-
NAVTEX is a navigational warning system that uses the internationally designated frequency of ______ kHz to broadcast
518
-
________ is an unclassified short name referring to investigations and studies of unintentional signals that, if intercepted and analyzed, would disclose the information transmitted, received, handled, or otherwise processed by telecommunication or automated information systems equipment
TEMPEST
-
Medium Frequency Range
250-525 kHz
-
High Frequency Range
2.0-30.0 MHz
-
Very High Frequency Range
118-175 MHz
-
Ultra High Frequency Range
225-400 MHz
-
Each VTS system may consisit of up to ____ remote sites
24
-
________ is the SMEF for VTS
C3CEN
-
DGPS provides a reliable position accuracy of better than ____ meters.
10
-
The Globabl Positioning System employs approximately ___ satellites.
26
-
GPS is designed so that _____ to ______ satellites are in view at anytime and from any position.
six, eleven
-
GPS satellites use ____ frequencies to continually transmit data that includes information such as the satellite position and ranging information.
2
-
GPS most have ____ satellites to define latitude and longitude.
three
-
A minimum of _____ satellites must be used to obtain a GPS fix.
three
-
GPS must have ______ satellites to define latitude, longitude, and altitude.
four
-
_______ is the SMEF for DGPS.
C3CEN
-
DGPS is controlled from two control stations in the following locations:
Alexandria, VA (NAVCEN)
-
Petaluma, CA (NAVCEN Detachment)
-
Each DGPS control staion uses how many T-1 data circuits?
2
-
SRAN equipment provides navigational coverage from __ to __ miles.
1, 30
-
The AN/USQ-91(V) ACMS are designed for mounting in a ___-inch electronic equipment rack. The monitor group and interconnecting group occupy ___feet of vertical space in a 24-inch deep equipment rack.
19, three
-
The Control Display Group unit displays the status of up to __ monitored functions and allows the control of _____ functions at each remote unit.
32, eight
-
The GCF-RWL-2231 NAVAID Sensor Module is a small gray box approximately ___ inches square, about __ pounds.
12, 10
-
The CEVV-VM100 Fog Detector is __ inches square that is mounted to a __-foot pedestal and weighs ___ pounds.
18, 6, 60
-
The LPC equipment is ___ inches square and weigh ___pounds.
24, 100
-
The GCF-RWL-2098 AVC is __ inches square and weighs __ pounds
24, 40
-
The SRAN AC Flash Controller uses an internal CG-181 flasher to provide daylight control of the main light. The main light is up to _____ W at ___ VAC.
1000, 120
-
The Fog Detector contains ____ plugs to facilitate testing and repair.
3
-
The GCF-RWL-2105 AC Flash Controller is __ inches square and weighs __ pounds.
18, 20
-
Setting the CG-181 at a voltage of __-__volts usually ensures proper operation.
12, 13
-
The SRAN RACON responds to radar pulses in the marine ____-____ and ____-____ MHz microwave bands.
2900-3100, 9300-9500
-
The CFAF-SEABEACON RACON is ___pounds and __ inches in length.
25,32
-
The CDPD Sound Signals weighs ____ pounds.
230
-
The GCF-W-1201 RLC-CU Range Light Controller is ___ inches square, weighs ___ pounds.
24, 60
-
A radio frequency request must be made to Commandant (CG-62) at least ___ days prior to the first transmission.
90
-
Commandant (CG-62) has earmarked _____ frequencies for use in the SRAN automation program
five
-
-
-
The IFF interrogator equipment :
-
Identifies a craft on search radar, and
-
challenges the craft to identify itself
Stage 1, Challenge
-
-
-
The IFF transponder equipment replies automatically
IFF Stage 2, Reply
-
-
-
When the IFF interrogator recognizes the craft as friendly, a decision is made outside the scope of this manual.
IFF Stage 3, Recognition
-
IFF Mode 1
Field Command: Determines type of aircraft of mission
-
IFF Mode 2
Platform Identity: Identifies a specific airframe or ship
-
IFF Mode 3/A
AFC identity codes
-
IFF Mode 4
Secure identification of friendly platform
-
IFF Mode C
Barometric pressure altitude of aircraft in 100 foot increments
-
THe range for IFF altitude measurements is from ___ to ___ feet mean sea level.
100- 125,500
-
IFF modes used to respond to Anti-Air Warfare
Modes 1, 2, 3/A and 4
-
IFF modes used to respond to Air Control.
Modes 2, 3/A, and C
-
IFF modes used to respond Surface Identification
Modes 1, 2, 3/A, and 4
-
IFF code for emergency
7700
-
IFF code for communications failure
7600
-
______ is a short-range, omni-bearing, distance-measuring navigation system that provides a continuous indication of the
-
bearing and distance of the airplane
TACAN
-
TACAN surface line of sight distance is up to ___ nautical miles
390
-
A TACAN beacon from suitably equipped, cooperating aircraft located within a line-of-sight distance up to ____ nautical miles.
200
-
The TACAN system has ___ channels available.
252
-
The TACAN channels are equally divided into ____ X channels and ___ Y channels.
126, 126
-
Both X and Y TACAN channels are spaced +++ MHz apart.
1
-
The TACAN transmitter section transmits interrogation pules in the ____-____ MHz frequency range.
1025, 1150
-
The TACAN receiver section operates in the ___ to ___ MHz frequency range.
962, 1213
-
The number of antenna elements on a Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) varies from ____ to as many as ____.
4, 16
-
When working within ____ feet of exposed energized circuits, do not wear metal items, such as
-
-
-
-
-
• metal-framed eyewear.
four
-
Rubber insulating loves are rated for voltages less than _____ VAC to ground, and high voltages of _____ and ______ VAC to ground
5000, 7500, 17000
-
For both men and women, gloves rated for high voltages must be __ inches in total length with a __-inch gauntlet.
14, 4
-
When working on live electrical circuits of __ volts or more, non-conductive shoes that meet American National Standards Institute (ANSI)-Z41 requirements must be worn.
30
-
Specifications for rubber or plastic matting and sheet floor coverings used around electrical apparatus or circuits to prevent accidental exposure to electrical potentials not exceeding _____ volts.
3000
-
Shorting probes, rated at ______ volts, must be located conspicuously in all spaces where electronic equipment is installed.
25,000
-
Currently, ___ types of matting for covering an entire space have been approved for use.
two
-
Rubber matting is designed to protect personnel from accidental exposure to electric potentials not exceeding ____ volts.
3000
-
At a minimum, _____-inch wide 3M electrical insulating tape should be used for sealing the seams of rubber floor matting.
four
-
How long are rubber floor matting rolls?
75 feet
-
How many colors of rubber floor matting?
3
-
-
-
-
-
-
What colors are High Voltage signs?
Black/white/red
-
Size of high voltage warning and danger signs?
10 inches by 14 inches
-
A labeling plate must be affixed to equipment with more than ____ power source (that is, ____ volts or more).
1, 12
-
A __ inch by__ inch cardboard safety tag, with an attached cord, must be
-
attached to equipment when personnel are working on circuits.
7.5, 4
-
A _________ is a shock absorbing fall restraint device that attaches to the body harness.
deceleration lanyard
-
Deceleration lanyards must be no more than ____ feet in total length to limit free falls to ____ feet.
six, six
-
Records show that _____ of ten electric shock victims revive when CPR is begun immediately (less than ______ minutes) after the shock occurred.
seven, three
-
The temperature in battery compartments must be maintained at less than __ Fahrenheit (F).
95
-
Lead acid batteries should only be opened in an extreme emergency if the room temperature is more than ____ F.
125
-
Lead acid batteries must be stored in the _______ state.
charged
-
How long should you flush your eyes with water after they come in contact with acid?
15, 20
-
If there is acid exposure to the skin continuously flush the affected skin for ___ - ___ minutes.
5-20
-
NiCad batteries are capable of operating in temperatures ranging from -____ F to +____ F
-140, +140
-
NiCad batteries temperature range for charging?
+32 F to +113 F
-
The recommended constant current charging rate for NiCad batteries is ____.
C/2
-
A completely discharged NiCad battery requires __-__hours of charging.
14,16
-
The trickle charge rate for a NiCad batttery should be _______
C/100
-
Rubber insulating gloves should be rated at _____ volts.
5000
-
________ (which is extremely explosive) is emitted from wet cell lead acid batteries when charging.
Hydrogen gas
-
Tools or equipment that display more than ___ milliroentgen per hour must be decontaminated with soap and water.
0.1
-
The DGPS Broadcast frequencies are between _____ - ______.
285.5 kHz- 325 kHz
-
Range of the RF spectrum.
0- 3000 GHz
-
S-band and X-band radar systems operate within what RF frequency band?
Super High Frequency
-
Super High Frequency band range.
3 GHz -30 GHz
-
What RF band is used for ship-to-aircraft communications?
UHF
-
What RF band is used for ship-to-ship communications?
VHF
-
The maximum rate of absorption by the human body can occur within the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit frequency range of _________.
30–300 MHz (VHF band).
-
Exposure time limit for occupational population/controlled exposure.
6 minutes
-
Exposure time limit for general population/uncontrolled exposure.
30 minutes
-
When a worker is exposed to a power density limit two times higher than the limit the workere must be away from thee field for ______ minutes before or after exposure.
3
-
When a worker is exposed to a power density limit three times higher than the limit the workere must be away from thee field for ______ minutes before or after exposure.
4
-
DGPS Broadcast sites use several different types of antennae that broadcast on an MF frequency from ____ to _____ watts.
250 to 2500
-
The standard PEL boundary at all DGPS sites is ___ feet from the broadcast antenna.
25
-
Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used in areas surrounding RF antennae to advise personnel not to remain within the permissible exposure limit (PEL) boundary longer than the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) time limit allows
1
-
Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to restrict personnel from proceeding past a designated point unless they are in compliance with the established radiation hazard safety procedures.
2
-
Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to advise personnel of an RF burn hazard source and not to touch metal objects or use special handling procedures when touching metal objects.
3
-
Type __ RF (RADHAZ warning signs are used to warn personnel of Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuel (HERF).
4
-
Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are labels that are generally used below deck in a system equipment room to advise system operators of specific safety precautions.
5
-
Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to advise personnel not to operate transmitters, cellular telephones, or other wireless communication devices within a designated area.
6
-
Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to ensure that personnel follow the Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) safety practices.
7
-
Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to advise operators to refer to the unit Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to
-
Ordnance (HERO) Emission Control Plan before operating a transmitter, and ensure that the procedures for restricting RF emissions are followed
8
-
Electronic equipment is expected to have a service life of __ years.
8
-
Major acquisitionas are over $__ or are under $__ but require management attention (normally between $__ and $__/
50M, 50M( normally between $5M and $50M)
-
Non-major acquisitions range from $__ to $__/
100K to $5M
-
Simplified Acquisitions are up to $___
$100K
-
-
Ground and ship-based electronic equipment
-
-
-
• major maintenance.
AFC-42
-
The ELC’s electronic repairables are identified by the Cognizance (COG) code __.
XB
-
A preprinted form that was packed with the serviceable item when it was shipped from the ELC.
-
-
-
• used to describe the problem with the defective equipment, and
-
• affixed to the equipment before shipment to the ELC.
Serviceable/Unserviceable Material Tag (CG-5236)
-
Mandatory turn-in items are considered overdue if not received at the ELC within __ days from the date the item was shipped by the ELC
45
-
Units with overdue MTI items are
-
• notified via MSG when items are overdue, and
-
• given __ days to respond or to return the overdue item.
30
-
Hazardous location Class:
-
The presence of a flammable gas or vapor
Class I
-
Hazardous location Class:
-
The presence of a flammable dust.
Class II
-
Hazardous location class:
-
The presence of flammable fibers of flyings
Class III
-
An index of all applicable MPCs for a given piece of equipment of system.
Index of Maintenance Procedures
-
A list of all CGPMS materials for electronic equipment installed at or supported by the unit, and the total annual maintenance hours for all the listed equipment.
List of Effective IMPs
-
A three-part form used to ensure continuous improvement to the CGPMS.
-
-
Form number for the Monthly PMS Maintenance Schedule
CG-5452
-
Form number for the Annual PMS Maintenance Schedule
CG-5453
-
Form number for the Equipment History form
CG-5454
-
MTRTS Quarterly submissions should be sent no later than ___ days following the end of the quarter.
10
-
Typical coax line pressure should be from ___ - ___ pounds.
3,5
-
Utilize a ______ to test a wire antennae.
Time Domain Reflectometer
-
Use __________ to record the results of megger testing on transmitting and receiving antenna systems and submarine cables.
NAVSHIP-531
-
When megging an antenna, a resistance measurement of _____ or less means maintenance is needed.
200 Megaohms
-
A resistance of _____ or less indicates an immediate and urgent need to find and correct the cause of the problem.
5 megaohms
-
For equipment that has been immersed in saltwater you should blow out all moisture with low-pressure air and dry it thorougly for __ hours at a temperature of approximately _____ F.
24, 150
-
What should be done to prepar whip antennas for cold weather?
Drill a 1/8" hole in the base of each antenna
-
Extreme cold weather operations start at what temperature?
below -35
-
Thaw dry batteries for one hour at about ___F, then for a second hour at ___F.
27, 70
-
Type __ field change furnishes a field change parts kit (which is assigned an Activity Control number, and includes documentation, parts, and special tools) required to complete a change.
1
-
Type __ field change furnishes documentation only.
2
-
Type __ field change furnishes documentation and some of the parts or special tools needed in a field change parts kit.
3
-
Type __ field change implements changes to technical documentation only. It requires no alterations to the equipment.
4
-
Field changes on NTNO equipment initiated by the Navy start with __.
1
-
Field changes on NTNO equipment initiated by the Coast Guard start with __.
91
-
A field change parts kit is included with Type __ and Type __ field changes.
1,3
-
The GCF-RWL-2106 AC Flash Controller weighs about ___ pounds and is approximately ___ inches square.
20, 18
-
The maximum rate of absorption by the human body can occur within the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit frequency range of ____________.
30–300 MHz (VHF band)
-
Extended exposure at the frequency range of _________ MHz is dangerous.
30–300
-
Determining the location and size of PEL fences is the responsibility of the :
TISCOM
-
-
-
++++++ creates PEL boundaries
TISCOM
-
++++++ Identifies radiation hazards in the unit
MLC
-
IFF has +++ challenge modes
5
-
TACAN's transmitter section transmits interrogation pulses in the ++++ - ++++ MHz range
1025, 1150
-
MH/HF ADF's have an accuracy of less than ++++ degrees
15
-
-
• only in a well-ventilated space, and
-
• if the room temperature is more than +++ F only in an extreme emergency.
125
-
MH/HF ADFs have a useful range of less than ++++ miles at 200 KHz and ++++ miles at 2 MHz
200, 50
-
Some CRTs use phosphors, which contain small amounts of the
-
harmful chemical ++++
beryllium.
-
An area is considered safe from contamination when less than +++ milliroentgen per hour is emitted at the surface of the area.
0.1
-
Many ship-to-shore communication systems use the ++++ band
HF
-
The frequency range for the purpose of exposure guidelines is ++++ - ++++
300 kHz - 100 GHz
-
SRAN frenquncies?
406-420 MHz
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