not been tested completely.
b) 100% decision coverage has been achieved.
c) Decision E has not been tested completely.
d) Decision F has not been tested completely.

A defect was found during testing. When the network got disconnected while receiving data from a server, the system crashed. The defect was fixed by correcting the code that checked the network availability during data transfer. The existing test cases covered 100% of all statements of the corresponding module. To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some new tests were designed and added to the test suite.

What types of testing are mentioned above?

A. Functional testing.
B. Structural testing.
C. Re-testing.
D. Performance testing.

A) A and C.
B) A,C and D.
C) A, B and C.
D) A, B and D.

Which of the following statements about the given state table is TRUE?


a) The state table can be used to derive both valid and invalid transitions.
b) The state table represents all possible single transitions.
c) The state table represents only some of all possible single transitions.
d) The state table represents sequential pairs of transitions.

Which of the following statements are true for the equivalence partitioning test technique?

A. Divides possible inputs into classes that have the same behavior.
B. Uses both valid and invalid partitions.
C. Makes use only of valid partitions.
D. Must include at least two values from every equivalence partition.
E. Can be used only for testing equivalence partitions inputs from a Graphical User Interface.

a) A, B and E are true; C and D are false.
b) A, C and D are true; B and E are false.
c) A and E are true; B, C and D are false.
d) A and B are true; C, D and E are false.

Which TWO of the following solutions below lists techniques that can all be categorized as Black Box design techniques?

Select 2 options.

a) Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, state transition, and boundary
value.
b) Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case.
c) Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, checklist based, statement coverage, use case.
d) Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage, use case.
e) Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage and boundary value.

An employees bonus is to be calculated. It cannot become negative, but it can be calculated to zero. The bonus is based on the duration of the employment. An employee can be employed for less than or equal to 2 years, more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5 to 10 years, or longer than 10 years. Depending on this period of employment, an employee will get either
no bonus or a bonus of 10%, 25% or 35%.

How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus?

A) 3.
B) 2.
C) 4.
D) 5.

Which of the following statements about the benefits of deriving test cases from use cases are most likely to be true?

A. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for system and acceptance testing.
B. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful only for automated testing.
C. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for component testing.
D. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for testing the interaction between different components of the system.

a) A and D are true; B and C are false.
b) A is true; B, C and D are false.
c) A and B are true; C and D are false.
d) C is true; A, B and D are false.

Which of the below would be the best basis for fault attack testing?
_ _ _
a) Experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about software failures.
b) Risk analysis performed at the beginning of the project.
c) Use Cases derived from the business flows by domain experts.
d) Expected results from comparison with an existing system.

Which of the following would be the best test approach when there are poor specifications and time pressures?

a) Use Case Testing.
b) Condition Coverage.
c) Exploratory Testing.
d) Path Testing.

Which one of the following techniques is structure-based?

a) Decision testing.
b) Boundary value analysis.
c) Equivalence partitioning.
d) State transition testing

You have started specification-based testing of a program. It calculates the greatest common divisor (GCD) of two integers (A and B) greater than zero.

calcGCD (A, B);

The following test cases (TC) have been specified.
TC         A         B
1           1         1
2     INT_MAX  INT_MAX
3           1         0
4           0         1
5  INT_MAX+1   1
6           1      INT_MAX+1

INT_MAX: largest Integer

Which test technique has been applied in order to determine test cases 1 through 6?

a) Boundary value analysis.
b) State transition testing.
c) Equivalence partitioning.
d) Decision table testing.

Consider the following state transition diagram and test case table:


Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. The test case table exercises the shortest number of transitions.
B. The test case gives only the valid state transitions.
C. The test case gives only the invalid state transitions.
D. The test case exercises the longest number of transitions.

a) Only A is true; B, C and D are false.
b) Only B is true; A, C and D are false.
c) A and D are true; B, C are false.
d) Only C is true; A, B and D are false.

Which of the following best describes the task partition between test manager and tester?
_ _ _ _
a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and controls to be used.
b) The test manager plans, organizes and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies, automates and executes tests.
c) The test manager plans, monitors and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests.
d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.

Which of the following can be categorized as product risks?

a) Low quality of requirements, design, code and tests.
b) Political problems and delays in especially complex areas in the product.
_c) Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics.
d) Problems in defining the right requirements, potential failure areas in the _software or system.

Which of the following are typical test exit criteria?
_ _ _ _
a) Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction and residual risks.
b) Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, degree of tester independence and product completeness.
c) Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, time to market and product completeness, availability of testable code.
d) Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence, thoroughness measures and test cost.

As a Test Manager you have the following requirements to be tested:

Requirements to test:
R1 - Process Anomalies High Complexity
R2 - Remote Services Medium Complexity
R3 Synchronization Medium Complexity
R4 Confirmation Medium Complexity
R5 - Process closures Low Complexity
R6 Issues Low Complexity
R7 - Financial Data Low Complexity
R8 - Diagram Data Low Complexity
R9 - Changes on user profile Medium Complexity

Requirements logical dependencies (A -> B means that B is dependent on A):

How would you structure the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies?
a) R4>R5>R1>R2>R3>R7>R8>R6>R9.
b) R1>R2>R3>R4>R5>R7>R8>R6>R9.
c) R1 > R2 > R4 > R5 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9.
d) R1>R2>R3>R7>R8>R4>R5>R6>R9.

What is the benefit of independent testing?
_ _
a) More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.
b) Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers.
c) Independent testers do not need extra education and training.
d) Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.

Which of the following would be categorized as project risks?

a) Skill and staff shortages.
b) Poor software characteristics.
c) Failure-prone software delivered.
d) Possible reliability defect (bug).

As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in your report?
_ _
a) The number of test cases using Black Box techniques.
b) A summary of the major testing activities, events and its status in respect of meeting goals.
c) Overall evaluation of each development work item.
d) Training taken by members of the test team to support the test effort

You are a tester in a safety-critical software development project. During execution of a test, you find out that one of your expected results was not achieved. You write an incident report about it. What do you consider to be the most important information to include according to the IEEE Std. 829?

a) Impact, incident description, date and time, your name.
b) Unique id for the report, special requirements needed.
c) Transmitted items, your name and youre feeling about the defect source.
d) Incident description, environment, expected results.

From the list below, select the recommended principles for introducing a chosen test tool in an organization?
_ _ _ _
1. Roll the tool out to the entire organization at the same time.
2. Start with a pilot project.
3. Adapt and improve processes to fit the use of the tool.
4. Provide training and coaching for new users.
5. Let each team decide their own standard ways of using the tool.
6. Monitor that costs do not exceed initial acquisition cost.
7. Gather lessons learned from all teams.

a) 1,2,3,5.
b) 1,4,6,7.
c) 2,3,4,7.
d) 3,4,5,6.

Which one of the following best describes a characteristic of a keyword-driven test execution tool?

a) A table with test input data, action words, and expected results, controls execution of the system under test.
b) Actions of testers recorded in a script that is rerun several times.
c) Actions of testers recorded in a script that is run with several sets of test input data.
d) The ability to log test results and compare them against the expected results, stored in a text file.

Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Pilot Project for tool evaluation?

a) To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices.
b) To determine use, management, storage, and maintenance of the tool and test assets.
c) To assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
d) To reduce the defect rate in the Pilot Project.

Below is a list of test efficiency improvement goals a software development and test organization would like to achieve.

Which of these goals would best be supported by a test management tool?
a) To build traceability between requirements, tests, and bugs.
b) To optimize the ability of tests to identify failures.
c) To resolve defects faster.
d) To automate selection of test cases for execution.

Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

A. For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.
B. Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all software.
C. Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products.
D. The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products.

Which of the following is a valid objective of an incident report?

A. Prove that the tester is contributing to the quality of the system.
B. Gives a statistical way to determine which modules to redesign.
C. Provides developers a way to critique their individual work processes.
D. Provides test management ideas for test process improvement.

Which of the following are good candidates for manual static testing?

A. Requirement specifications, website, code, use cases.
B. Requirement specifications, user guides, performance.
C. Requirement specifications, test plan, code, memory leaks.
D. Requirement specifications, test cases, user guides.

What is integration testing?

A. Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration with the rest of the system.
B. Integration of automated software test suites with the application under test.
C. Testing performed to expose faults in the interaction between components and systems.
D. Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.

A test case has which of the following elements?

A. Execution instructions and a function description to determine correct outcome.
B. A test plan, test inputs, and logging instructions.
C. A test environment description and test instructions.
D. A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes.

In any software development life cycle (SDLC) model, which of the following are characteristics of good testing?

I. Providing complete test coverage of all branches of the system code.
II. Having a corresponding testing activity for each development activity.
III. Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available.
IV. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.

A. I and II
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I and III

Which of the following are success factors for reviews?

I. Clear objectives for each review.
II. Checklists and/or roles are used to increase effectiveness of defect identification.
III. There is an emphasis on process improvement.
IV. People issues and psychological aspects are not reviewed.

A. I and III
B. II, III and IV
C. IV
D. I, II and III

Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?

A. Communication is limited between independent testers and developers.
B. Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule.
C. Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.
D. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

Which of the following might be a concern of a test group relying on a test design tool?

A. The tools playback function may not work the same for all testers workstations.
B. The tools test logs may require that the test group upgrade the server memory
C. The tool might take too much time to run, putting the schedule at jeopardy.
D. The tool may not generate sufficient tests for verifying all aspects of the test object.

Company ABC is going to provide their employees with a bonus which will be based on the employees length of service in the company. The bonus calculation will be zero if they have been with the company for less than two years, 10% of their salary for more than two but less than five years, and 25% for five to ten years, 35% for ten years or more. The interface will not allow a negative value to be input, but it will allow a zero to be input.

How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus?
A. Two equivalence partitions.
B. Four equivalence partitions.
C. Three equivalence partitions.
D. Five equivalence partitions.

For the following piece of code, how many test cases are needed to get 100% statement coverage?

Procedure X
Read (Color) // Input color from user
IF (Color == Red) THEN
Call Roses(Color)
ELSEIF (Color == Blue) THEN
Call Violets(Color)
ELSE
PRINT User is no Shakespeare
SaveToDatabase(Color)
End Procedure X

A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 5

Given the following code snippet, how many test cases would we need to get 100% decision coverage?

Each of the following functions simply prints and returns:
------------
PrintOutHeader;
PrintOutSalutation;
PrintOutMainBody;
PrintOutSignature;
--------------

A. 1
B. 0
C. 2
D. 4

A simplified state transition table is being used to model a banks ATM login behavior. Three states have been identified:
     Waiting for Customer
     PIN processing
     ATM Processing
The following events have been identified (note that some have multiple conditions possible: noted in brackets):
     Insert Card [Valid and Invalid]
     Cancel (2 Actions possible: ATM Returns card to customer, ATM Keeps card)
     Enter PIN [Valid, Invalid]
     Done (Action: ATM Returns card to customer)
Like most ATMs, inputting the incorrect PIN 3 times causes the ATM to keep the card and output a message that the card can be picked up the next day at the home bank.

For final regression testing, you are required to test to the level of coverage exercising all transitions. Assume that each test case begins at State 1 (Waiting for Customer.) A test case must end when it arrives back at State 1. ATM operation may be cancelled at the PIN processing state or at the ATM
Processing state.

Based on the following state-transition diagram, what is the minimum number of test cases need to provide this level of coverage?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 3

A piece of code for an operating system contains 1,200 lines of code. The code contains a single IF
statement that contains only an error display. There are no other conditional constructs in the code.
How many test cases are required if the test organization requires the system to be tested to the 50%
decision coverage limit and to 100% statement coverage?

A. 4
B. 1
C. 1,200
D. 2

Which of the following are potential benefits of adding tools to the test process?

i) Reduction of repetitive testing procedures.
ii) Ability to hire testers with fewer technical skills.
iii) Ability to get an objective assessment of progress.
iv) Greater consistency in testing procedures.


A. I, ii & iv
B. i, ii & iii
C. i, iii & iv
D. ii, iii & iv

Who mention that 'Quality is free'?

A. Joseph M. Juran
B. Edwards Deming
C. Philip Crosby
D. Genichi Taguchi

Quality Control is?

A. Detective
B. Preventive
C. Validation
D. Verification

How many maturity levels that indicate process capability CMMi has?

A. 6
B. 4
C. 7
D. 5

What UML diagram is useful for black box testing?
A. Sequence Diagram
B. Class Diagram
C. End-to-End Flow Diagram
D. Object Diagram

What type of tests is performed early in a software testing process?

A. White-box
B. Black-box
C. Grey-box
D. None of the Above

What kind of tools would you suggest to use for the automation of regression tests?
A. Debugging tools
B. Static analysis tools
C. Capture and playback
D. None of the Above

Equivalence class partitioning is?

A. A black-box method
B. A white-box method
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above

Which of the following is non-incremental test?

A. Stab testing
B. Big bang testing
C. Bottom-up testing
D. Top-down testing

What type of high order test subjects the system to large loads over a short period of time?

A. Security testing
B. Usability testing
C. Volume testing
D. Stress testing

Which testing technique involves installing a system at a large number of user sites?

A. Alpha testing
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Volume testing
D. Beta testing

What is the relationship between Quality Assurance (QA) and software testing?

A. QA is part of software testing process
B. Testing is part of QA process
C. Testing and QA are all the same thing
D. Testing and QA are two different processes

Who of the following is the least reliable person to test a program?
A. The testing department in the company that created the application
B. The developer who design the system
C. The developer who wrote the code
D. An independent agency

A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?

A. 5, 100, 101
B. 4, 5, 99
C. 3, 4, 100

True/False: The purpose of exit criteria is to define when a test level is complete.

A. True
B. False

True/False: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing User Acceptance Test Cases .

A. False
B. True

What is a failure?

A. Failure is a departure from specified behaviour
B. Failure is not a departure from specified behaviour

What is Fault Masking ?
A. Error condition displaying another error condition.
B. None
C. Error condition stop another error condition.
D. Error condition hiding another error condition.

True/False: The main benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle is that it helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.

a) True
b) False

True/False: Risk-based testing is the term used for an approach to creating a test strategy that is based on prioritizing tests by risk. The basis of the approach is a detailed risk analysis and prioritizing of risks by risk level. Tests to address each risk are then specified, starting with the highest risk first.

a) True
b) False

Enough testing has been performed when:

A. time runs out.
B. the required level of confidence has been achieved.
C. the users won't find any serious faults.
D. no more faults are found.

Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

A. Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
B. Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
C. Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
D. Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.

Static analysis is best described as:

A. the analysis of batch programs.
B. the analysis of program code.
C. the reviewing of test plans.
D. the use of black box testing.

In the Australian tax rates for 2008-09, the first $6,000 are tax free. The next $28,000 are taxed at 15%. The next $46,000 are taxed at 30%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%.Which of these amounts would fall into the same equivalence class?

A. $6,800; $44,000; $46,000
B. $36,000; $46,000; $78,000
C. $46,001; $57,000; $81,000
D. $7,000; $7,500; $52,000

What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

A. An inspection has a trained leader, whereas a walkthrough has no leader.
B. An inspection is led by the author, whereas a walkthrough is led by a trained moderator.
C. Authors are not present during inspections, whereas they are present during walkthroughs.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author, whereas an inspection is led by a trained moderator.

A failure is:

A. a departure from specified behaviour.
B. found in the software and is the result of an error.
C. a human action that produces an incorrect result.
D. an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.

Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?

A. Integration testing
B. User acceptance testing
C. Regression testing
D. System testing

Which of the following requirements is testable?

A. The system will be user friendly.
B. The safety-critical parts of the system will contain zero faults.
C. The response time will be less than one second for the specified usage load.
D. The system will be built to be portable.

An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

A. Can be performed by inexperienced staff.
B. Are cheap to perform.
C. Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
D. Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.

In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:

A. Obtain good test coverage.
B. Test whatever is easiest to test.
C. Test high risk areas.
D. Find as many faults as possible.

Which of the following would not normally form part of a test plan?

A. Schedule
B. Risks
C. Incident reports
D. Features to be tested

Which of the following should not normally be an objective for a test?

A. To prove that the software is correct.
B. To assess whether the software is ready for release.
C. To find faults in the software.
D. To demonstrate that the software doesn't work.

Software testing activities should start;

A. during the design stage
B. as soon as the code is written
C. when the requirements have been formally documented
D. as soon as possible in the development life cycle

Faults found by users are due to:

A. Poor quality software
B. insufficient time for testing
C. bad luck
D. Poor software and poor testing

What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?

A. to show that system will work after release
B. to give information for a risk based decision about release
C. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
D. to find as many bugs as possible before release

which of the following statements is not true;

A. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
B. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
C. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
D. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test

When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:

A. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
B. firm about insisting that a bug is not a feature if it should be fixed
C. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
D. All of the above

In which order should tests be run?

A. the order they are thought of
B. the most important tests first
C. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
D. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)

The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?

A. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
B. wages are rising
C. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
D. None of the above

Which is not true-The black box tester;

A. is highly motivated to find faults
B. should be able to understand the source code.
C. is creative to find the systems weaknesses
D. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document

A test design technique is;

A. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
B. a process for selecting test cases
C. a way to measure the quality of software
D. a process for determining expected outputs

Testware(test cases, test dataset);

A. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
B. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
C. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code

An incident logging system;

A. is of limited value
B. only records defects
C. should be used only by the test team.
D. is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents

Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:

A. reducing test time
B. no change
C. increasing test time

Coverage measurement;

A. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
B. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
C. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
D. is nothing to do with testing

When should you stop testing?

A. when no faults have been found by the tests run
B. when the test completion criteria have been met
C. when time for testing has run out.
D. when all planned tests have been run

Which of the following is true?

A. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
B. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
C. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
D. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.

What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?

A. how well you know a particular technique
B. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
C. the objective of the test
D. whether there is a tool to support the technique

If the pseudo code below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
1.If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5.Else
6.Display_messageZ;
7.Else
8.Display_messageZ;

A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4

Regression testing should be performed:

v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

A) w is true, v, x, y & z are false
B) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
C) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
D) w, x & y are true, v & z are false

Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?

A. Performance
B. Usability
C. State-Transition
D. Security

Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?

A. Dynamic analysis
B. State analysis
C. Coverage analysis
D. Memory analysis

What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

A) to determine when to stop testing
B) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
C) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
D) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs

Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print Large
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN Print p Large
ENDIF

A) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
B) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
C) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Functional system testing is:

A) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
B) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
C) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
D) testing that the system functions with other systems

What can static analysis NOT find?

A) array bound violations
B) the use of a variable before it has been defined
C) memory leaks
D) unreachable (dead) code

A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) calculating expected outputs
B) reading test values from a data file
C) recording test inputs
D) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes

Expected results are:

A) only important in system testing
B) most useful when specified in advance
C) only used in component testing
D) derived from the code

Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A) maintenance testing
B) user acceptance testing
C) non-functional system testing
D) component testing

We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

A) Each test stage has a different purpose.
B) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
C) We can run different tests in different environments.
D) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

A) Features to be tested
B) Incident reports
C) Risks
D) Schedule

Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

A) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
B) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
C) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
D) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.