3381. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
B.
3382. What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
A.
3383. A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?
C.
3384. The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
C.
3385. The which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
B.
3386. What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
C.
3395. The wind at 5000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A.
3397. What is meant by the term "dewpoint"?
B.
3398. The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
B.
3399. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
A.
3400. What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
C.
3401. Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
C.
3402. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
C.
3403. What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
A.
3404. What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
B.
3405. What is a characteristic of stable air?
C.
3406. Moist, stable air flowing up slope can be expected to
A.
3407. If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?
A.
3408. What feature is associated with any temperature inversion?
A.
3409. What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1000 feet MSL is 70° F and the dewpoint is 48° F
C.
3410. At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82° F and the dewpoint this 38° F
A.
3412. What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
A.
3413. What are characteristics of unstable air?
B.
3414. A stable air masses most likely to have which characteristic?
B.
3415. The suffix " nimbus," used in naming clouds, means
B.
3416. Clouds are divided into four families according to their
A.
3417. An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears a stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as
A.
3418. Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens - shaped clouds known as
A.
3419. What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
C. A.
3420. What cloud types would indicate convective of turbulence?
A.
3421. The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a
A.
3422. One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
B.
3423. One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
A.
3424. Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
B.
3425. Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
B.
3426. Where does wind shear occur?
C.
3427. When that may hazardous wind shear be expected?
B.
3428. A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2000 to 4000 feet above the surface is at least
C.
3429. One in flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
C.
3430. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation right?
C.
3433. The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are lifting action and
C.
3434. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
B.
3435. Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
A.
3436. What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
C.
3437. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
A.
3438. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
B.
3439. Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
A.
3440. A non frontal, narrowband of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a
B.
3441. If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an Airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
A.
3443. What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
B.
3444. If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62° F, what type of weather is most likely to develop?
C.
3445. In which situation as at advection fog most likely to form
C.
3446. What types of fog to depend upon wind in order to exist?
C.
3447. Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
C.
3452. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
A.
3453. Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source?
C.
3454. Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain
B.
3455. When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
B.
3456. To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request
A.
3457. Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
B.
3458. Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
C.
3459. To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request
B.
3460. A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is
B.
3461. When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request
A.
3462. (Fig.12) which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?
B.
3463. For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the earth's surface of the
C.
3464. (Fig.12) the wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from
B.
3465. (Fig.12) what are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?
B.
3466. (Fig.12) the remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. this country means
A.
3467. (Fig.12) what are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?
B.
3472. (Fig.14) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
C.
3473. (Fig.14) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by the pilot are
C.
3474. (Fig.14) if the terrain elevation is 1295 feet MSL what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?
C.
3475. (Fig.14) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is
C.
3476. (Fig.14) the intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is
B.
3478. From which primaries source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no terminal forecast?
C.
3479. (Fig.15) what is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
C.
3480. (Fig.15) in the TAF for KMEM, what does "SHRA" stand for?
B.
3481. (Fig.15) between 1000Z and 1200Z and visibility at KMEM is forecast to be?
B.
3482. (Fig.15) what is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?
A.
3483. (Fig.15) in the TAF from KOKC, the "FM (FROM) Group" is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from
B.
3484. (Fig.15) in the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes
A.
3485. (Fig.15) during the time period from 0600Z to0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
A.
3486.(Fig.15) The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is
B.
3487. To best determine general forecast weather conditions over a flight information region, the pilot should prefer to
C.
3488. (Fig.16) what is the outlook for the southern half of Indiana after 0700Z?
A.
3489. To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the
A.
3490. The section of the area forecast entitled " VFR CLDS/WX" contains a general description of
B.
3491. (Fig.16) what sky condition and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z?
A.
3492. (Fig.16) the Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the 25th at
C.
3493. (Fig.16) what sky condition and type obstructions to vision are forecast for upper Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z?
B.
3494. To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a
C.
3495. What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?
B.
3496. What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
C.
3497. SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
C.
3498. Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
A.
3499. AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities then SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to
A.
3500. (Fig.17) what wind is forecast for STL at 9000 feet?
C.
3501. (Fig.17) what wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
B.
3502. (Fig.17) determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9000 feet.
B.
3503. (Fig.17) determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6000 feet.
A.
3504. (Fig.17) what wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
C.
3505. What values are used for winds aloft forecasts?
C.
3506. When the term " light and variable" is used in reference to a winds aloft forecast, the coded group and wind speed is
C.
3507. (Fig.18) what is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?
B.
3508. (Fig.18) the IFR weather in northern Texas is due to
B.
3509. (Fig.18) of what value is the weather depiction chart to the pilot?
C.
3510. (Fig.18) the marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low
A.
3511. (Fig.18) what weather phenomenon is causing IFR conditions in Central Oklahoma?
B.
3512. (Fig.18) according to the weather depiction chart, the weather for a flight from Southern Michigan to North Indiana is ceilings
A.
3513. Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate
A.
3514. What information is provided by the radar summary chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
C.
3515. (Fig.19 area b) what is the top for precipitation of the radar return?
B.
3516. (Fig.19 area b) what type of weather is occurring in the radar return?
B.
3518. (Fig.19 area e) the top of the precipitation of the cell is
A.
3519. What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a radar summary chart refer to?
A.
3520. (Fig.20) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?
C.
3521. (Fig.20) Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12 hour Significant Weather Prognostic Charts.
B.
3522. (Fig.20) what weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?
B.
3523. (Fig.20) the enclosed shaded area associated with the low pressure system over northern Utah is forecast to have
C.
3524. (Fig.20) at what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12 hour significant Weather Prognostic Charts?
B.
3526. What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
A.
3527. What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
C.
3528. When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
A.
3616. How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected?
A.
3617. What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?
B.
3630. (Fig.22) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?
A.
3823. Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
B.
4072. The destination Airport has one runway, 08-26, and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm wind is a left hand pattern to runway O8. There is no other traffic at the Airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground. The pilot decides to
A fly the pattern to runway 08 since the storm is too far away to affect the wind at the Airport.
B. Fly the normal pattern to runway 08 since the storm is west and moving north and any unexpected wind will be from the east or south east toward the storm.
C. Fly an approach to runway 26 since any unexpected wind due to the storm will be westerly.
